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The examiner shall select at least TASKs E and F.



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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of the learning process by describing: 1. The definition and characteristics of learning. ã Changing behavior based on experience. Mnemonic: ?
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± students learn from any activity that furthers their purpose Ɣ "#
± learning comes from experience; learning a physical skill requires actually performing the skill Ɣ ! $%
± verbal, conceptual, perceptual, motor, problem solving and emotional Ɣ 

± students need to react and respond, must interact with instructor and aircraft. 2. Practical application of the laws of learning. Ɣ $%# Students learn best when ready to learn; implies a singlemindedness to learn ã " Things most often repeated are best remembered ã   Learning is strengthened by a satisfying or pleasant experience ã &$' Things learned first are best remembered ã c##' Students learn more from the real thing than a substitute or simulation ã #' Recent learning is best remembered 3. Factors involved in how people learn. Mnemonic: 



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ã ! (# A positive self-concept allows the student to be more receptive to new material while a negative self concept introduces psychological barriers that inhibit the learning process ã &
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#' Proper sequence of training and providing time to process and learn the material. ã !&#

)$: An effective instructor will organize training based on the psychological needs of a student. Ɣ # Formed when giving meaning to sensory input: sight 75%, hearing 13%, touch 6%, smell 3%, taste 3% Ɣ c#*) Grouping perceptions into a meaningful whole Ɣ $# Major force which governs progress and ability to learn 4. Recognition and proper use of the various levels of learning. ã : repeat back what has been instructed without necessarily understanding or be able to apply the knowledge. ã #%$#%#*: Able to repeat and comprehend what has been taught. ã !$#: Able to apply what is learned and perform in accordance with that knowledge. ã !$# The student is able to associate various learned elements with various other segments of learning or accomplishments.

5. Principles that are applied in learning a skill. Mnemonic: ã *#
$*: Factual knowledge. The instructor provides step by step instruction that the student memorizes. ã $
$*: No longer by memory. The student begins to be able to assess progress and make adjustments based on performance. ã &$
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$*: The student devotes much less deliberate attention to performance. 6. Factors related to forgetting and retention. p
 
   Mnemonic: 



 ã $ Praise stimulates remembering ã $# Association promotes recall ã # Learning with all senses is most effective ã % Favorable attitudes aid retention ã # Meaningful repetition aids recall p
 
  

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Tendency to submerse unpleasant ideas in subconscious as a defense mechanism ã c# #
Tendency to forget ideas because other experiences have overshadowed them ã 
Tendency to forget things which are not used. 7. How the transfer of learning affects the learning process. ã Application of what has been learned in one task to another subsequent task þ All new learning is based on previously learned experience þ Plan for transfer by organizing lessons in meaningful sequence ã 
$# : Learning one skill helps learn another þ Example: speedometer and airspeed indicator ã *$
$# : Learning one skill hinders learning another þ Example: steering wheel vs. cyclic 8. How the formation of habit patterns affects the learning process. ã The formation of positive habits promotes learning and safety
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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to human behavior by describing: 1. Control of human behavior. ã #$!'
': (MBTI) attempts to explain behavior based on how individuals use their judgment and perception. ã c#
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!$#): Instructor is responsible for determining the best way of teaching a student.

2. Development of student potential. ã Relationship between CFI and student has a profound impact on how much the student learns ã To a student, CFI is a symbol of authority CFI's challenge is to know what controls are best for what circumstances ã To mold a solid relationship depends on CFI's knowledge of the student's needs, drives and desires. 3. Relationship of human needs to behavior and learning.

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%. ã )'!*$!: Maintenance of the human body, i.e. Air food water. A student that is not well will not perform well. ã ': A need to feel safe. ã +!#*#*: People seek to overcome feelings of loneliness and alienation. ã &: Humans have a need for a stable, firmly based, high level of self respect and respect from others. ã ! ($!/$#: ³be all you can be.´ þ Being problem focused. þ A concern about personal growth. þ The ability to have peak experiences. þ Incorporating an ongoing freshness of appreciation of life. 4. Relationship of defense mechanisms to student learning and pilot decision making. ã &#$# Emphasizing more positive quality to offset weak one
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Blame own shortcomings on others, or weather
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Can't accept real reasons for behavior, uses excuses
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Refuse to acknowledge disagreeable realities
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Conscious attitudes/behaviors opposite of desires
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Escape from frustration, physically or mentally
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Acting out anger in response to frustration
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Losing interest and giving up as a result of frustration
5. General rules which a flight instructor should follow during student training to ensure good human relations. ã ã ã ã ã ã ã ã ã

Provide and organized clearly defined syllabus. Help students integrate new ideas with what they have already know to ensure they keep and use the new information. Assume responsibility for only his or her own expectations not those of the students. Recognize the students need to control the pace. Use SBT exercises frequently. Use books, programmed instruction and computers. Refrain from spoon feeding. Set a cooperative learning climate. Create an opportunity for mutual planning.




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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of the teaching process by describing: 1. Preparation of a lesson for a ground or flight instructional period. 4-4 ã Performance based objectives þ Objectives can come from syllabus or PTS þ What needs to be done and how it will be done þ Measurable, reasonable standards for the student ã Description of skill or behavior þ Desired outcome of the instruction þ Should be in concrete, measurable terms þ Not just ³knowledge of´ or ³awareness of´ ã Conditions þ Rules for demonstrating the skill or behavior þ Equipment, tools, reference materials, limitations ã Criteria þ Standards for accomplishment of the objective þ Be clear; leave no doubt whether objective is met þ When applicable, should be based on the PTS 2. Presentation of knowledge and skills, including the methods, which are suitable in particular situations. 4-10 A *
0(12 ã Decide on topic. ã Write an outline. ã Rehearse the lesson. ã Make learning goals explicit Methods: ã : Classroom for presenting new material and association between theory and practice. ã &#$#

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Instructor demonstration then student practices.
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3. Application, by the student, of the knowledge and skills presented by the instructor. 4-22 ã The students explain or perform the material or maneuver that was presented. 4. Review of the material presented and the evaluation of student performance and accomplishment. 4-22 ã The instructor reviews the material that was presented and the student demonstrates how well the lesson objectives were met.


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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9.


To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of teaching methods by describing: 1. The organization of a lesson, i.e., introduction, development, and conclusion. 4-8 ã c#%#
þ Attention: Opening statement that grabs the attention of the student. þ Motivation: Why it is important to learn the material about to be presented. þ Overview: Brief introduction of the material to be covered. ã !&#: þ Past to Present: Chronological order. þ Simple to Complex: Lead the student from simple facts to complex facts to gain understanding. þ Known to Unknown: Teaching by association. þ Frequent to Least Used ã #!#: Must contain a review and assessment of the material and how they relate to the objectives. 2. The lecture method. 4-10 ã : Classroom environment for presenting new material and association between theory and practice. þ Teaching Lecture: þ Formal: þ Informal: þ Advantage and Disadvantage: 2. The guided discussion method. 4-13 ã %%
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Based on the idea that the student has a working knowledge of the material to be discussed. The goal is to draw out what the student knows instead of telling them lecture style.
þ Overhead: Group question to stimulate thought. þ Rhetorical: Similar to the overhead just doesn¶t need an answer. þ Direct: Asking an individual a specific question. þ Reverse: Learner asked question that the instructor returns. þ Relay: Asked by a learner and the instructor relays it to another student. 3. The demonstration-performance method. 4-21 ã &#$#

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Instructor demonstration then student practices.
þ Explanation þ Demonstration þ Student Performance þ Instructor Supervision þ Evaluation 5. Computer/video assisted instruction. 4-26 ã &
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PC based test preps and study guides. ã #
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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9.


To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of critique and evaluation by describing: 1. Purpose and characteristics of an effective critique. 
ã A critique should improve students¶ performance and provide them with something constructive with which to work and upon which they can build. cc
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þ Focused on student performance.
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þ Considers student's entire performance. þ Considers requirements of the moment.
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þ Instructor must have credibility and trust.
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þ Captures the significant points without overload.
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þ Positive critique when earned. þ Negative critique points toward improvement. ã *$#/%
þ Follows some pattern of organization.
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' Order of importance
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þ Student needs self-esteem, recognition and approval.
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þ Say what's wrong and how to fix it.

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5: Instructor leads a group discussion and members of the class are invited to critique.
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5: Instructor asks the student to lead the critique.
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5: Divide the class into small groups and assign a specific area to analyze.
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%#: Another student presents the entire critique.
ã ! (5: Require the student to critique personal performance.
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5: Written critiques provide a record for the student. The instructor can devote more time.
2. Difference between critique and evaluation. ã Evaluation is making a judgment of students¶ abilities. Critique is providing comprehensive constructive feedback. 4. Characteristics of effective oral questions and what type to avoid. ã Apply to the subject. ã Brief and concise ã Be appropriate to the stage of training

ã Centered on one idea ã Present a challenge Types of questions to avoid ã //! þ Lots of parts and subparts. ã / þ Too general, covering wide area. ã ( þ More than one correct answer. ã +-!%&# þ Unclear about question's content. ã 6
5# þ Challenge to battle of wits with CFI. ã c!$# þ Unrelated to topic of discussion. Responses to student questions. ã Must be understood by CFI before answering ã May defer question until later unit or lesson ã CFI should admit not knowing an answer. Promise to get the answer or help student to look it up ã Encourage students to ask more questions. 5. Characteristics and development of effective written tests.(5-4) ã !$!'
þ Consistent with repeated measurement ã ,$!%'

þ Measures what it was intended to ã $!'

þ Functionality for student ã '

þ Singleness of scoring, avoid bias ã &)##

þ Measures overall objectives ã &#$#

þ Measure differences in achievement Development ã Decide on the !

$##*. ã List indicators of the result of learning. (test completion standards) 6. Characteristics and uses of performance tests, specifically, the FAA practical test standards. ã CFI uses same standards preparing students for it ã Practical Test Standards (PTS) set standards for FAA examiners þ Broken down into areas of operation and tasks þ Areas of operation range from preflight to post-flight þ Criterion based.

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' Knowledge areas ' Flight procedures ' Maneuvers PTS are already set high - not minimum standards. !$!'
þ Consistent with repeated measurement ,$!%'

þ Measures what it was intended to $!'

þ Functionality for student '

þ Singleness of scoring, avoid bias &)##

þ Measures overall objectives &#$#

þ Measure differences in achievement



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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of flight instructor characteristics and responsibilities by describing: 1. Major characteristics and qualifications of a professional flight instructor. ã

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þ Straightforward and honest þ Facades will only cause student to lose confidence $#

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þ As they are, with faults and problems þ Acceptance encourages learning #$!
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þ Important effect on professional image. &$#
þ Calm, thoughtful, disciplined, but not somber. $ '
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þ Emphasis on safety by CFI has long-lasting effect. þ CFI leads by example ± ³practice what you preach.´ 
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þ Profanity detracts from professional image. þ Define and encourage proper use of aviation terms. ! (&&#
þ CFI should seek improvement of own qualifications. A good pilot is always learning. þ CFI is the expert many pilots refer questions to.

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2. Role of the flight instructor in dealing with student stress, anxiety, and psychological abnormalities. ã Calm, professional demeanor while maintaining control of the aircraft. ã Break training and maneuvers down into digestible chunks. 3. Flight instructor's responsibility with regard to student pilot supervision and surveillance. ã $!$#

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!' þ Determine that student understands maneuver þ Instructor demonstrates, student practices þ Evaluation must be based on standards ' Consider student's experience and stage of training ' Not all PTS standards may apply on first practice ' But have a reasonable standard for completion þ Evaluate mastery of all elements of a maneuver not just overall performance þ Maintain training files ã !
# þ Guidance and restraint for solo student operations þ Instructor alone determines student ready for solo þ Require performance of fundamental maneuvers þ Should be able to handle ordinary problems ' Traffic pattern congestion ' Change in active runway ' Unexpected crosswinds þ Instructor must retain control of situation 4. Flight instructor's authority and responsibility for endorsements and recommendations. ã !*)
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#%&# þ From FAR Part 61 and Advisory Circular 61-65 þ Instructor must ensure student or pilot meets requirements prior to issuing endorsement þ ³You can never have too much ink´ ' When in doubt if an endorsement is needed, assume so þ Examples of endorsements: ' Student solo and cross-country ' Knowledge tests ' Practical tests - logbook and Form 8710-1 ' Flight reviews and instrument proficiency checks 7. Flight instructor's responsibility in the conduct of the required FAA flight review. ã )
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#%&# þ Flight reviews ' Not a test or check ride - assesses pilot's knowledge. ' Instructor must meet the qualifications in SFAR73. ' Provide awareness and flight training required.

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' Ensure that the pilot is competent and safe. ' Standards based on ratings held. þ Instrument proficiency checks ' Advisory Circular 61-98 and Instrument Rating PTS þ Aircraft checkouts/transitions ' CFI must be thoroughly familiar with aircraft & systems ' Record in logbook exact extent of checkout If pilot performance is insufficient, debrief on problem areas and schedule more instruction.




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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to the planning of instructional activity by describing: 1. Development of a course of training. ã 

$##* þ Complete series of studies leading to attainment of a specific goal by determining the objectives and standards that may be tailored to Levels of Learning or Domains of Learning. 2. Content and use of a training syllabus. ã Step-by-step building block progression of learning ã Training syllabus can help keep up with þ Technology advances þ Increasingly complicated regulations ã Syllabus should be an abstract or digest of a course þ Brief yet comprehensive ã CFI may use own course or commercial product þ Order of actual training can be altered as necessary þ Consider relationships of blocks taken out of order ã Ground training focuses on cognitive domain ã Flight training on knowledge and psychomotor ã Can be used as a checklist of what to teach 3. Purpose, characteristics, proper use, and items of a lesson plan. ã  þ Ensures the instructor has learned the lesson first þ Assists wise selection of material ' Minimizes unimportant material þ Due consideration given to each part of lesson þ Aid in presenting material in suitable sequence þ Outline of teaching procedure þ Relates lesson to its objectives þ Gives inexperienced instructor confidence þ Promotes uniformity of instruction ã )$$
(6-7) þ #' ± lesson is a unified segment of instruction þ ## ± each lesson contains new material

 ± each lesson is reasonable scope $$!' ± planned for conditions where the training will be conducted !"!' ± CFI may adapt/modify as needed !$#



$##* ± should be taught so that relevance is clear to student þ c##$!
 ± use steps of teaching process þ Preparation, presentation, Application, evaluation ã -


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!' þ Be familiar with the lesson plan ' CFI should study the plan and be familiar þ Use the lesson plan as a guide ' Avoids getting off track or omitting important details þ Adapt the lesson plan to the class or student ' If desired results aren't happening, change the approach þ Revise the lesson plan periodically ' Up-to-date for regulations and technology ' Availability of instructional aides & equipment ã c&

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!$# þ Objective þ Completion Standards þ Content of the lesson. ' Preflight discussion ' Review ' Introduction ' Post flight critique and preview. 4. Flexibility features of a course of training, syllabus, and lesson plan required to accommodate students with varying backgrounds, levels of experience, and ability. þ þ þ þ

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c## þ Analyze student's personality, thinking and ability þ No two students are alike þ Same methods of instruction are not equally effective on each student þ Learn the student's background, interests, temperament and way of thinking þ Instruction methods may change as student progresses through stages of training $#%$%

 &$# þ Flight instructors must continuously evaluate ' their own effectiveness ' Standard of learning ' Performance achieved by their students þ Desire to maintain pleasant personal relationship with student must not lead to acceptance of slow rate of learning or substandard performance þ An earnest student will not resent reasonable standards that are fairly and consistently applied &)$/#*
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þ Flight instructors have a tremendous influence on students' perception of aviation þ Positive or negative impressions formed by ' The way instructors conduct themselves ' The attitudes instructors display ' The manner in which they develop their instruction þ Success depends largely on instructor's ability to present instruction so students have a positive image of aviation cc


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The examiner shall select TASK L and at least one other TASK.


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-25; AIM. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to aero medical factors by describing: 1. Hypoxia, its symptoms, effects, and corrective action. 8-1-2. Effects of Altitude a. Hypoxia. 1. Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs. Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude, for the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains about 21 percent from the ground out to space. 2. Although deterioration in night vision occurs at a cabin pressure altitude as low as 5,000 feet, other significant effects of altitude hypoxia usually do not occur in the normal healthy pilot below 12,000 feet. From 12,000 to 15,000 feet of altitude, judgment, memory, alertness, coordination and ability to make calculations are impaired, and headache, drowsiness, dizziness and either a sense of well-being (euphoria) or belligerence occur. The effects appear following increasingly shorter periods of exposure to increasing altitude. In fact, pilot performance can seriously deteriorate within 15 minutes at 15,000 feet. 3. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet, the periphery of the visual field grays out to a point where only central vision remains (tunnel vision). A blue coloration (cyanosis) of the fingernails and lips develops. The ability to take corrective and protective action is lost in 20 to 30 minutes at 18,000 feet and 5 to 12 minutes at 20,000 feet, followed soon thereafter by unconsciousness. 4. The altitude at which significant effects of hypoxia occur can be lowered by a number of factors. Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes, lowered hemoglobin (anemia), and certain medications can reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood to the degree that the amount of oxygen provided to body tissues will already be equivalent to the oxygen provided to the tissues when exposed to a cabin pressure altitude of several thousand

feet. Small amounts of alcohol and low doses of certain drugs, such as antihistamines, tranquilizers, sedatives and analgesics can, through their depressant action, render the brain much more susceptible to hypoxia. Extreme heat and cold, fever, and anxiety increase the body's demand for oxygen, and hence its susceptibility to hypoxia.  . The effects of hypoxia are usually quite difficult to recognize, especially when they occur gradually. Since symptoms of hypoxia do not vary in an individual, the ability to recognize hypoxia can be greatly improved by experiencing and witnessing the effects of hypoxia during an altitude chamber "flight." The FAA provides this opportunity through aviation physiology training, which is conducted at the FAA Civil Aero medical Institute and at many military facilities across the U.S. To attend the Physiological Training Program at the Civil Aero medical Institute, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, Oklahoma City, OK, contact by telephone (405) 954-6212, or by writing Aerospace Medical Education Division, AAM-400, CAMI, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. 6. Hypoxia is prevented by heeding factors that reduce tolerance to altitude, by enriching the inspired air with oxygen from an appropriate oxygen system, and by maintaining a comfortable, safe cabin pressure altitude. For optimum protection, pilots are encouraged to use supplemental oxygen above 10,000 feet during the day and above 5,000 feet at night. The CFRs require that at the minimum, flight crew be provided with and use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes of exposure to cabin pressure altitudes between 12,500 and 14,000 feet and immediately on exposure to cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet. Every occupant of the aircraft must be provided with supplemental oxygen at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet. 2. Hyperventilation, its symptoms, effects, and corrective action. 8-1-3. Hyperventilation in Flight a. Hyperventilation, or an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs, can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight. As hyperventilation "blows off" excessive carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can experience symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities, and coolness and react to them with even greater hyperventilation. Incapacitation can eventually result from incoordination, disorientation, and painful muscle spasms. Finally, unconsciousness can occur. b. The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are consciously brought back under control. The buildup of carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth. c. Early symptoms of hyperventilation and hypoxia are similar. Moreover, hyperventilation and hypoxia can occur at the same time. Therefore, if a pilot is using an oxygen system when symptoms are experienced, the oxygen regulator should immediately be set to deliver 100 percent oxygen, and then the system checked to assure that it has been functioning effectively before giving attention to rate and depth of breathing. 3. Middle ear and sinus problems, their causes, effects, and corrective action.

Ear Block. 1. As the aircraft cabin pressure decreases during ascent, the expanding air in the middle ear pushes the Eustachian tube open, and by escaping down it to the nasal passages, equalizes in pressure with the cabin pressure. But during descent, the pilot must periodically open the Eustachian tube to equalize pressure. This can be accomplished by swallowing, yawning, tensing muscles in the throat, or if these do not work, by a combination of closing the mouth, pinching the nose closed, and attempting to blow through the nostrils (Valsalva maneuver). 2. Either an upper respiratory infection, such as a cold or sore throat, or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough congestion around the Eustachian tube to make equalization difficult. Consequently, the difference in pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin can build up to a level that will hold the Eustachian tube closed, making equalization difficult if not impossible. The problem is commonly referred to as an "ear block." 3. An ear block produces severe ear pain and loss of hearing that can last from several hours to several days. Rupture of the ear drum can occur in flight or after landing. Fluid can accumulate in the middle ear and become infected. 4. An ear block is prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition. Adequate protection is usually not provided by decongestant sprays or drops to reduce congestion around the Eustachian tubes. Oral decongestants have side effects that can significantly impair pilot performance.  . If an ear block does not clear shortly after landing, a physician should be consulted. Sinus Block. 1. During ascent and descent, air pressure in the sinuses equalizes with the aircraft cabin pressure through small openings that connect the sinuses to the nasal passages. Either an upper respiratory infection, such as a cold or sinusitis, or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough congestion around an opening to slow equalization, and as the difference in pressure between the sinus and cabin mounts, eventually plug the opening. This "sinus block" occurs most frequently during descent. 2. A sinus block can occur in the frontal sinuses, located above each eyebrow, or in the maxillary sinuses, located in each upper cheek. It will usually produce excruciating pain over the sinus area. A maxillary sinus block can also make the upper teeth ache. Bloody mucus may discharge from the nasal passages. 3. A sinus block is prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition. Adequate protection is usually not provided by decongestant sprays or drops to reduce congestion around the sinus openings. Oral decongestants have side effects that can impair pilot performance. 4. If a sinus block does not clear shortly after landing, a physician should be consulted.

4. Spatial disorientation, its causes, effects, and corrective action. cllusions Leading to Spatial Disorientation. Various complex motions and forces and certain visual scenes encountered in flight can create illusions of motion and position. Spatial disorientation from these illusions can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable, fixed points on the ground or to flight instruments. Vhe leans. An abrupt correction of a banked attitude, which has been entered too slowly to stimulate the motion sensing system in the inner ear, can create the illusion of banking in the opposite direction. The disoriented pilot will roll the aircraft back into its original dangerous attitude, or if level flight is maintained, will feel compelled to lean in the perceived vertical plane until this illusion subsides. Coriolis illusion. An abrupt head movement in a prolonged constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis. The disoriented pilot will maneuver the aircraft into a dangerous attitude in an attempt to stop rotation. This most overwhelming of all illusions in flight may be prevented by not making sudden, extreme head movements, particularly while making prolonged constantrate turns under IFR conditions. Graveyard spin. A proper recovery from a spin that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of spinning in the opposite direction. The disoriented pilot will return the aircraft to its original spin. Graveyard spiral. An observed loss of altitude during a coordinated constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of being in a descent with the wings level. The disoriented pilot will pull back on the controls, tightening the spiral and increasing the loss of altitude. Somatogravic illusion. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of being in a nose up attitude. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low, or dive attitude. A rapid deceleration by a quick reduction of the throttles can have the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up, or stall attitude. cnversion illusion. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of tumbling backwards. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft abruptly into a nose low attitude, possibly intensifying this illusion. Elevator illusion. An abrupt upward vertical acceleration, usually by an updraft, can create the illusion of being in a climb. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low attitude. An abrupt downward vertical acceleration, usually by a downdraft, has the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up attitude. False horizon. Sloping cloud formations, an obscured horizon, a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars, and certain geometric patterns of ground light can create illusions of not being

aligned correctly with the actual horizon. The disoriented pilot will place the aircraft in a dangerous attitude. Auto kinesis. In the dark, a static light will appear to move about when stared at for many seconds. The disoriented pilot will lose control of the aircraft in attempting to align it with the light. 5. Motion sickness, its causes, effects, and corrective action. 1. Motion is sensed by the brain through three different pathways of the nervous system that send signals coming from the inner ear (sensing motion, acceleration, and gravity), the eyes (vision), and the deeper tissues of the body surface (proprioceptors). When the body is moved intentionally, for example, when we walk, the input from all three pathways is coordinated by our brain. When there is unintentional movement of the body, as occurs during motion when driving in a car, the brain is not coordinating the input, and there is thought to be discoordination or conflict among the input from the three pathways. It is hypothesized that the conflict among the inputs is responsible for motion sickness. 2. The symptoms of motion sickness include nausea, vomiting, and dizziness (vertigo). Other common signs are sweating and a general feeling of discomfort and not feeling well. 3. Always ride where your eyes will see the same motion that your body and inner ears feel. þ þ þ

In an airplane, sit by the window and look outside. Also, in a plane, choose a seat over the wings where the motion is minimized. Avoid strong odors and spicy or greasy foods that do not agree with you (immediately before and during your travel).

6. Effects of alcohol and drugs, and their relationship to safety. ÷edication. 1. Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by both prescribed and over-the-counter medications, as well as by the medical conditions for which they are taken. Many medications, such as tranquilizers, sedatives, strong pain relievers, and cough-suppressant preparations, have primary effects that may impair judgment, memory, alertness, coordination, vision, and the ability to make calculations. Others, such as antihistamines, blood pressure drugs, muscle relaxants, and agents to control diarrhea and motion sickness, have side effects that may impair the same critical functions. Any medication that depresses the nervous system, such as a sedative, tranquilizer or antihistamine, can make a pilot much more susceptible to hypoxia. 2. The CFRs prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any medication that affects the faculties in any way contrary to safety. The safest rule is not to fly as a crewmember while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA. Alcohol.

1. Extensive research has provided a number of facts about the hazards of alcohol consumption and flying. As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or four ounces of wine can impair flying skills, with the alcohol consumed in these drinks being detectable in the breath and blood for at least 3 hours. Even after the body completely destroys a moderate amount of alcohol, a pilot can still be severely impaired for many hours by hangover. There is simply no way of increasing the destruction of alcohol or alleviating a hangover. Alcohol also renders a pilot much more susceptible to disorientation and hypoxia. 2. A consistently high alcohol related fatal aircraft accident rate serves to emphasize that alcohol and flying are a potentially lethal combination. The CFRs prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties within 8 hours after drinking any alcoholic beverage or while under the influence of alcohol. However, due to the slow destruction of alcohol, a pilot may still be under influence 8 hours after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol. Therefore, an excellent rule is to allow at least 12 to 24 hours between "bottle and throttle," depending on the amount of alcoholic beverage consumed. 7. Carbon monoxide poisoning, its symptoms, effects, and corrective action. 8-1-4. Carbon ÷onoxide Poisoning in Flight a. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes. When breathed even in minute quantities over a period of time, it can significantly reduce the ability of the blood to carry oxygen. Consequently, effects of hypoxia occur. b. Most heaters in light aircraft work by air flowing over the manifold. Use of these heaters while exhaust fumes are escaping through manifold cracks and seals is responsible every year for several nonfatal and fatal aircraft accidents from carbon monoxide poisoning. c. A pilot who detects the odor of exhaust or experiences symptoms of headache, drowsiness, or dizziness while using the heater should suspect carbon monoxide poisoning, and immediately shut off the heater and open air vents. If symptoms are severe or continue after landing, medical treatment should be sought. 8. How evolved gas from scuba diving can affect a pilot during flight. Decompression Sickness After Scuba Diving. 1. A pilot or passenger who intends to fly after scuba diving should allow the body sufficient time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving. If not, decompression sickness due to evolved gas can occur during exposure to low altitude and create a serious in-flight emergency. 2. The recommended waiting time before going to flight altitudes of up to 8,000 feet is at least 12 hours after diving which has not required controlled ascent (no decompression stop diving), and at least 24 hours after diving which has required controlled ascent (decompression stop diving). The waiting time before going to flight altitudes above 8,000 feet should be at least 24 hours after any SCUBA dive. These recommended altitudes are actual flight altitudes above

mean sea level (AMSL) and not pressurized cabin altitudes. This takes into consideration the risk of decompression of the aircraft during flight. 8. Fatigue, its effects and corrective action. Fatigue. 1. Fatigue continues to be one of the most treacherous hazards to flight safety, as it may not be apparent to a pilot until serious errors are made. Fatigue is best described as either acute (shortterm) or chronic (long-term). 2. A normal occurrence of everyday living, acute fatigue is the tiredness felt after long periods of physical and mental strain, including strenuous muscular effort, immobility, heavy mental workload, strong emotional pressure, monotony, and lack of sleep. Consequently, coordination and alertness, so vital to safe pilot performance, can be reduced. Acute fatigue is prevented by adequate rest and sleep, as well as by regular exercise and proper nutrition. 3. Chronic fatigue occurs when there is not enough time for full recovery between episodes of acute fatigue. Performance continues to fall off, and judgment becomes impaired so that unwarranted risks may be taken. Recovery from chronic fatigue requires a prolonged period of rest. PERSONAL CHECKLcSV. c


  


    
   cllness ÷edication Stress Alcohol Fatigue Emotion

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-25; AC 90-48; AIM. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to visual scanning and collision avoidance by describing: 1. Relationship between a pilot's physical or mental condition and vision. In darkness, vision becomes more sensitive to light, a process called dark adaptation. Although exposure to total darkness for at least 30 minutes is required for complete dark adaptation, a pilot can achieve a moderate degree of dark adaptation within 20 minutes under dim red cockpit lighting. Since red light severely distorts colors, especially on aeronautical charts, and can cause serious difficulty in focusing the eyes on objects inside the aircraft, its use is advisable only

where optimum outside night vision capability is necessary. Even so, white cockpit lighting must be available when needed for map and instrument reading, especially under IFR conditions. Dark adaptation is impaired by exposure to cabin pressure altitudes above 5,000 feet, carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking and from exhaust fumes, deficiency of Vitamin A in the diet, and by prolonged exposure to bright sunlight. Since any degree of dark adaptation is lost within a few seconds of viewing a bright light, a pilot should close one eye when using a light to preserve some degree of night vision. 2. Environmental conditions and optical illusions that affect vision. cllusions Leading to Landing Errors. Various surface features and atmospheric conditions encountered in landing can create illusions of incorrect height above and distance from the runway threshold. Landing errors from these illusions can be prevented by anticipating them during approaches, aerial visual inspection of unfamiliar airports before landing, using electronic glide slope or VASI systems when available, and maintaining optimum proficiency in landing procedures. 1. Runway width illusion. A narrower-than-usual runway can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach, with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. A wider-than-usual runway can have the opposite effect, with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway. 2. Runway and terrain slopes illusion. An up sloping runway, up sloping terrain, or both, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. A down sloping runway, down sloping approach terrain, or both, can have the opposite effect. 3. Featureless terrain illusion. An absence of ground features, as when landing over water, darkened areas, and terrain made featureless by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. 4. Atmospheric illusions. Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and atmospheric haze the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway. The pilot who does not recognize these illusions will fly a lower approach. Penetration of fog can create the illusion of pitching up. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will steepen the approach, often quite abruptly.  . Ground lighting illusions. Lights along a straight path, such as a road, and even lights on moving trains can be mistaken for runway and approach lights. Bright runway and approach lighting systems, especially where few lights illuminate the surrounding terrain, may create the illusion of less distance to the runway. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a higher approach. Conversely, the pilot overflying terrain which has few lights to provide height cues may make a lower than normal approach.

3. ³See and avoid´ concept. FAR 91.113 See and Avoid. Vigilance for other air traffic must be maintained at all times by each pilot 3. Practice of ³time sharing´ of attention inside and outside the cockpit. Studies show that the time a pilot spends on visual tasks inside the cabin should represent no more than 1/4 to 1/3 of the scan time outside, or no more than 4 to 5 seconds on the instrument panel for every 16 seconds outside. Since the brain is already trained to process sight information that is presented from left to right, one may find it easier to start scanning over the left shoulder and proceed across the windshield to the right. 4. Proper visual scanning technique. 1. Scanning the sky for other aircraft is a key factor in collision avoidance. It should be used continuously by the pilot and copilot (or right seat passenger) to cover all areas of the sky visible from the cockpit. Although pilots must meet specific visual acuity requirements, the ability to read an eye chart does not ensure that one will be able to efficiently spot other aircraft. Pilots must develop an effective scanning technique which maximizes one's visual capabilities. The probability of spotting a potential collision threat obviously increases with the time spent looking outside the cockpit. Thus, one must use timesharing techniques to efficiently scan the surrounding airspace while monitoring instruments as well. 2. While the eyes can observe an approximate 200 degree arc of the horizon at one glance, only a very small center area called the fovea, in the rear of the eye, has the ability to send clear, sharply focused messages to the brain. All other visual information that is not processed directly through the fovea will be of less detail. An aircraft at a distance of 7 miles which appears in sharp focus within the foveal center of vision would have to be as close as 7/10 of a mile in order to be recognized if it were outside of foveal vision. Because the eyes can focus only on this narrow viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection. Although horizontal back-and-forth eye movements seem preferred by most pilots, each pilot should develop a scanning pattern that is most comfortable and then adhere to it to assure optimum scanning. 3. Pilots should realize that their eyes may require several seconds to refocus when switching views between items in the cockpit and distant objects. The eyes will also tire more quickly when forced to adjust to distances immediately after close-up focus, as required for scanning the instrument panel. Eye fatigue can be reduced by looking from the instrument panel to the left wing past the wing tip to the center of the first scan quadrant when beginning the exterior scan. After having scanned from left to right, allow the eyes to return to the cabin along the right wing from its tip inward. Once back inside, one should automatically commence the panel scan.

4. Effective scanning also helps avoid "empty-field myopia." This condition usually occurs when flying above the clouds or in a haze layer that provides nothing specific to focus on outside the aircraft. This causes the eyes to relax and seek a comfortable focal distance which may range from 10 to 30 feet. For the pilot, this means looking without seeing, which is dangerous. 6. Relationship between poor visual scanning habits, aircraft speed differential and increased collision risk. ã ã ã

If the pilot does not use proper visual scanning techniques and/or fixates in the cockpit his/her risks of a midair collision will increase greatly Studies have shown that the minimum time required for a pilot to spot the traffic, identify it, realize it¶s a collision threat, react, and maneuver the aircraft is at least 12.5 seconds Therefore at higher speeds extra vigilance must be maintained because of the higher closure rate 

7. Appropriate clearing procedures. ã ã ã ã ã ã ã ã

Proper clearing occurs before the helicopter even moves Ensure that the taxiways are clear of hazards/obstructions Ensure the runway is clear of hazards/obstructions and approaching aircraft During maneuvers a pilot should perform clearing turns to look for aircraft in the blind spots Entering an airport traffic pattern extra vigilance must be maintained because of the potential for a high volume of traffic Obtain clearance or utilize the CTAF Enter at the proper position and altitude Keep up a constant scan

9. Situations which involve the greatest collision risk. ã ã ã ã ã

Collisions can happen anywhere, increased hazard areas include: Airways especially near VORs Airports VFR corridors Practice areas





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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to use of distractions during flight training by describing: 1. Flight situations where pilot distraction can be a causal factor related to aircraft accidents. Distractions cnterruptions

A distraction is an unexpected event that causes the student¶s attention to be momentarily diverted. Students must learn to decide whether or not a distraction warrants further attention or action on their part. Once this has been decided, the students must either turn their attention back to what they were doing, or act on the distraction. 2. Selection of realistic distractions for specific flight situations. Use distractions that will not adversely affect the students learning or compromise the safety of flight. 3. Relationship between division of attention and flight instructor use of distractions. 

cnterruptions An interruption is an unexpected event for which the student voluntarily suspends performance of one task in order to complete a different one. Interruptions are a significant source of errors and students must be made aware of the potential for errors caused by interruptions and develop procedures for dealing with them. A classic example is an interruption that occurs while a student is following the steps in a written procedure or checklist. The student puts down the checklist, deals with the interruption, and then returns to the procedure²but erroneously picks up at a later point in the procedure, omitting one or more steps. For many kinds of tasks, attention switching is the only way to accomplish multitasking. For example, it is generally impossible to look at two different things at the same time. The area of focused vision (called the fovea) is only a few degrees in span and can only be directed to one location at a time. Similarly, people cannot listen to two conversations at the same time. While both conversations fall upon the ears at once, people must devote their attention to the comprehension of one, to the exclusion of the other. 4. Difference between proper use of distractions and harassment. Distractions allow the student to decide on the import tasks while harassment inhibits the student¶s ability to make proper decisions and learn.


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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-21. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to principles of flight by describing: 1. Characteristics of different rotor systems. VHE ÷AcN ROVOR SYSVE÷ The rotor system found on helicopters can consist of a single main rotor or dual rotors. With most dual rotors, the rotors turn in opposite directions so the torque from one rotor is opposed by the torque of the other. This cancels the turning tendencies. In general, a rotor system can be classified as fully articulated, semi rigid, or rigid.

FULLY ARVcCULAVED ROVOR SYSVE÷ A fully articulated rotor system usually consists of three or more rotor blades. The blades are allowed to flap, feather, and lead or lag independently of each other. Each rotor blade is attached to the rotor hub by a horizontal hinge, called the flapping hinge, which permits the blades to flap up and down. Each blade can move up and down independently of the others. The flapping hinge may be located at varying distances from the rotor hub, and there may be more than one. The position is chosen by each manufacturer, primarily with regard to stability and control. Each rotor blade is also attached to the hub by a vertical hinge, called a drag or lag hinge, that permits each blade, independently of the others, to move back and forth in the plane of the rotor disc. Dampers are normally incorporated in the design of this type of rotor system to prevent excessive motion about the drag hinge. The purpose of the drag hinge and dampers is to absorb the acceleration and deceleration of the rotor blades. The blades of a fully articulated rotor can also be feathered, or rotated about their span wise axis. To put it more simply, feathering means the changing of the pitch angle of the rotor blades. SE÷cRcGcD ROVOR SYSVE÷ A semi rigid rotor system allows for two different movements, flapping and feathering. This system is normally comprised of two blades, which are rigidly attached to the rotor hub. The hub is then attached to the rotor mast by a trunnion bearing or teetering hinge. This allows the blades to see-saw or flap together. As one blade flaps down, the other flaps up. Feathering is accomplished by the feathering hinge, which changes the pitch angle of the blade. RcGcD ROVOR SYSVE÷ The rigid rotor system is mechanically simple, but structurally complex because operating loads must be absorbed in bending rather than through hinges. In this system, the blades cannot flap or lead and lag, but they can be feathered. 2. Effect of lift, weight, thrust, and drag during various flight maneuvers. LcFV ÷AGNUS EFFECV The explanation of lift can best be explained by looking at a cylinder rotating in an airstream. The local velocity near the cylinder is composed of the airstream velocity and the cylinder¶s rotational velocity, which decreases with distance from the cylinder. On a cylinder, which is rotating in such a way that the top surface area is rotating in the same direction as the airflow, the local velocity at the surface is high on top and low on the bottom. As shown in figure 2-7, at point ³A,´ a stagnation point exists where the airstream line that impinges on the surface splits; some air goes over and some under. Another stagnation point exists at ³B,´ where the two air streams rejoin and resume at identical velocities. We now have up wash ahead of the rotating cylinder and downwash at the rear. The difference in surface velocity accounts for a difference in pressure, with the pressure being lower on the top than the bottom. This low pressure area produces an upward force known as the ³Magnus Effect.´ This mechanically induced circulation

illustrates the relationship between circulation and lift. An airfoil with a positive angle of attack develops air circulation as its sharp trailing edge forces the rear stagnation point to be aft of the trailing edge, while the front stagnation point is below the leading edge. BERNOULLc S PRcNCcPLE Air flowing over the top surface accelerates. The airfoil is now subjected to Bernoulli¶s Principle or the ³venture effect.´ As air velocity increases through the constricted portion of a venturi tube, the pressure decreases. Compare the upper surface of an airfoil with the constriction in a venturi tube that is narrower in the middle than at the ends. The upper half of the venturi tube can be replaced by layers of undisturbed air. Thus, as air flows over the upper surface of an airfoil, the camber of the airfoil causes an increase in the speed of the airflow. The increased speed of airflow results in a decrease in pressure on the upper surface of the airfoil. At the same time, air flows along the lower surface of the airfoil, building up pressure. The combination of decreased pressure on the upper surface and increased pressure on the lower surface results in an upward force. As angle of attack is increased, the production of lift is increased. More up wash is created ahead of the airfoil as the leading edge stagnation point moves under the leading edge, and more downwash is created aft of the trailing edge. Total lift now being produced is perpendicular to relative wind. In summary, the production of lift is based upon the airfoil creating circulation in the airstream (Magnus Effect) and creating differential pressure on the airfoil (Bernoulli¶s Principle). NEWVON S VHcRD LAW OF ÷OVcON Additional lift is provided by the rotor blades lower surface as air striking the underside is deflected down-ward. According to Newton¶s Third Law of Motion, ³for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction,´ the air that is deflected downward also produces an upward (lifting) reaction. Since air is much like water, the explanation for this source of lift may be compared to the planning effect of skis on water. The lift which supports the water skis (and the skier) is the force caused by the impact pressure and the deflection of water from the lower surfaces of the skis. Under most flying conditions, the impact pressure and the deflection of air from the lower surface of the rotor blade provides a comparatively small percentage of the total lift. The majority of lift is the result of decreased pressure above the blade, rather than the increased pressure below it. WEcGHV Normally, weight is thought of as being a known, fixed value, such as the weight of the helicopter, fuel, and occupants. To lift the helicopter off the ground vertically, the rotor system must generate enough lift to overcome or offset the total weight of the helicopter and its occupants. This is accomplished by increasing the pitch angle of the main rotor blades. The weight of the helicopter can also be influenced by aerodynamic loads. When you bank a helicopter while maintaining a constant altitude, the ³G´ load or load factor increases. Load factor is the ratio of the load supported by the main rotor system to the actual weight of the helicopter and its contents. In steady-state flight, the helicopter has a load factor of one, which means the main rotor system is supporting the actual total weight of the helicopter. If you increase the bank angle to 60°, while still maintaining a constant altitude, the load factor increases to two. In this case, the main rotor system has to support twice the weight of the helicopter and its contents. [Figure 2-11] Disc loading of a helicopter is the ratio of weight to the

total main rotor disc area, and is determined by dividing the total helicopter weight by the rotor disc area, which is the area swept by the blades of a rotor. Disc area can be found by using the span of one rotor blade as the radius of a circle and then determining the area the blades encompass during a complete rotation. As the helicopter is maneuvered, disc loading changes. The higher the loading, the more power you need to maintain rotor speed. VHRUSV Thrust, like lift, is generated by the rotation of the main rotor system. In a helicopter, thrust can be forward, rearward, sideward, or vertical. The resultant of lift and thrust determines the direction of movement of the helicopter. The solidity ratio is the ratio of the total rotor blade area, which is the combined area of all the main rotor blades, to the total rotor disc area. This ratio provides a means to measure the potential for a rotor system to provide thrust. The tail rotor also produces thrust. The amount of thrust is variable through the use of the antitorque pedals and is used to control the helicopter¶s yaw.

DRAG The force that resists the movement of a helicopter through the air and is produced when lift is developed is called drag. Drag always acts parallel to the relative wind. Total drag is composed of three types of drag: profile, induced, and parasite. PROFcLE DRAG Profile drag develops from the frictional resistance of the blades passing through the air. It does not change significantly with the airfoil¶s angle of attack, but increases moderately when airspeed increases. Profile drag is composed of form drag and skin friction. Form drag results from the turbulent wake caused by the separation of airflow from the surface of a structure. The amount of drag is related to both the size and shape of the structure that protrudes into the relative wind. [Figure 2-12] Skin friction is caused by surface roughness. Even though the surface appears smooth, it may be quite rough when viewed under a microscope. A thin layer of air clings to the rough surface and creates small eddies that contribute to drag. cNDUCED DRAG Induced drag is generated by the airflow circulation around the rotor blade as it creates lift. The high-pressure area beneath the blade joins the low-pressure air above the blade at the trailing edge and at the rotor tips. This causes a spiral, or vortex, which trails behind each blade whenever lift is being produced. These vortices deflect the airstream downward in the vicinity of the blade, creating an increase in downwash. Therefore, the blade operates in an average relative wind that is inclined downward and rearward near the blade. Because the lift produced by the blade is perpendicular to the relative wind, the lift is inclined aft by the same amount. The component of lift that is acting in a rearward direction is induced drag. [Figure 2-13] As the air pressure differential increases with an increase in angle of attack, stronger vortices form, and induced drag increases. Since the blade¶s angle of attack is usually lower at higher airspeeds, and higher at low speeds, induced drag decreases as airspeed increases and increases as airspeed decreases. Induced drag is the major cause of drag at lower airspeeds.

PARAScVE DRAG Parasite drag is present any time the helicopter is moving through the air. This type of drag increases with airspeed. Nonlifting components of the helicopter, such as the cabin, rotor mast, tail, and landing gear, contribute to parasite drag. Any loss of momentum by the airstream, due to such things as openings for engine cooling, creates additional parasite drag. Because of its rapid increase with increasing airspeed, parasite drag is the major cause of drag at higher airspeeds. Parasite drag varies with the square of the velocity. Doubling the airspeed increases the parasite drag four times. VOVAL DRAG Total drag for a helicopter is the sum of all three drag forces. [Figure 2-14] As airspeed increases, parasite drag increases, while induced drag decreases. Profile drag remains relatively constant throughout the speed range with some increase at higher airspeeds. Combining all drag forces results in a total drag curve. The low point on the total drag curve shows the airspeed at which drag is minimized. This is the point where the lift-to-drag ratio is greatest and is referred to as L/Dmax. At this speed, the total lift capacity of the helicopter, when compared to the total drag of the helicopter, is most favorable. This is important in helicopter performance. L/Dmax²Vhe maximum ratio between total lift (L) and the total drag (D). Vhis point provides the best glide speed. Any deviation from best glide speed increases drag and reduces the distance you can glide. 

3. Retreating blade stall. REVREAVcNG BLADE SVALL In forward flight, the relative airflow through the main rotor disc is different on the advancing and retreating side. The relative airflow over the advancing side is higher due to the forward speed of the helicopter, while the relative airflow on the retreating side is lower. This dissymmetry of lift increases as forward speed increases. To generate the same amount of lift across the rotor disc, the advancing blade flaps up while the retreating blade flaps down. This causes the angle of attack to decrease on the advancing blade, which reduces lift, and increase on the retreating blade, which increases lift. As the forward speed increases, at some point the low blade speed on the retreating blade, together with its high angle of attack, causes a loss of lift (stall). Retreating blade stall is a major factor in limiting a helicopter¶s top forward speed (VNE) and can be felt developing by a low frequency vibration, pitching up of the nose, and a roll in the direction of the retreating blade. High weight, low rotor r.p.m., high density altitude, turbulence and/or steep, abrupt turns are all conducive to retreating blade stall at high forward airspeeds. As altitude is increased, higher blade angles are required to maintain lift at a given airspeed. Thus, retreating blade stall is encountered at a lower forward airspeed at altitude. Most manufacturers publish charts and graphs showing a VNE decrease with altitude. When recovering from a retreating blade stall condition, moving the cyclic aft only worsens the stall as aft cyclic produces a flare effect, thus increasing angles of attack. Pushing forward on the cyclic also deepens the stall as the angle of attack on the retreating blade is increased. Correct

recovery from retreating blade stall requires the collective to be lowered first, which reduces blade angles and thus angle of attack. Aft cyclic can then be used to slow the helicopter. 4. Torque effect. An important consequence of producing thrust is torque. As stated before, for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. Therefore, as the engine turns the main rotor system in a counterclockwise direction, the helicopter fuselage turns clockwise. The amount of torque is directly related to the amount of engine power being used to turn the main rotor system. Remember, as power changes, torque changes. To counteract this torque-induced turning tendency, an antitorque rotor or tail rotor is incorporated into most helicopter designs. You can vary the amount of thrust produced by the tail rotor in relation to the amount of torque produced by the engine. As the engine supplies more power, the tail rotor must produce more thrust. This is done through the use of antitorque pedals. 5. Dissymmetry of lift. DcSSY÷÷EVRY OF LcFV When the helicopter moves through the air, the relative airflow through the main rotor disc is different on the advancing side than on the retreating side. The relative wind encountered by the advancing blade is increased by the forward speed of the helicopter, while the relative wind speed acting on the retreating blade is reduced by the helicopter¶s forward airspeed. Therefore, as a result of the relative wind speed, the advancing blade side of the rotor disc produces more lift than the retreating blade side. This situation is defined as dissymmetry of lift. [Figure 3-14] If this condition was allowed to exist, a helicopter with a counterclockwise main rotor blade rotation would roll to the left because of the difference in lift. In reality, the main rotor blades flap and feather automatically to equalize lift across the rotor disc. Articulated rotor systems, usually with three or more blades, incorporate a horizontal hinge (flapping hinge) to allow the individual rotor blades to move, or flap up and down as they rotate. A semi rigid rotor system (two blades) utilizes a teetering hinge, which allows the blades to flap as a unit. When one blade flaps up, the other flaps down. As shown in figure 3-15, as the rotor blade reaches the advancing side of the rotor disc (A), it reaches its maximum up flap velocity. When the blade flaps upward, the angle between the chord line and the resultant relative wind decreases. This decreases the angle of attack, which reduces the amount of lift produced by the blade. At position (C) the rotor blade is now at its maximum down flapping velocity. Due to down flapping, the angle between the chord line and the resultant relative wind increases. This increases the angle of attack and thus the amount of lift produced by the blade. The combination of blade flapping and slow relative wind acting on the retreating blade normally limits the maximum forward speed of a helicopter. At a high forward speed, the retreating blade stalls because of a high angle of attack and slow relative wind speed. This situation is called

retreating blade stall and is evidenced by a nose pitch up, vibration, and a rolling tendency² usually to the left in helicopters with counterclockwise blade rotation. You can avoid retreating blade stall by not exceeding the never-exceed speed. This speed is designated *NE and is usually indicated on a placard and marked on the airspeed indicator by a red line. During aerodynamic flapping of the rotor blades as they compensate for dissymmetry of lift, the advancing blade achieves maximum up flapping displacement over the nose and maximum down flapping displacement over the tail. This causes the tip-path plane to tilt to the rear and is referred to as blowback. Figure 3-16 shows how the rotor disc was originally oriented with the front down following the initial cyclic input, but as airspeed is gained and flapping eliminates dissymmetry of lift, the front of the disc comes up, and the back of the disc goes down. This reorientation of the rotor disc changes the direction in which total rotor thrust acts so that the helicopter¶s forward speed slows, but can be corrected with cyclic input. 6. Blade flapping and coning. CONcNG In order for a helicopter to generate lift, the rotor blades must be turning. This creates a relative wind that is opposite the direction of rotor system rotation. The rotation of the rotor system creates centrifugal force (inertia), which tends to pull the blades straight outward from the main rotor hub. The faster the rotation, the greater the centrifugal force. This force gives the rotor blades their rigidity and, in turn, the strength to support the weight of the helicopter. The centrifugal force generated determines the maximum operating rotor r.p.m. due to structural limitations on the main rotor system. As a vertical takeoff is made, two major forces are acting at the same time²centrifugal force acting outward and perpendicular to the rotor mast, and lift acting upward and parallel to the mast. The result of these two forces is that the blades assume a conical path instead of remaining in the plane perpendicular to the mast. [Figure 3-4] 7. Coriolis effect. CORcOLcS EFFECV (LAW OF CONSER*AVcON OF ANGULAR ÷O÷ENVU÷) Coriolis Effect, which is sometimes referred to as conservation of angular momentum, might be compared to spinning skaters. When they extend their arms, their rotation slows down because the center of mass moves farther from the axis of rotation. When their arms are retracted, the rotation speeds up because the center of mass moves closer to the axis of rotation. When a rotor blade flaps upward, the center of mass of that blade moves closer to the axis of rotation and blade acceleration takes place in order to conserve angular momentum. Conversely, when that blade flaps downward, its center of mass moves further from the axis of rotation and blade deceleration takes place. [Figure 3-5] Keep in mind that due to coning, a rotor blade will not flap below a plane passing through the rotor hub and perpendicular to the axis of rotation. The acceleration and deceleration actions of the rotor blades are absorbed by either dampers or the blade structure itself, depending upon the design of the rotor system.

Two-bladed rotor systems are normally subject to Coriolis Effect to a much lesser degree than are articulated rotor systems since the blades are generally ³under slung´ with respect to the rotor hub, and the change in the distance of the center of mass from the axis of rotation is small. [Figure 3-6] The hunting action is absorbed by the blades through bending. If a two-bladed rotor system is not ³under slung,´ it will be subject to Coriolis Effect comparable to that of a fully articulated system. 8. Translating tendency. VRANSLAVcNG VENDENCY OR DRcFV During hovering flight, a single main rotor helicopter tends to drift in the same direction as antitorque rotor thrust. This drifting tendency is called translating tendency. [Figure 3-2] To counteract this drift, one or more of the following features may be used: ‡ The main transmission is mounted so that the rotor mast is rigged for the tip-path plane to have a built in tilt opposite tail thrust, thus producing a small sideward thrust. ‡ Flight control rigging is designed so that the rotor disc is tilted slightly opposite tail rotor thrust when the cyclic is centered. ‡ The cyclic pitch control system is designed so that the rotor disc tilts slightly opposite tail rotor thrust when in a hover. Counteracting translating tendency, in a helicopter with a counterclockwise main rotor system, causes the left skid to hang lower while hovering. The opposite is true for rotor systems turning clockwise when viewed from above. 9. Translational lift. VRANSLAVcONAL LcFV Translational lift is present with any horizontal flow of air across the rotor. This increased flow is most noticeable when the airspeed reaches approximately 16 to 24 knots. As the helicopter accelerates through this speed, the rotor moves out of its vortices and is in relatively undisturbed air. The airflow is also now more horizontal, which reduces induced flow and drag with a corresponding increase in angle of attack and lift. The additional lift available at this speed is referred to as effective translational lift´ (EVL). [Figure 3-12] When a single-rotor helicopter flies through translational lift, the air flowing through the main rotor and over the tail rotor becomes less turbulent and more aerodynamically efficient. As the tail rotor efficiency improves, more thrust is produced causing the aircraft to yaw left in a counterclockwise rotor system. It will be necessary to use right torque pedal to correct for this tendency on takeoff. Also, if no corrections are made, the nose rises or pitches up, and rolls to the right. This is caused by combined effects of dissymmetry of lift and transverse flow effect, and is corrected with cyclic control.

Translational lift is also present in a stationary hover if the wind speed is approximately 16 to 24 knots. In normal operations, always utilize the benefit of translational lift, especially if maximum performance is needed. 

10. Transverse flow effect. VRANS*ERSE FLOW EFFECV As the helicopter accelerates in forward flight, induced flow drops to near zero at the forward disc area and increases at the aft disc area. This increases the angle of attack at the front disc area causing the rotor blade to flap up, and reduces angle of attack at the aft disc area causing the rotor blade to flap down. Because the rotor acts like a gyro, maximum displacement occurs 90° in the direction of rotation. The result is a tendency for the helicopter to roll slightly to the right as it accelerates through approximately 20 knots or if the headwind is approximately 20 knots. You can recognize transverse flow effect because of increased vibrations of the helicopter at airspeeds just below effective translational lift on takeoff and after passing through effective translational lift during landing. To counteract transverse flow effect, a cyclic input needs to be made. 11. Pendular action.  
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Since the fuselage of the helicopter, with a single main rotor, is suspended from a single point and has considerable mass, it is free to oscillate either longitudinally or laterally in the same way as a pendulum. This pendular action can be exaggerated by over controlling; therefore, control movements should be smooth and not exaggerated. [Figure 3-3]


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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-21. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to flight controls of the helicopter used for the practical test by describing: 1. Collective pitch control. COLLECVc*E PcVCH CONVROL The collective pitch control, located on the left side of the pilot¶s seat, changes the pitch angle of all main rotor blades simultaneously, or collectively, as the name implies. As the collective pitch control is raised, there is a simultaneous and equal increase in pitch angle of all main rotor blades; as it is lowered, there is a simultaneous and equal decrease in pitch angle. This is done through a series of mechanical linkages and the amount of movement in the collective lever determines the amount of blade pitch change. [Figure 4-1] An adjustable friction control helps prevent inadvertent collective pitch movement. Changing the pitch angle on the blades changes the angle of attack on each blade. With a change in angle of attack comes a change in drag, which affects the speed or r.p.m. of the main rotor. As the pitch angle increases, angle of attack increases, drag increases, and rotor r.p.m. decreases.

Decreasing pitch angle decreases both angle of attack and drag, while rotor r.p.m. increases. In order to maintain a constant rotor r.p.m., which is essential in helicopter operations, a proportionate change in power is required to compensate for the change in drag. This is accomplished with the throttle control or a correlator and/or governor, which automatically adjusts engine power. 2. Cyclic pitch control. CYCLcC PcVCH CONVROL The cyclic pitch control tilts the main rotor disc by changing the pitch angle of the rotor blades in their cycle of rotation. When the main rotor disc is tilted, the horizontal component of lift moves the helicopter in the direction of tilt. [Figure 4-4] The rotor disc tilts in the direction that pressure is applied to the cyclic pitch control. If the cyclic is moved forward, the rotor disc tilts forward; if the cyclic is moved aft, the disc tilts aft, and so on. Because the rotor disc acts like a gyro, the mechanical linkages for the cyclic control rods are rigged in such a way that they decrease the pitch angle of the rotor blade approximately 90° before it reaches the direction of cyclic displacement, and increase the pitch angle of the rotor blade approximately 90° after it passes the direction of displacement. An increase in pitch angle increases angle of attack; a decrease in pitch angle decreases angle of attack. For example, if the cyclic is moved forward, the angle of attack decreases as the rotor blade passes the right side of the helicopter and increases on the left side. This results in maximum downward deflection of the rotor blade in front of the helicopter and maximum upward deflection behind it, causing the rotor disc to tilt forward. 3. Anti-torque control. ANVcVORQUE PEDALS The antitorque pedals, located on the cabin floor by the pilot¶s feet, control the pitch, and therefore the thrust, of the tail rotor blades. [Figure 4-5]. The main purpose of the tail rotor is to counteract the torque effect of the main rotor. Since torque varies with changes in power, the tail rotor thrust must also be varied. The pedals are connected to the pitch change mechanism on the tail rotor gearbox and allow the pitch angle on the tail rotor blades to be increased or decreased. HEADcNG CONVROL Besides counteracting torque of the main rotor, the tail rotor is also used to control the heading of the helicopter while hovering or when making hovering turns. Hovering turns are commonly referred to as ³pedal turns.´ In forward flight, the antitorque pedals are not used to control the heading of the helicopter, except during portions of crosswind takeoffs and approaches. Instead they are used to compensate for torque to put the helicopter in longitudinal trim so that coordinated flight can be maintained. The cyclic control is used to change heading by making a turn to the desired direction. The thrust of the tail rotor depends on the pitch angle of the tail rotor blades. This pitch angle can be positive, negative, or zero. A positive pitch angle tends to move the tail to the right. A negative pitch angle moves the tail to the left, while no thrust is produced with a zero pitch angle.

With the right pedal moved forward of the neutral position, the tail rotor either has a negative pitch angle or a small positive pitch angle. The farther it is forward, the larger the negative pitch angle. The nearer it is to neutral, the more positive the pitch angle, and somewhere in between, it has a zero pitch angle. As the left pedal is moved forward of the neutral position, the positive pitch angle of the tail rotor increases until it becomes maximum with full forward displacement of the left pedal. If the tail rotor has a negative pitch angle, tail rotor thrust is working in the same direction as the torque of the main rotor. With a small positive pitch angle, the tail rotor does not produce sufficient thrust to overcome the torque effect of the main rotor during cruise flight. Therefore, if the right pedal is displaced forward of neutral during cruising flight, the tail rotor thrust does not overcome the torque effect, and the nose yaws to the right. [Figure 4-6] With the antitorque pedals in the neutral position, the tail rotor has a medium positive pitch angle. In medium positive pitch, the tail rotor thrust approximately equals the torque of the main rotor during cruise flight, so the helicopter maintains a constant heading in level flight. If the left pedal is in a forward position, the tail rotor has a high positive pitch position. In this position, tail rotor thrust exceeds the thrust needed to overcome torque effect during cruising flight so the helicopter yaws to the left. The above explanation is based on cruise power and airspeed. Since the amount of torque is dependent on the amount of engine power being supplied to the main rotor, the relative positions of the pedals required to counteract torque depend upon the amount of power being used at any time. In general, the less power being used, the greater the requirement for forward displacement of the right pedal; the greater the power, the greater the forward displacement of the left pedal. The maximum positive pitch angle of the tail rotor is generally somewhat greater than the maximum negative pitch angle available. This is because the primary purpose of the tail rotor is to counteract the torque of the main rotor. The capability for tail rotors to produce thrust to the left (negative pitch angle) is necessary, because during autorotation the drag of the transmission tends to yaw the nose to the left, or in the same direction the main rotor is turning.   V


  VHROVVLE CONVROL The function of the throttle is to regulate engine r.p.m. If the correlator or governor system does not maintain the desired r.p.m. when the collective is raised or lowered, or if those systems are not installed, the throttle has to be moved manually with the twist grip in order to maintain r.p.m. Twisting the throttle outboard increases r.p.m.; twisting it inboard decreases r.p.m. [Figure 4-2] COLLECVc*E PcVCH / VHROVVLE COORDcNAVcON When the collective pitch is raised, the load on the engine is increased in order to maintain desired r.p.m. The load is measured by a manifold pressure gauge in piston helicopters or by a torque gauge in turbine helicopters.

In piston helicopters, the collective pitch is the primary control for manifold pressure, and the throttle is the primary control for r.p.m. However, the collective pitch control also influences r.p.m., and the throttle also influences manifold pressure; therefore, each is considered to be a secondary control of the other¶s function. Both the tachometer (r.p.m. indicator) and the manifold pressure gauge must be analyzed to determine which control to use. Figure 4-3 illustrates this relationship. CORRELAVOR / GO*ERNOR A correlator is a mechanical connection between the collective lever and the engine throttle. When the collective lever is raised, power is automatically increased and when lowered, power is decreased. This system maintains r.p.m. close to the desired value, but still requires adjustment of the throttle for fine tuning. A governor is a sensing device that senses rotor and engine r.p.m. and makes the necessary adjustments in order to keep rotor r.p.m. constant. In normal operations, once the rotor r.p.m. is set, the governor keeps the r.p.m. constant, and there is no need to make any throttle adjustments. Governors are common on all turbine helicopters and used on some piston powered helicopters. Some helicopters do not have correlators or governors and require coordination of all collective and throttle movements. When the collective is raised, the throttle must be increased; when the collective is lowered, the throttle must be decreased. As with any aircraft control, large adjustments of either collective pitch or throttle should be avoided. All corrections should be made through the use of smooth pressure. 

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-1, FAA-H-8083-21. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to weight and balance by describing: 1. Weight and balance terms. Ballast. A weight installed or carried in an aircraft to move the center of gravity to a location within its allowable limits. Permanent Ballast (fixed ballast). A weight permanently installed in an aircraft to bring its center of gravity into allowable limits. Permanent ballast is part of the aircraft empty weight. Vemporary Ballast. Weights that can be carried in a cargo compartment of an aircraft to move the location of CG for a specific flight condition. Temporary ballast must be removed when the aircraft is weighed. Basic Empty Weight. (GA÷A) Standard empty weight plus optional equipment. Basic Operating cndex. The moment of the airplane at its basic operating weight divided by the appropriate reduction factor. Basic Operating Weight (BOW). The empty weight of the aircraft plus the weight of the required crew, their baggage and other standard item such as meals and potable water. Bilge Area. The lowest part of an aircraft structure in which water and contaminants collect. Butt (or buttock) Line Zero. A line through the symmetrical center of an aircraft from nose to tail. It serves as the datum for measuring the arms used to determine the lateral CG. Lateral moments that cause the aircraft to rotate clockwise are positive (+), and those that cause it to rotate counterclockwise are negative (-).

Calendar ÷onth. A time period used by the FAA for certification and currency purposes. A calendar month extends from a given day until midnight of the last day of that month. Civil Air Regulation (CAR). predecessor to the Federal Aviation Regulations. CA÷s. The manuals containing the certification rules under the Civil Air Regulations. Center of Gravity (CG). (GA÷A) The point at which an airplane would balance if suspended. Its distance from the reference datum is determined by dividing the total moment by the total weight of the airplane. It is the mass center of the aircraft, or the theoretical point at which the entire weight of the aircraft is assumed to be concentrated. It may be expressed in percent of MAC (mean aerodynamic cord) or in inches from the reference datum. Center of Lift. The location along the chord line of an airfoil at which all the lift forces produced by the airfoil are considered to be concentrated. Centroid. The distance in inches aft of the datum of the center of a compartment or a fuel tank for weight and balance purposes. CG Arm. (GA÷A) The arm obtained by adding the airplane¶s individual moments and dividing the sum by the total weight. CG Limits. (GA÷A) The extreme center of gravity locations within which the aircraft must be operated at a given weight. These limits are indicated on pertinent FAA aircraft type certificate data sheets, specifications, or weight and balance records. CG Limits Envelope. An enclosed area on a graph of the airplane loaded weight and the CG location. If lines drawn from the weight and CG cross within this envelope, the airplane is properly loaded. CG ÷oment Envelope. An enclosed area on a graph of the airplane loaded weight and loaded moment. If lines drawn from the weight and loaded moment cross within this envelope, the airplane is properly loaded. Chord. A straight-line distance across a wing from leading edge to trailing edge. Curtailment. An operator created and FAA-approved operational loading envelope that is more restrictive than the manufacturer¶s CG envelope. It ensures that the aircraft will be operated within limits during all phases of flight. Curtailment typically accounts for, but is not limited to, in-flight movement of passengers and crew, service equipment, cargo variation, seating variation, etc. Delta Ñ. This symbol, Ñ, means a change in something. ÑCG means a change in the center of gravity location. Dynamic Load. The actual weight of the aircraft multiplied by the load factor, or the increase in weight caused by acceleration. Empty Weight. The weight of the airframe, engines, all permanently installed equipment, and unusable fuel. Depending upon the part of the federal regulations under which the aircraft was certificated, either the undrainable oil or full reservoir of oil is included. Glossary± Empty-weight Center of Gravity (EWCG). This is the center of gravity of the aircraft in the empty condition, containing only the items specified in the aircraft empty weight. This CG is an essential part of the weight and balance record of the aircraft. Empty-weight Center of Gravity Range. The distance between the allowable forward and aft empty-weight CG limits. Equipment List. A list of items approved by the FAA for installation in a particular aircraft. The list includes the name, part number, weight, and arm of the component. Installation or removal of an item in the equipment list is considered to be a minor alteration.

Fleet Weight. An average weight accepted by the FAA for aircraft of identical make and model that have the same equipment installed. When a fleet weight control program is in effect, the fleet weight of the aircraft can be used rather than every individual aircraft having to be weighed. Fuel Jettison System. A fuel subsystem that allows the flight crew to dump fuel in an emergency to lower the weight of an aircraft to the maximum landing weight if a return to landing is required before sufficient fuel is burned off. This system must allow enough fuel to be jettisoned that the aircraft can still meet the climb requirements specified in 14 CFR part 25. Fulcrum. The point about which a lever balances. cndex Point. A location specified by the aircraft manufacturer from which arms used in weight and balance computations are measured. Arms measured from the index point are called index arms. cnterpolate. To determine a value in a series between two known values. Landing Weight. The takeoff weight of an aircraft less the fuel burned and/or dumped en route. Large Aircraft (14 CFR part 1). An aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds, maximum certificated takeoff weight. Lateral Balance. Balance around the roll, or longitudinal, axis. Lateral Offset ÷oment. The moment, in lb-in, of a force that tends to rotate a helicopter about its longitudinal axis. The lateral offset moment is the product of the weight of the object and its distance from butt line zero. Lateral offset moments that tend to rotate the aircraft clockwise are positive, and those that tend to rotate it counterclockwise are negative. LE÷AC. Leading Edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord. Load Cell. A component in an electronic weighing system that is placed between the jack and the jack pad on the aircraft. The load cell contains strain gauges whose resistance changes with the weight on the cell. Load Factor. The ration of the maximum load an aircraft can sustain to the total weight of the aircraft. Normal category aircraft must have a load factor of a least 3.8, Utility category aircraft 4.4, and acrobatic category aircraft, 6.0. Loading Graph. A graph of load weight and load moment indexes. Diagonal lines for each item relate the weight to the moment index without having to use mathematics. Loading Schedule. A method for calculating and documenting aircraft weight and balance prior to taxiing, to ensure the aircraft will remain within all required weight and balance limitations throughout the flight Longitudinal Axis. An imaginary line through an aircraft from nose to tail, passing through its center of gravity. Longitudinal Balance. Balance around the pitch, or lateral, axis. ÷AC. Mean Aerodynamic Chord. ÷ajor Alteration. An alteration not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications, (1) that might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2) that is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations. ÷aximum Landing Weight. (GA÷A) Maximum weight approved for the landing touchdown. ÷aximum Permissible Hoist Load. The maximum external load that is permitted for a helicopter to carry. This load is specified in the POH.

÷aximum Ramp Weight. (GA÷A) Maximum weight approved for ground maneuver. It includes weight of start, taxi, and run-up fuel. ÷aximum Vakeoff Weight. (GA÷A) Maximum weight approved for the start of the takeoff run. ÷aximum Vaxi Weight. Maximum weight approved for ground maneuvers. This is the same as maximum ramp weight. ÷aximum Weight. The maximum authorized weight of the aircraft and all of its equipment as specified in the Type Certificate Data Sheets (TCDS) for the aircraft. ÷aximum Zero Fuel Weight. The maximum authorized weight of an aircraft without fuel. This is the total weight for a particular flight less the fuel. It includes the aircraft and everything that will be carried on the flight except the weight of the fuel. Glossary± ÷EVO Horsepower (maximum except takeoff). The maximum power allowed to be continuously produced by an engine. Takeoff power is usually limited to a given amount of time, such as 1 minute or 5 minutes. ÷inimum Fuel. The amount of fuel necessary for one-half hour of operation at the rated maximum-continuous power setting of the engine, which, for weight and balance purposes, is 1/12 gallon per maximum-except-takeoff (METO) horse-power. It is the maximum amount of fuel that could be used in weight and balance computations when low fuel might adversely affect the most critical balance conditions. To determine the weight of the minimum fuel in pounds, divide the METO horsepower by two. ÷inor Alteration. An alteration other than a major alteration. This includes alterations that are listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications. ÷oment. A force that causes or tries to cause an object to rotate. It is indicated by the product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm. ÷oment. (GA÷A) The product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm. (Moment divided by a constant is used to simplify balance calculations by reducing the number of digits; see reduction factor.) ÷oment cndex. The moment (weight times arm) divided by a reduction factor such as 100 or 1,000 to make the number smaller and reduce the chance of mathematical errors in computing the center of gravity. ÷oment Limits vs. Weight Envelope. An enclosed area on a graph of three parameters. The diagonal line representing the moment/100 crosses the horizontal line representing the weight at the vertical line representing the CG location in inches aft of the datum. When the lines cross inside the envelope, the aircraft is loaded within its weight and CG limits. Net Weight. The weight of the aircraft less the weight of any chocks or other devices used to hold the aircraft on the scales. Normal Category. A category of aircraft certificated under 14 CFR part 23 and CAR part 3 that allows the maximum weight and CG range while restricting the maneuvers that are permitted. PAX. Passengers. Payload. (GA÷A) Weight of occupants, cargo, and baggage. Pilot s Operating Handbook (POH). An FAA-approved document published by the airframe manufacturer that lists the operating conditions for a particular model of aircraft and its engine(s). Potable Water. Water carried in an aircraft for the purpose of drinking. Ramp Weight. The zero fuel weight plus all of the usable fuel on board.

Reference Datum. (GA÷A) An imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purpose. Reduction Factor. A number, usually 100 or 1,000 by which a moment is divided to produce a smaller number that is less likely to cause mathematical errors when computing the center of gravity. Residual Fuel. Fuel that remains trapped in the system after draining the fuel from the aircraft with the aircraft in level flight attitude. The weight of this residual fuel is counted as part of the empty weight of the aircraft. Service Ceiling. The highest altitude at which an aircraft can still maintain a steady rate of climb of 100 feet per minute. Small Aircraft (14 CFR part 1). An aircraft weighing 2,500 pounds or less, maximum certificated takeoff weight. Standard Empty Weight. (GA÷A) Weight of a standard airplane including unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil. Static Load. The load imposed on an aircraft structure due to the weight of the aircraft and its contents. Station. (GA÷A) A location along the airplane fuselage usually given in terms of distance from the reference datum. Strain Sensor. A device that converts a physical phenomenon into an electrical signal. Strain sensors in a wheel axle sense the amount the axle deflects and create an electrical signal that is proportional to the force that caused the deflection. Structural Station. This is a location in the aircraft, such as a bulkhead, which is identified by a number designating its distance in inches or percent MAC from the datum. The datum is, therefore, identified as station zero. The stations and arms are identical. An item located at station +50 would have an arm of 50 inches. Vakeoff Weight. The weight of an aircraft just before beginning the takeoff roll. It is the ramp weight less the weight of the fuel burned during start and taxi. Vare Weight. The weight of any chocks or devices that are used to hold an aircraft on the scales when it is weighed. The tare weight must be subtracted from the scale reading to get the net weight of the aircraft. VE÷AC. Trailing Edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord. Vype Certificate Data Sheets (VCDS). The official specifications issued by the FAA for an aircraft, engine, or propeller. Undrainable Oil. Oil that does not drain from an engine lubricating system when the aircraft is in the normal ground attitude and the drain valve is left open. The weight of the undrainable oil is part of the empty weight of the aircraft. Unusable Fuel. (GA÷A) Fuel remaining after a run out test has been completed in accordance with governmental regulations. Usable Fuel. (GA÷A) Fuel available for flight planning. Useful Load. (GA÷A) Difference between takeoff weight, or ramp weight if applicable, and basic empty weight. Utility Category. A category of aircraft certificated under 14 CFR part 23 and CAR part 3 that permits limited acrobatic maneuvers but restricts the weight and the CG range. Wing Chord. A straight-line distance across a wing from leading edge to trailing edge. Zero Fuel Weight. The weight of an aircraft without fuel. .

2. Effect of weight and balance on performance. Most modern aircraft are so designed that if all seats are occupied, all baggage allowed by the baggage compartment is carried, and all of the fuel tanks are full, the aircraft will be grossly overloaded. This type of design requires the pilot to give great consideration to the requirements of the trip. If maximum range is required, occupants or baggage must be left behind, or if the maximum load must be carried, the range, dictated by the amount of fuel on board, must be reduced. Some of the problems caused by overloading an aircraft are: ‡ The aircraft will need a higher takeoff speed, which results in a longer takeoff run. ‡ Both the rate and angle of climb will be reduced. ‡ The service ceiling will be lowered. ‡ The cruising speed will be reduced. ‡ The cruising range will be shortened. ‡ Maneuverability will be decreased. ‡ A longer landing roll will be required because the landing speed will be higher. ‡ Excessive loads will be imposed on the structure, especially the landing gear. The POH or AFM includes tables or charts that give the pilot an indication of the performance expected for any weight. An important part of careful preflight planning includes a check of these charts to determine the aircraft is loaded so the proposed flight can be safely made. 3. Determination of total weight, center of gravity (longitudinal and lateral), and changes that occur when adding, removing, or shifting weight. The maximum allowable weight for an aircraft is determined by design considerations. However, the maximum operational weight may be less than the maximum allowable weight due to such considerations as high-density altitude or high-drag field conditions caused by wet grass or water on the runway. The maximum operational weight may also be limited by the departure or arrival airport¶s runway length. One important preflight consideration is the distribution of the load in the aircraft. Loading the aircraft so the gross weight is less than the maximum allowable is not enough. This weight must be distributed to keep the CG within the limits specified in the POH or AFM. Weight and balance of a helicopter is far more critical than for an airplane. With some helicopters, they may be properly loaded for takeoff, but near the end of a long flight when the fuel tanks are almost empty, the CG may have shifted enough for the helicopter to be out of balance laterally or longitudinally. Before making any long flight, the CG with the fuel available for landing must be checked to ensure it will be within the allowable range. Some of the smaller helicopters also require solo flight be made from a specific seat, either the right, left, or center. These seating limitations will be noted by a placard, usually on the instrument panel, and they should be strictly adhered to. As an aircraft ages, its weight usually increases due to trash and dirt collecting in hard-to-reach locations, and moisture absorbed in the cabin insulation. This growth in weight is normally small, but it can only be determined by accurately weighing the aircraft.

Rotorcraft Flying Handbook Chapter 7. Weight and Balance Handbook. 

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-25. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to navigation and flight planning by describing: 1. Terms used in navigation.

2. Features of aeronautical charts. Aeronautical Charts An aeronautical chart is the road map for a pilot flying under VFR. The chart provides information which allows pilots to track their position and provides available information which enhances safety. The three aeronautical charts used by VFR pilots are: ‡ Sectional ‡ VFR Terminal Area ‡ World Aeronautical Sectional Charts Sectional charts are the most common charts used by pilots today. The charts have a scale of 1:500,000 (1 inch = 6.86 nautical miles (NM) or approximately 8 statute miles (SM)) which allows for more detailed information to be included on the chart. The charts provide an abundance of information, including airport data, navigational aids, airspace, and topography. By referring to the chart legend, a pilot can interpret most of the information on the chart. A pilot should also check the chart for other legend information, which includes air traffic control (ATC) frequencies and information on airspace. These charts are revised semiannually except for some areas outside the conterminous United States where they are revised annually. *FR Verminal Area Charts VFR terminal area charts are helpful when flying in or near Class B airspace. They have a scale of 1:250,000 (1 inch = 3.43 NM or approximately 4 SM). These charts provide a more detailed display of topographical information and are revised semiannually, except for several Alaskan and Caribbean charts. World Aeronautical Charts World aeronautical charts are designed to provide a standard series of aeronautical charts, covering land areas of the world, at a size and scale convenient for navigation by moderate speed aircraft. They are produced at a scale of 1:1,000,000 (1 inch = 13.7 NM or approximately 16 SM). These charts are similar to sectional charts and the symbols are the same except there is less detail due to the smaller scale. These charts are revised annually except several Alaskan charts and the Mexican/Caribbean charts which are revised every 2 years.

3. Importance of using proper and current aeronautical charts. Current charts will show updated construction of obstructions and frequencies.

4. Identification of various types of airspace. The two categories of airspace are: regulatory and nonregulatory. Within these two categories there are four types: controlled, uncontrolled, special use, and other airspace. Controlled Airspace Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers the different classifications of airspace and defined dimensions within which air traffic control (ATC) service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification. Controlled airspace consists of: ‡ Class A ‡ Class B ‡ Class C ‡ Class D ‡ Class E Class A Airspace Class A airspace is generally the airspace from 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) up to and including flight level (FL) 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles (NM) of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska. Unless otherwise authorized, all operation in Class A airspace is conducted under instrument flight rules (IFR). Class B Airspace Class B airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation¶s busiest airports in terms of airport operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored, consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside-down wedding cakes), and is designed to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft that are so cleared receive separation services within the airspace. Class C Airspace Class C airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. Although the configuration of each Class C area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a surface area with a five NM radius, an outer circle with a ten NM radius that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and an outer area. Each aircraft must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering the airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within the airspace.

Class D Airspace Class D airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace is normally designed to contain the procedures. Arrival extensions for instrument approach procedures (IAPs) may be Class D or Class E airspace. Unless otherwise authorized, each aircraft must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering the airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while in the airspace. Class E Airspace If the airspace is not Class A, B, C, or D, and is controlled airspace, then it is Class E airspace. Class E airspace extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. When designated as a surface area, the airspace is configured to contain all instrument procedures. Also in this class are federal airways, airspace beginning at either 700 or 1,200 feet above ground level (AGL) used to transition to and from the terminal or en route environment, and en route domestic and offshore airspace areas designated below 18,000 feet MSL. Unless designated at a lower altitude, Class E airspace begins at 14,500 MSL over the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace above FL 600. Uncontrolled Airspace Class G Airspace Uncontrolled airspace or Class G airspace is the portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E. It is therefore designated uncontrolled airspace. Class G airspace extends from the surface to the base of the overlying Class E airspace. Although ATC has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic, pilots should remember there are visual flight rules (VFR) minimums which apply to Class G airspace. Special Use Airspace Special use airspace or special area of operation (SAO) is the designation for airspace in which certain activities must be confined, or where limitations may be imposed on aircraft operations that are not part of those activities. Certain special use airspace areas can create limitations on the mixed use of airspace. The special use airspace depicted on instrument charts includes the area name or number, effective altitude, time and weather conditions of operation, the controlling agency, and the chart panel location. On National Aeronautical Charting Group (NACG) en route charts, this information is available on one of the end panels. Special use airspace usually consists of: ‡ Prohibited areas ‡ Restricted areas ‡ Warning areas ‡ Military operation areas (MOAs) ‡ Alert areas ‡ Controlled firing areas (CFAs)

Prohibited Areas Prohibited areas contain airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare. These areas are published in the Federal Register and are depicted on aeronautical charts. The area is charted as a ³P´ followed by a number (e.g., P-49). Examples of prohibited areas include Camp David and the National Mall in Washington, D.C., where the White House and the Congressional buildings are located. Õ
  Restricted Areas Restricted areas are areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Activities within these areas must be confined because of their nature, or limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or both. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft (e.g., artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles). IFR flights may be authorized to transit the airspace and are routed accordingly. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants. ATC facilities apply the following procedures when aircraft are operating on an IFR clearance (including those cleared by ATC to maintain VFR on top) via a route which lies within joint-use restricted airspace: 1. If the restricted area is not active and has been released to the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), the ATC facility allows the aircraft to operate in the restricted airspace without issuing specific clearance for it to do so. 2. If the restricted area is active and has not been released to the FAA, the ATC facility issues a clearance which ensures the aircraft avoids the restricted airspace. Restricted areas are charted with an ³R´ followed by a number (e.g., R-4401) and are depicted on the en route chart appropriate for use at the altitude or FL being flown. Õ
 Restricted area information can be obtained on the back of the chart. Warning Areas Warning areas are similar in nature to restricted areas; however, the United States government does not have sole jurisdiction over the airspace. A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 12 NM outward from the coast of the United States, containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such areas is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both. The airspace is designated with a ³W´ followed by a number (e.g., W-237). Õ
  ÷ilitary Operation Areas (÷OAs) MOAs consist of airspace with defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Whenever an MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through an MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC. Otherwise, ATC reroutes or restricts nonparticipating IFR traffic. MOAs are depicted on sectional, VFR terminal area, and en route low altitude charts and are not numbered (e.g., ³Camden Ridge MOA´). Õ
 However, the MOA is also further defined on the back of the sectional charts with times of operation, altitudes affected, and the controlling agency.

Alert Areas Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts with an ³A´ followed by a number (e.g., A-211) to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. All activity within an alert area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots transiting the area, shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance. Õ
  Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs) CFAs contain activities, which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The difference between CFAs and other special use airspace is that activities must be suspended when a spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout position indicates an aircraft might be approaching the area. There is no need to chart CFAs since they do not cause a nonparticipating aircraft to change its flight path. Other Airspace Areas ³Other airspace areas´ is a general term referring to the majority of the remaining airspace. It includes: ‡ Local airport advisory ‡ Military training route (MTR) ‡ Temporary flight restriction (TFR) ‡ Parachute jump aircraft operations ‡ Published VFR routes ‡ Terminal radar service area (TRSA) ‡ National security area (NSA) Local Airport Advisory (LAA) A service provided by facilities, which are located on the landing airport, have a discrete groundto-air communication frequency or the tower frequency when the tower is closed, automated weather reporting with voice broadcasting, and a continuous ASOS/AWOS data display, other continuous direct reading instruments, or manual observations available to the specialist. ÷ilitary Vraining Routes (÷VRs) MTRs are routes used by military aircraft to maintain proficiency in tactical flying. These routes are usually established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. Some route segments may be defined at higher altitudes for purposes of route continuity. Routes are identified as IFR (IR), and VFR (VR), followed by a number. Õ
 MTRs with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by four number characters (e.g., IR1206, VR1207). MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by three number characters (e.g., IR206, VR207). IFR low altitude en route charts depict all IR routes and all VR routes that accommodate operations above 1,500 feet AGL. IR routes are conducted in accordance with IFR regardless of weather conditions. VFR sectional charts depict military training activities such as IR, VR, MOA, restricted area, warning area, and alert area information.

Vemporary Flight Restrictions (VFR) A flight data center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) is issued to designate a TFR. The NOTAM begins with the phrase ³FLIGHT RESTRICTIONS´ followed by the location of the temporary restriction, effective time period, area defined in statute miles, and altitudes affected. The NOTAM also contains the FAA coordination facility and telephone number, the reason for the restriction, and any other information deemed appropriate. The pilot should check the NOTAMs as part of flight planning. Some of the purposes for establishing a TFR are: ‡ Protect persons and property in the air or on the surface from an existing or imminent hazard. ‡ Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft. ‡ Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft above an incident or event, which may generate a high degree of public interest. ‡ Protect declared national disasters for humanitarian reasons in the State of Hawaii. ‡ Protect the President, Vice President, or other public figures. ‡ Provide a safe environment for space agency operations. Since the events of September 11, 2001, the use of TFRs has become much more common. There have been a number of incidents of aircraft incursions into TFRs, which have resulted in pilots undergoing security investigations and certificate suspensions. It is a pilot¶s responsibility to be aware of TFRs in their proposed area of flight. One way to check is to visit the FAA website, www.tfr.faa.gov, and verify that there is not a TFR in the area. Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations Parachute jump aircraft operations are published in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD). Sites that are used frequently are depicted on sectional charts. Published *FR Routes Published VFR routes are for transitioning around, under, or through some complex airspace. Terms such as VFR flyway, VFR corridor, Class B airspace VFR transition route, and terminal area VFR route have been applied to such routes. These routes are generally found on VFR terminal area planning charts. Verminal Radar Service Areas (VRSAs) TRSAs are areas where participating pilots can receive additional radar services. The purpose of the service is to provide separation between all IFR operations and participating VFR aircraft. The primary airport(s) within the TRSA become(s) Class D airspace. The remaining portion of the TRSA overlies other controlled airspace, which is normally Class E airspace beginning at 700 or 1,200 feet and established to transition to/from the en route/terminal environment. TRSAs are depicted on VFR sectional charts and terminal area charts with a solid black line and altitudes for each segment. The Class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line. Participation in TRSA services is voluntary; however, pilots operating under VFR are encouraged to contact the radar approach control and take advantage of TRSA service. National Security Areas (NSAs) NSAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of Title 14 of the Code of

Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 99 and prohibitions are disseminated via NOTAM. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through these depicted areas.

5. Method of plotting a course, selection of fuel stops and alternates, and appropriate actions in the event of unforeseen situations. Landmarks, weather, weight and balance, available fuel, planned alternates and preparations for forced landing or diversion. 6. Fundamentals of pilotage and dead reckoning. Dead Reckoning: Three properly-performed actions are necessary for dead reckoning navigation to get you to your destination, at the estimated time of arrival: 1. The pilot must properly calculate the course and fuel consumption. 2. The pilot must accurately fly the aircraft 3. The weather service must correctly predict the winds-aloft. Pilotage: The identification of present position and direction of flight by seeing features on the ground. 7. Fundamentals of radio navigation. *ery High Frequency (*HF) Omnidirectional Range (*OR) The VOR system is present in three slightly different navigation aids (NAVAIDs): VOR, VOR/DME, and VORTAC. By itself it is known as a VOR, and it provides magnetic bearing information to and from the station. When DME is also installed with a VOR, the NAVAID is referred to as a VOR/DME. When military tactical air navigation (TACAN) equipment is installed with a VOR, the NAVAID is known as a VORTAC. DME is always an integral part of a VORTAC. Regardless of the type of NAVAID utilized (VOR, VOR/DME or VORTAC), the VOR indicator behaves the same. VOR ground stations transmit within a VHF frequency band of 108.0±117.95 MHz. Because the equipment is VHF, the signals transmitted are subject to line-of-sight restrictions. Therefore, its range varies in direct proportion to the altitude of receiving equipment. Generally, the reception range of the signals at an altitude of 1,000 feet above ground level (AGL) is about 40 to 45 miles. This distance increases with altitude.

*OR/*ORVAC NA*AcDS Normal Usable Altitudes and Radius Distances    T L H H







   
 12,000' and below 25 Below 18,000' 40 Below 14,500' 40 Within the conterminous 48 states only, between 14,500 and 17,999' 100 H 18,000'²FL 450 130 H 60,000'²FL 450 100 The useful range of certain facilities may be less than 50 miles. For further information concerning these restrictions, refer to the Communication/NAVAID Remarks in the A/FD. The aircraft equipment includes a receiver with a tuning device and a VOR or omninavigation instrument. The navigation instrument could be a course deviation indicator (CDI), horizontal situation indicator (HSI), or a radio magnetic indicator (RMI). Each of these instruments indicates the course to the tuned VOR. Course Deviation cndicator (CDc) The CDI is found in most training aircraft. It consists of (1) omnibearing selector (OBS) sometimes referred to as the course selector, (2) a CDI needle (Left-Right Needle), and (3) a TO/FROM indicator. Horizontal Situation cndicator The HSI is a direction indicator that uses the output from a flux valve to drive the compass card. The HSI Õ
   combines the magnetic compass with navigation signals and a glide slope. The HSI gives the pilot an indication of the location of the aircraft with relationship to the chosen course or radial Radio ÷agnetic cndicator (R÷c) The RMI Õ
   is a navigational aid providing aircraft magnetic or directional gyro heading and very high frequency omnidirectional range (VOR), GPS, and automatic direction finder (ADF) bearing information. Remote indicating 15-25 compasses were developed to compensate for errors in and limitations of older types of heading indicators. Vips on Using the *OR ‡ Positively identify the station by its code or voice identification. ‡ Keep in mind that VOR signals are ³line-of-sight.´ A weak signal or no signal at all is received if the aircraft is too low or too far from the station.

‡ When navigating to a station, determine the inbound radial and use this radial. Fly a heading that will maintain the course. If the aircraft drifts, fly a heading to re-intercept the course then apply a correction to compensate for wind drift. ‡ If minor needle fluctuations occur, avoid changing headings immediately. Wait momentarily to see if the needle recenters; if it does not, then correct. ‡ When flying ³TO´ a station, always fly the selected course with a ³TO´ indication. When flying ³FROM´ a station, always fly the selected course with a ³FROM´ indication. If this is not done, the action of the course deviation needle is reversed. To further explain this reverse action, if the aircraft is flown toward a station with a ³FROM´ indication or away from a station with a ³TO´ indication, the course deviation needle indicates in an direction opposite to that which it should indicate. For example, if the aircraft drifts to the right of a radial being flown, the needle moves to the right or points away from the radial. If the aircraft drifts to the left of the radial being flown, the needle moves left or in the direction opposite to the radial. ‡ When navigating using the VOR it is important to fly headings that maintain or re-intercept the course. Just turning toward the needle will cause overshooting the radial and flying an S turn to the left and right of course. 8. Diversion to an alternate. After selecting the most appropriate alternate, approximate the magnetic course to the alternate using a compass rose or airway on the sectional chart. If time permits, try to start the diversion over a prominent ground feature. However, in an emergency, divert promptly toward your alternate. Attempting to complete all plotting, measuring, and computations involved before diverting to the alternate may only aggravate an actual emergency. Once established on course, note the time, and then use the winds aloft nearest to your diversion point to calculate a heading and GS. Once a GS has been calculated, determine a new arrival time and fuel consumption. Give priority to flying the aircraft while dividing attention between navigation and planning. When determining an altitude to use while diverting, consider cloud heights, winds, terrain, and radio reception. 9. Lost procedures. Lost aircraft procedures Don't panic, perform the five C's Confess to yourself that you are lost Climb to the route ceiling or above minimum safe altitude Conserve fuel (slow down) Communicate to appropriate controlling agency Comply wit h controller's instructions (fuel permitt ing)

10. Computation of fuel requirement. p
   Aircraft fuel consumption is computed in gallons per hour. Consequently, to determine the fuel required for a given flight, the time required for the flight must be known. Time in flight multiplied by rate of consumption gives the quantity of fuel required. For example, a flight of 400 NM at a GS of 100 knots requires 4 hours. If an aircraft consumes 5 gallons an hour, the total consumption is 4 ` 5, or 20 gallons. Helicopter are required to carry 20 minutes of reserve fuel. 11. Importance of preparing and properly using a flight log. Without a good flog log record of Ground speed, wind correction angles and last known position, accurate dead reckoning is impossible. 12. Importance of a weather check and the use of good judgment in making a ³go/nogo´ decision. Weather Check It is wise to check the weather before continuing with other aspects of flight planning to see, first of all, if the flight is feasible and, if it is, which route is best. 13. Purpose of, and procedure used in, filing a flight plan. When a VFR flight plan is filed, it is held by the AFSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure time and then canceled unless: the actual departure time is received; a revised proposed departure time is received; or at the time of filing, the AFSS is informed that the proposed departure time is met, but actual time cannot be given because of inadequate communication. The FSS specialist who accepts the flight plan does not inform the pilot of this procedure, however. When filing a flight plan by telephone or radio, give the information in the order of the numbered spaces. This enables the AFSS specialist to copy the information more efficiently. Most of the fields are either self-explanatory or non-applicable to the VFR flight plan (such as item 13). However, some fields may need explanation. ‡ Item 3 is the aircraft type and special equipment. An example would be R-22/U means the aircraft has a transponder. A listing of special equipment codes is found in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). ‡ Item 6 is the proposed departure time in UTC (indicated by the ³Z´). ‡ Item 7 is the cruising altitude. Normally, ³VFR´ can be entered in this block, since the pilot chooses a cruising altitude to conform to FAA regulations. ‡ Item 8 is the route of flight. If the flight is to be direct, enter the word ³direct;´ if not, enter the actual route to be followed such as via certain towns or navigation aids. ‡ Item 10 is the estimated time en route. 5 minutes can be added to the total time to allow for the climb. ‡ Item 12 is the fuel on board in hours and minutes. This is determined by dividing the total usable fuel aboard in gallons by the estimated rate of fuel consumption in gallons.

Remember, there is every advantage in filing a flight plan; but do not forget to close the flight plan on arrival. Do this by telephone to avoid radio congestion. 14. Global positioning system (GPS). Vips for Using GPS for *FR Operations Always check to see if the unit has RAIM capability. If no RAIM capability exists be suspicious of a GPS displayed position when any disagreement exists with the position derived from other radio navigation systems, pilotage, or dead reckoning. Check the currency of the database, if any. If expired, update the database using the current revision. If an update of an expired database is not possible, disregard any moving map display of airspace for critical navigation decisions. Be aware that named waypoints may no longer exist or may have been relocated since the database expired. At a minimum, the waypoints planned to be used should be checked against a current official source, such as the A/FD, or a Sectional Aeronautical Chart. While a hand-held GPS receiver can provide excellent navigation capability to VFR pilots, be prepared for intermittent loss of navigation signal, possibly with no RAIM warning to the pilot. If mounting the receiver in the aircraft, be sure to comply with 14 CFR part 43. Plan flights carefully before taking off. If navigating to user-defined waypoints, enter them before flight, not on the fly. Verify the planned flight against a current source, such as a current sectional chart. There have been cases in which one pilot used waypoints created by another pilot that were not where the pilot flying was expecting. This generally resulted in a navigation error. Minimize head-down time in the aircraft and keep a sharp lookout for traffic, terrain, and obstacles. Just a few minutes of preparation and planning on the ground makes a great difference in the air. Another way to minimize head-down time is to become very familiar with the receiver¶s operation. Most receivers are not intuitive. The pilot must take the time to learn the various keystrokes, knob functions, and displays that are used in the operation of the receiver. Some manufacturers provide computer-based tutorials or simulations of their receivers. Take the time to learn about the particular unit before using it in flight. 

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21, FAA-H-8083-25; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to night operations by describing: 1. Factors related to night vision, disorientation, and optical illusions. NcGHV *cScON The cones in your eyes adapt quite rapidly to changes in light intensities, but the rods do not. If you have ever walked from bright sunlight into a dark movie theater, you have experienced this dark adaptation period. The rods can take approximately 30 minutes to fully adapt to the dark. A bright light, however, can completely destroy your night adaptation and severely restrict your visual acuity. There are several things you can do to keep your eyes adapted to the dark. The first is obvious; avoid bright lights before and during the flight. For 30 minutes before a night flight, avoid any

bright light sources, such as headlights, landing lights, strobe lights, or flashlights. If you encounter a bright light, close one eye to keep it light sensitive. This allows you to see again once the light is gone. Light sensitivity also can be gained by using sunglasses if you will be flying from daylight into an area of increasing darkness. Your diet and general physical health have an impact on how well you can see in the dark. Deficiencies in vitamins A and C have been shown to reduce night acuity. Other factors, such as carbon monoxide poisoning, smoking, alcohol, certain drugs, and a lack of oxygen also can greatly decrease your night vision. 2. Weather considerations specific to night operations. FAR 91.155 outlines specific visibility and cloud clearance requirements while 10-2-2 of the AIM outlines lighting conditions. 3. Preflight inspection, including windshield and window cleanliness. PREFLcGHV POH Checklist The preflight inspection is performed in the usual manner, except it should be done in a well lit area or with a flashlight. Careful attention must be paid to the aircraft electrical system. In helicopters equipped with fuses, a spare set is required by regulation, and common sense, so make sure they are onboard. If the helicopter is equipped with circuit breakers, check to see that they are not tripped. A tripped circuit breaker may be an indication of an equipment malfunction. Reset it and check the associated equipment for proper operation. Check all the interior lights, especially the instrument and panel lights. The panel lighting can usually be controlled with a rheostat or dimmer switch, allowing you to adjust the intensity. If the lights are too bright, a glare may reflect off the windshield creating a distraction. Always carry a flashlight with fresh batteries to provide an alternate source of light if the interior lights malfunction. All aircraft operating between sunset and sunrise are required to have operable navigation lights. Turn these lights on during the preflight to inspect them visually for proper operation. Between sunset and sunrise, theses lights must be on any time the engine is running. All recently manufactured aircraft certified for night flight, must have an anti-collision light that makes the aircraft more visible to other pilots. This light is either a red or white flashing light and may be in the form of a rotating beacon or a strobe. While anti-collision lights are required for night VFR flights, they may be turned off any time they create a distraction for the pilot. 4. Proper adjustment of interior lights, including availability of flashlight. Red cockpit lighting also helps preserve your night vision, but red light severely distorts some colors, and completely washes out the color red. This makes reading an aeronautical chart difficult. A dim white light or carefully directed flashlight can enhance your night reading ability. While flying at night, keep the instrument panel and interior lights turned up no higher than necessary. This helps you see outside visual references more easily. If your eyes become blurry, blinking more frequently often helps. 5. Use of position and anti-collision lights prior to, during, and after engine start. ENGcNE SVARVcNG AND ROVOR ENGAGE÷ENV Use extra caution when starting the engine and engaging the rotors, especially in dark areas with little or no outside lights. In addition to the usual call of ³clear,´ turn on the position and anti-

collision lights. If conditions permit, you might also want to turn the landing light on momentarily to help warn others that you are about to start the engine and engage the rotors. 6 Hover taxiing and orientation on an airport or heliport. VAXc VECHNcQUE Landing lights usually cast a beam that is narrow and concentrated ahead of the helicopter, so illumination to the side is minimal. Therefore, you should slow your taxi at night, especially in congested ramp and parking areas. Some helicopters have a hover light in addition to a landing light, which illuminates a larger area under the helicopter. When operating at an unfamiliar airport at night, you should ask for instructions or advice concerning local conditions, so as to avoid taxiing into areas of construction, or unlighted, unmarked obstructions. Ground controllers or UNICOM operators are usually cooperative in furnishing you with this type of information.

7. Takeoff and climb-out. VAKEOFF Before takeoff, make sure that you have a clear, unobstructed takeoff path. At airports, you may accomplish this by taking off over a runway or taxiway; however, if you are operating offairport, you must pay more attention to the surroundings. Obstructions may also be difficult to see if you are taking off from an unlighted area. Once you have chosen a suitable takeoff path, select a point down the takeoff path to use for directional reference. During a night takeoff, you may notice a lack of reliable outside visual references after you are airborne. This is particularly true at small airports and off-airport landing sites located in sparsely populated areas. To compensate for the lack of outside references, use the available flight instruments as an aid. Check the altimeter and the airspeed indicator to verify the proper climb attitude. An attitude indicator, if installed, can enhance your attitude reference. The first 500 feet of altitude after takeoff is considered to be the most critical period in transitioning from the comparatively well-lighted airport or heliport into what sometimes appears to be total darkness. A takeoff at night is usually an ³altitude over airspeed´ maneuver, meaning you will most likely perform a nearly maximum performance takeoff. This improves the chances for obstacle clearance and enhances safety. When performing this maneuver, be sure to avoid the cross-hatched or shaded areas of the height-velocity diagram. 8. In-flight orientation. 

 


In order to provide a higher margin of safety, it is recommended that you select a cruising altitude somewhat higher than normal. There are several reasons for this. First, a higher altitude gives you more clearance between obstacles, especially those that are difficult to see at night, such as high tension wires and unlighted towers. Secondly, in the event of an engine failure, you have more time to set up for a landing and the gliding distance is greater giving you more options in making a safe landing. Thirdly, radio reception is improved, particularly if you are using radio aids for navigation. During your preflight planning, it is recommended that you select a route of flight that keeps you within reach of an airport, or any safe landing site, as much of the time as possible. It is also recommended that you fly as close as possible to a populated or lighted area such as a highway or town. Not only does this offer more options in the event of an emergency, but also makes

navigation a lot easier. A course comprised of a series of slight zigzags to stay close to suitable landing sites and well lighted areas, only adds a little more time and distance to an otherwise straight course. 9. Importance of verifying the helicopter's attitude by visual references and flight instruments. Carefully controlled studies have revealed that pilots have a tendency to make lower approaches at night than during the day. This is potentially dangerous as you have a greater chance of hitting an obstacle, such as an overhead wire or fence, which are difficult to see. It is good practice to make steeper approaches at night, thus increasing any obstacle clearance. Monitor your altitude and rate of descent using the altimeter. 10. Recovery from critical flight attitudes by visual references and flight instruments. Trust the instruments. 11. Emergencies such as electrical failure, engine malfunction, and emergency landings. In the event that you have to make a forced landing at night, use the same procedure recommended for daytime emergency landings. If available, turn on the landing light during the final descent to help in avoiding obstacles along your approach path. 12. Traffic patterns. 13. Approaches and landings with and without landing lights. APPROACH AND LANDcNG Night approaches and landings do have some advantages over daytime approaches, as the air is generally smoother and the disruptive effects of turbulence and excessive crosswinds are often absent. However, there are a few special considerations and techniques that apply to approaches at night. For example, when landing at night, especially at an unfamiliar airport, make the approach to a lighted runway and then use the taxiways to avoid unlighted obstructions or equipment. Another tendency is to focus too much on the landing area and not pay enough attention to airspeed. If too much airspeed is lost, a settling-with-power condition may result. Maintain the proper attitude during the approach, and make sure you keep some forward airspeed and movement until close to the ground. Outside visual reference for airspeed and rate of closure may not be available, especially when landing in an unlighted area, so pay special attention to the airspeed indicator. Although the landing light is a helpful aid when making night approaches, there is an inherent disadvantage. The portion of the landing area illuminated by the landing light seems higher than the dark area surrounding it. This effect can cause you to terminate the approach at too high an altitude, resulting in a settling-with power condition and a hard landing.
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REFERENCES: 14 CFR parts 1, 61, 91; NTSB Part 830; AC 00-2; AIM, Rotorcraft Flight Manual.


To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to pertinent regulations and publications, their purpose, general content, availability, and method of revision, by describing: 1. 14 CFR parts 1, 61, and 91. Part 1: Definitions and abbreviation. Rules of Construction Part 61: Certification of Pilots and Instructions. 61.19: Duration of Pilot and Instructor Certificates 61.23: Medical Certificates Requirements and Duration 61. 1: Pilot Logbooks 61. 
: Recent Flight Experience: Pilot in Command 61.8
: Solo Requirements for Student Pilots 61.89: Student Pilot Limitations 61.109: Private Pilot Experience 61.181-199: Flight and Ground Instructor Part 91: Air Traffic and General Operating Rules 91.1
: Alcohol and Drugs 91.123-13
: ATC and Airspace compliance 91.1 1-1 9: Visual Flight Rules 91.401-421: Maintenance, Inspections and Preventative maintenance

2. NTSB Part 830. Outlines the specific requirements for accident and incident reporting, handling of wreckage and information needed during the reporting process.

3. Flight information publications. Flight Information Publications (FLIP) charts are sensitive flight critical mapping and charting type items produced by the National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (NGA), foreign governments and commercial vendors that are distributed by the Defense Distribution Mapping Activity (DDMA) and varied civilian contractors. They are available for most parts of the world, including Africa, Asia, and Antarctica. Each set of maps provide information needed for flying in foreign airspace. There are three standard types of Flight Information Publications (Planning, Enroute and Terminal) that cover eight geographic areas throughout the world. These items are produced in increments varying from 28 to 365 days. Sufficient quantities of each product type are produced and printed to adequately supply all active subscription accounts and limited depot shelf stock. 4. Practical Test Standards. 5. Helicopter Flight Manual (as applicable). <

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REFERENCES: 14 CFR parts 1, 27, 29, 39, 43, and 91; FAA-H-8083-21.


To determine that the applicant exhibits knowledge of the elements related to airworthiness requirements by: 1. Explaining² a. required instruments and equipment for day/night VFR. FAR 91.20  b&c ÷ agnetic Compass A ltimeter ÷ anifold Pressure Guage A irspeed Indicator S eat Belts F uel Gauge O il Pressure Gauge O il Temp Gauge V achometers

P osition Lights A nti-Collision Lights L anding Lights c nstrument Lights S ource of power adequate to run the electrical and radio equipment

b. procedures and limitations for determining airworthiness of the helicopter with inoperative instruments and equipment with and without an MEL. There are two primary methods of deferring maintenance on small rotorcraft operated under part 91. They are the deferral provision of 14 CFR part 91, section 91.213(d) and an FAA-approved MEL. Using the deferral provision of section 91.213(d), the pilot determines whether the inoperative equipment is required by type design, the CFRs, or ADs. If the inoperative item is not required, and the aircraft can be safely operated without it, the deferral may be made. The inoperative item shall be deactivated or removed and an INOPERATIVE placard placed near the appropriate switch, control, or indicator. If deactivation or removal involves maintenance (removal always will), it must be accomplished by certificated maintenance personnel. The FAA considers an approved MEL to be a supplemental type certificate (STC) issued to an aircraft by serial number and registration number. It therefore becomes the authority to operate that aircraft in a condition other than originally type certificated. c. requirements and procedures for obtaining a special flight permit.

SPECcAL FLcGHV PER÷cVS A special flight permit is a Special Airworthiness Certificate issued authorizing operation of an aircraft that does not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is safe for a specific flight. Before the permit is issued, an FAA inspector may personally inspect the aircraft, or require it to be inspected by an FAA certificated A&P mechanic or an appropriately

certificated repair station, to determine its safety for the intended flight. The inspection shall be recorded in the aircraft records. The special flight permit is issued to allow the aircraft to be flown to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance can be performed; for delivering or exporting the aircraft; or for evacuating an aircraft from an area of impending danger. A special flight permit may be issued to allow the operation of an overweight aircraft for flight beyond its normal range over water or land areas where adequate landing facilities or fuel is not available. If a special flight permit is needed, assistance and the necessary forms may be obtained from the local FSDO or Designated Airworthiness Representative (DAR).

2. Locating and explaining² a. airworthiness directives. AcRWORVHcNESS DcRECVc*ES A primary safety function of the FAA is to require correction of unsafe conditions found in an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance when such conditions exist and are likely to exist or develop in other products of the same design. The unsafe condition may exist because of a design defect, maintenance, or other causes. 14 CFR part 39, Airworthiness Directives (ADs), defines the authority and responsibility of the Administrator for requiring the necessary corrective action. ADs are the means used to notify aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and to specify the conditions under which the product may continue to be operated. ADs may be divided into two categories: 1. those of an emergency nature requiring immediate compliance prior to further flight, and 2. those of a less urgent nature requiring compliance within a specified period of time. Airworthiness Directives are regulatory and shall be complied with unless a specific exemption is granted. It is the aircraft owner or operator¶s responsibility to ensure compliance with all pertinent ADs. This includes those ADs that require recurrent or continuing action. For example, an AD may require a repetitive inspection each 50 hours of operation, meaning the particular inspection shall be accomplished and recorded every 50 hours of time in service. Owners/operators are reminded there is no provision to overfly the maximum hour requirement of an AD unless it is specifically written into the AD. To help determine if an AD applies to an amateur-built aircraft, contact the local FSDO. All Airworthiness Directives and the AD Biweekly are free on the Internet at www.airweb.faa.gov/rgl

b. compliance records. 14 CFR part 91, section 91.417 requires a record to be maintained that shows the current status of applicable ADs, including the method of compliance; the AD number and revision date, if recurring; the time and date when due again; the signature; kind of certificate; and certificate number of the repair station or mechanic who performed the work. For ready reference, many aircraft owners have a chronological listing of the pertinent ADs in the back of their aircraft, engine, and propeller maintenance records. c. maintenance/inspection requirements. AcRCRAFV ÷AcNVENANCE Maintenance is defined as the preservation, inspection, overhaul, and repair of an aircraft, including the replacement of parts. A PROPERLY MAINTAINED AIRCRAFT IS A SAFE AIRCRAFT. In addition, regular and proper maintenance ensures that an aircraft meets an acceptable standard of airworthiness through- out its operational life. AcRCRAFV cNSPECVcONS 14 CFR part 91 places primary responsibility on the owner or operator for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition. Certain inspections must be performed on the aircraft, and the owner must maintain the airworthiness of the aircraft during the time between required inspections by having any defects corrected. All inspections should follow the current manufacturer¶s maintenance manual, including the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness concerning inspections intervals, parts replacement, and life-limited items as applicable to the aircraft. ANNUAL cNSPECVcON Any reciprocating-engine powered or single-engine- turbojet/turbo-propeller powered small aircraft (12,500 pounds and under) flown for business or pleasure and not flown for compensation or hire is required to be inspected at least annually. The inspection shall be performed by a certificated airframe and powerplant (A&P) mechanic who holds an Inspection Authorization (IA), by the manufacturer, or by a certificated and appropriately rated repair station. The aircraft may not be operated unless the annual inspection has been performed within the preceding 12-calendar months. A period of 12-calendar months extends from any day of a month to the last day of the same month the following year. An aircraft overdue for an annual inspection may be operated under a Special Flight Permit issued by the FAA for the purpose of flying the aircraft to a location where the annual inspection can be performed. However, all applicable Airworthiness Directives that are due must be complied with.

100-HOUR cNSPECVcON All aircraft under 12,500 pounds (except turbojet/turbo- propeller powered multiengine airplanes and turbine powered rotorcraft), used to carry passengers for hire, must have received a 100-hour inspection within the preceding 100 hours of time in service and have been approved for return to service. Additionally, an aircraft used for flight instruction for hire, when provided by the person giving the flight instruction, must also have received a 100-hour inspection. This inspection must be performed by an FAA certificated A&P mechanic, an appropriately rated FAA certificated repair station, or by the aircraft manufacturer. An annual inspection or an inspection for the issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate may be substituted for a required 100hour inspection. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service. OVHER cNSPECVcON PROGRA÷S The annual and 100-hour inspection requirements do not apply to large (over 12,500 pounds) airplanes, turbojets, or turbo-propeller powered multiengine airplanes or to aircraft for which the owner complies with a progressive inspection program. Details of these requirements may be determined by reference to 14 CFR part 43, section 43.11 and part 91, subpart E, and by inquiring at a local FSDO. ALVc÷EVER SYSVE÷ cNSPECVcON 14 CFR part 91, section 91.411 requires that the altimeter, encoding altimeter, and related system be tested and inspected in the preceding 24 months before operated in controlled airspace under instrument flight rules (IFR). VRANSPONDER cNSPECVcON 14 CFR part 91, section 91.413 requires that before a transponder can be used under 14 CFR part 91, section 91.215(a), it shall be tested and inspected within the preceding 24 months. PREFLcGHV cNSPECVcONS The preflight inspection is a thorough and systematic means by which a pilot determines if the aircraft is air- worthy and in condition for safe operation. POHs and owner/information manuals contain a section devoted to a systematic method of performing a preflight inspection. d. appropriate record keeping. The following records must be kept: a) The TTIS (hours, calendar time and cycles, as appropriate) of the helicopter and all life limited components;

b) The current status of compliance with all mandatory continuing airworthiness information; c) Appropriate details of modifications and repairs to the helicopter and its major components; the time in service (hours, calendar time and cycles, as appropriate) since last overhaul of the helicopter or its components subject to a mandatory overhaul life; e) The current aircraft inspection status such that compliance with the maintenance manual can be established; and f) The detailed maintenance records to show that all requirements in the maintenance manual for issuance of a maintenance release have been met. ã The records in (a) to (e) shall be kept for a period of 90 days after the end of the operating life of the unit to which they refer, and the records in (f) for a period of one year after the issuance of the maintenance release. ã The records shall be transferred to the new operator in the event of any change of operator. 

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REFERENCES: 14 CFR part 91; FAA-S-8081-12, FAA-S-8081-14; AIM. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of the national airspace system by describing: 1. Basic VFR Weather Minimums²for all classes of airspace. Basic *FR Weather ÷inimums. FAR 91.1   (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and Sec. 91.157, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that prescribed for the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the following table:

Airspace

Flight visibility

Distance from clouds

Class A ---------------------------- Not Applicable ------------------- Not Applicable. Class B ---------------------------- 3 statute miles -------------------- Clear of Clouds. Class C ---------------------------- 3 statute miles -------------------- 500 feet below. 1,000 feet above. 2,000 feet horizontal. Class D ---------------------------- 3 statute miles -------------------- 500 feet below. 1,000 feet above. 2,000 feet horizontal.

Class E: Less than 10,000 feet MSL.

3 statute miles -------------------- 500 feet below. 1,000 feet above. 2,000 feet horizontal.

At or above 10,000 feet MSL.

5 statute miles -------------------- 1,000 feet below. 1,000 feet above. 1 statute mile horizontal.

Class G: 1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude). Day, except as provided in Sec. 91.155(b).

See and Avoid ------------------- Clear of clouds. ---

Night, except as provided in Sec. 91.155(b).

See and Avoid ------------------- 500 feet below. 1,000 feet above. 2,000 feet horizontal.

÷ore than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet ÷SL Day -------------------------------- 1 statute mile --------------------- 500 feet below. --1,000 feet above. 2,000 feet horizontal. Night ------------------------------ 3 statute miles -------------------- 500 feet below. --1,000 feet above. 2,000 feet horizontal. ÷ore than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet ÷SL.

5 statute miles -------------------- 1,000 feet below. 1,000 feet above. 1 statute mile horizontal.

(b)   
 Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface: (1) !
" A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds if operated at a speed that allows the pilot adequate opportunity to see any air traffic or obstruction in time to avoid a collision. 2. Airspace classes²the operating rules, pilot certification, and aircraft equipment requirements for the following² a. Class A. Class A Airspace Class A airspace is generally the airspace from 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) up to and including flight level (FL) 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical

miles (NM) of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, all flight operations in Class A airspace must be under ATC control, and must be operating IFR, under a clearance received prior to entry. Since Class A airspace is normally restricted to instrument flight only, there are no minimum visibility requirements.

b. Class B. Class B Airspace Class B airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation¶s busiest airports in terms of airport operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored, consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside-down wedding cakes), and is designed to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft that are so cleared receive separation services within the airspace. Aircraft must be equipped with a two-way radio for communications with ATC and an operating Mode C transponder, furthermore aircraft overflying the upper limit of any Class B airspace must have an operating Mode C transponder. Visual Flight Rules (VFR) flights may proceed under their own navigation after obtaining clearance but must obey any explicit instructions given by ATC. Some Class B airspaces include special 

"" for VFR flight that require communication with ATC but may not require an explicit clearance. Other Class B airspaces include # $"
" through which VFR flights may pass without clearance (and without technically entering the Class B airspace). In addition to this, some Class B airspaces prohibit Special VFR flights. Certain Class B airports have a Mode C veil, which is airspace within thirty nautical miles of the airport in which all aircraft must have an operating Mode C transponder (up to 10,000 feet (3,000 m) MSL). VFR flights operating in Class B airspace must have three miles (5 km) of visibility and must remain clear of clouds (no minimum distance). Class B airspace has the most stringent rules of all the airspaces in the United States. Class B has strict rules on pilot and student certification. Pilots operating in Class B airspace must have a private pilot's certificate, or have met the requirement of CFR 61.95. These are often interpreted to mean "have an instructor's endorsement for having been properly trained in that specific Class B space." However, it does not apply to student pilots seeking sport or recreational certificates. Some Class B airports (within Class B airspaces) prohibit student pilots from taking off and landing there and are listed in the AIM section 3-2-3(b)2. c. Class C. Class C Airspace Class C airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger

enplanements. Although the configuration of each Class C area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a surface area with a five NM radius, an outer circle with a ten NM radius that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and an outer area. All aircraft entering Class C airspace must establish radio communication with ATC prior to entry, generally about 20 miles out. The aircraft must be equipped with a two-way radio and an operating Mode C (altitude reporting) radar transponder, furthermore aircraft overflying above the upper limit of Class C airspace must have an operating Mode C transponder. VFR flights in Class C airspace must have three miles of visibility, and fly an altitude at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet laterally from clouds. There is no specific pilot certification required. Aircraft speeds must be below 200 knots at or below 2,500 feet above the ground, and within 4 nautical miles of the Class C airport. d. Class D. Class D Airspace Class D airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace is normally designed to contain the procedures. Arrival extensions for instrument approach procedures (IAPs) may be Class D or Class E airspace. Class D airspace reverts to Class E during hours when the tower is closed, or under other special conditions. Two-way communication with ATC must be established before entering Class D airspace, generally at 5 to 10 miles out, but no transponder is required. VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements must have three miles of visibility, and fly an altitude at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet laterally from clouds. e. Class E. Class E Airspace If the airspace is not Class A, B, C, or D, and is controlled airspace, then it is Class E airspace. Class E airspace extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. When designated as a surface area, the airspace is configured to contain all instrument procedures. Also in this class are federal airways, airspace beginning at either 700 or 1,200 feet above ground level (AGL) used to transition to and from the terminal or en route environment, and en route domestic and offshore airspace areas designated below 18,000 feet MSL. Unless designated at a lower altitude, Class E airspace begins at 14,500 MSL over the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace above FL 600.

f. Class G. Class G Airspace Uncontrolled airspace or Class G airspace is the portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E. It is therefore designated uncontrolled airspace. Class G airspace extends from the surface to the base of the overlying Class E airspace. Although ATC has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic, pilots should remember there are visual flight rules (VFR) minimums which apply to Class G airspace. 3. Special use airspace and other airspace areas. Special Use Airspace Special use airspace or special area of operation (SAO) is the designation for airspace in which certain activities must be confined, or where limitations may be imposed on aircraft operations that are not part of those activities. Certain special use airspace areas can create limitations on the mixed use of airspace. The special use airspace depicted on instrument charts includes the area name or number, effective altitude, time and weather conditions of operation, the controlling agency, and the chart panel location. On National Aeronautical Charting Group (NACG) en route charts, this information is available on one of the end panels. Special use airspace usually consists of: ‡ Prohibited areas ‡ Restricted areas ‡ Warning areas ‡ Military operation areas (MOAs) ‡ Alert areas ‡ Controlled firing areas (CFAs) Prohibited Areas Prohibited areas contain airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare. These areas are published in the Federal Register and are depicted on aeronautical charts. The area is charted as a ³P´ followed by a number (e.g., P-49). Examples of prohibited areas include Camp David and the National Mall in Washington, D.C., where the White House and the Congressional buildings are located. Restricted Areas Restricted areas are areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Activities within these areas must be confined because of their nature, or limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or both. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft (e.g., artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles). IFR flights may be authorized to transit the airspace and are routed accordingly. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants. ATC facilities apply the following procedures when aircraft are operating on an IFR clearance (including those cleared by ATC to maintain VFR on top) via a route which lies within joint-use restricted airspace:

1. If the restricted area is not active and has been released to the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), the ATC facility allows the aircraft to operate in the restricted airspace without issuing specific clearance for it to do so. 2. If the restricted area is active and has not been released to the FAA, the ATC facility issues a clearance which ensures the aircraft avoids the restricted airspace. Restricted areas are charted with an ³R´ followed by a number (e.g., R-4401) and are depicted on the en route chart appropriate for use at the altitude or FL being flown.Restricted area information can be obtained on the back of the chart. Warning Areas Warning areas are similar in nature to restricted areas; however, the United States government does not have sole jurisdiction over the airspace. A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 12 NM outward from the coast of the United States, containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such areas is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both. The airspace is designated with a ³W´ followed by a number (e.g., W-237). ÷ilitary Operation Areas (÷OAs) MOAs consist of airspace with defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Whenever an MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through an MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC. Otherwise, ATC reroutes or restricts nonparticipating IFR traffic. MOAs are depicted on sectional, VFR terminal area, and en route low altitude charts and are not numbered (e.g., ³Camden Ridge MOA´). However, the MOA is also further defined on the back of the sectional charts with times of operation, altitudes affected, and the controlling agency. Alert Areas Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts with an ³A´ followed by a number (e.g., A-211) to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. All activity within an alert area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots transiting the area, shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance. Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs) CFAs contain activities, which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The difference between CFAs and other special use airspace is that activities must be suspended when a spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout position indicates an aircraft might be approaching the area. There is no need to chart CFAs since they do not cause a nonparticipating aircraft to change its flight path.

Other Airspace Areas ³Other airspace areas´ is a general term referring to the majority of the remaining airspace. It includes:

‡ Local airport advisory ‡ Military training route (MTR) ‡ Temporary flight restriction (TFR) ‡ Parachute jump aircraft operations ‡ Published VFR routes ‡ Terminal radar service area (TRSA) ‡ National security area (NSA) Local Airport Advisory (LAA) A service provided by facilities, which are located on the landing airport, have a discrete groundto-air communication frequency or the tower frequency when the tower is closed, automated weather reporting with voice broadcasting, and a continuous ASOS/AWOS data display, other continuous direct reading instruments, or manual observations available to the specialist. ÷ilitary Vraining Routes (÷VRs) MTRs are routes used by military aircraft to maintain proficiency in tactical flying. These routes are usually established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. Some route segments may be defined at higher altitudes for purposes of route continuity. Routes are identified as IFR (IR), and VFR (VR), followed by a number.MTRs with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by four number characters (e.g., IR1206, VR1207). MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by three number characters (e.g., IR206, VR207). IFR low altitude en route charts depict all IR routes and all VR routes that accommodate operations above 1,500 feet AGL. IR routes are conducted in accordance with IFR regardless of weather conditions. VFR sectional charts depict military training activities such as IR, VR, MOA, restricted area, warning area, and alert area information. Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations Parachute jump aircraft operations are published in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD). Sites that are used frequently are depicted on sectional charts. Published *FR Routes Published VFR routes are for transitioning around, under, or through some complex airspace. Terms such as VFR flyway, VFR corridor, Class B airspace VFR transition route, and terminal area VFR route have been applied to such routes. These routes are generally found on VFR terminal area planning charts. Verminal Radar Service Areas (VRSAs) TRSAs are areas where participating pilots can receive additional radar services. The purpose of the service is to provide separation between all IFR operations and participating VFR aircraft. The primary airport(s) within the TRSA become(s) Class D airspace. The remaining portion of the TRSA overlies other controlled airspace, which is normally Class E airspace beginning at 700 or 1,200 feet and established to transition to/from the en route/terminal environment. TRSAs are depicted on VFR sectional charts and terminal area charts with a solid black line and altitudes for each segment. The Class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line. Participation in TRSA services is voluntary; however, pilots operating under VFR are encouraged to contact the radar approach control and take advantage of TRSA service.

National Security Areas (NSAs) NSAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 99 and prohibitions are disseminated via NOTAM. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through these depicted areas. 4. Temporary flight restrictions (TFRs). Vemporary Flight Restrictions (VFR) A flight data center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) is issued to designate a TFR. The NOTAM begins with the phrase ³FLIGHT RESTRICTIONS´ followed by the location of the temporary restriction, effective time period, area defined in statute miles, and altitudes affected. The NOTAM also contains the FAA coordination facility and telephone number, the reason for the restriction, and any other information deemed appropriate. The pilot should check the NOTAMs as part of flight planning. Some of the purposes for establishing a TFR are: ‡ Protect persons and property in the air or on the surface from an existing or imminent hazard. ‡ Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft. ‡ Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft above an incident or event, which may generate a high degree of public interest. ‡ Protect declared national disasters for humanitarian reasons in the State of Hawaii. ‡ Protect the President, Vice President, or other public figures. ‡ Provide a safe environment for space agency operations. Since the events of September 11, 2001, the use of TFRs has become much more common. There have been a number of incidents of aircraft incursions into TFRs, which have resulted in pilots undergoing security investigations and certificate suspensions. It is a pilot¶s responsibility to be aware of TFRs in their proposed area of flight. One way to check is to visit the FAA website, www.tfr.faa.gov, and verify that there is not a TFR in the area.


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REFERENCES: 14 CFR part 61; AC 61-65, AC 61-98. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to logbook entries and certificate endorsements by describing: 1. Required logbook entries for instruction given. Sec. 61. 1 ² Pilot logbooks. (a) V


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 Each person must document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the Administrator: (1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review of this part.

(2) The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements of this part. (b) a"'""(
 For the purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, each person must enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged: (1) General² (i) Date. (ii) Total flight time or lesson time. (iii) Location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for lessons in a flight simulator or flight training device, the location where the lesson occurred. (iv) Type and identification of aircraft, flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, as appropriate. (v) The name of a safety pilot, if required by §91.109(b) of this chapter. (2) Type of pilot experience or training² (i) Solo. (ii) Pilot in command. (iii) Second in command. (iv) Flight and ground training received from an authorized instructor. (v) Training received in a flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device from an authorized instructor. (3) Conditions of flight² (i) Day or night. (ii) Actual instrument. (iii) Simulated instrument conditions in flight, a flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device. (iv) Use of night vision goggles in an aircraft in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device. (c) a"
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% The pilot time described in this section may be used to:

(1) Apply for a certificate or rating issued under this part or a privilege authorized under this part; or (2) Satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of this part. 2. Required student pilot certificate endorsements, including appropriate logbook entries. SEE ENDORSE÷ENV GUcDE 3. Preparation of a recommendation for a pilot practical test, including appropriate logbook entry. 4. Required endorsement of a pilot logbook for the satisfactory completion of an FAA flight review. The endorsement should read similar to the following: c
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REFERENCES: 14 CFR parts 43, 61, 67, 91; FAA-H-8083-21, FAA-H-8083-25; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to certificates and documents by describing:

1. Requirements for the issuance of pilot and flight instructor certificates and ratings, and the privileges and limitations of those certificates and ratings. Private Pilot FAR 61. Subpart E, 102- 117. FAR 61.113: Private Pilot Privileges and Limitations. FAR 61 Subpart H, 181-200 Flight Instructor FAR 61-195 Flight instructor Limitations and Qualifications 2. Medical certificates, class, duration, and how to obtain them. cf you hold And on the date of And you are examination for your conducting an most recent medical operation requiring certificate you were (i) A first-class medical certificate.

Vhen your medical certificate expires, for that operation, at the end of the last day of the (A) Under age 40 ....... an airline transport pilot 12th month after the certificate .................. month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate. (B) Age 40 or older .... an airline transport pilot 6th month after the certificate .................. month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate. (C) Any age ................ a commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate.

12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(D) Under age 40 ....... a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver¶s license as medical qualification).

60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(E) Age 40 or older .... a recreational pilot 24th month after the certificate, a private month of the date of pilot certificate, a flight examination shown on

instructor certificate the medical certificate. (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver¶s license as medical qualification). (ii) A second-class medical certificate.

(A) Any age ................ a commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate.

12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(B) Under age 40 .......

a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver¶s license as medical qualification).

60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(C) Age 40 or older .... a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver¶s

24th month after the month of the date of exmination shown on the medical certificate.

license as medical qualification). (iii) A third-class medical certificate.

(A) Under age 40 ....... a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver¶s license as medical qualification).

60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(B) Age 40 or older .... a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver¶s license as medical qualification).

24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

3. Airworthiness and registration certificates. FAR. 91.203 ² Civil aircraft: Certifications required. (a) Except as provided in §91.715, no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following: (1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. Each U.S. airworthiness certificate used to comply with this subparagraph (except a special flight permit, a copy of the applicable operations specifications issued under §21.197(c) of this chapter, appropriate sections of the air carrier manual required by parts 121 and 135 of this chapter containing that portion of the operations specifications issued under §21.197(c), or an authorization under §91.611) must have

on it the registration number assigned to the aircraft under part 47 of this chapter. However, the airworthiness certificate need not have on it an assigned special identification number before 10 days after that number is first affixed to the aircraft. A revised airworthiness certificate having on it an assigned special identification number that has been affixed to an aircraft, may only be obtained upon application to an FAA Flight Standards district office. (2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner or, for operation within the United States, the second duplicate copy (pink) of the Aircraft Registration Application as provided for in §47.31(b), or a registration certificate issued under the laws of a foreign country. (b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by paragraph (a) of this section or a special flight authorization issued under §91.715 is displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew. (c) No person may operate an aircraft with a fuel tank installed within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment unless the installation was accomplished pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, and a copy of FAA Form 337 authorizing that installation is on board the aircraft. (d) No person may operate a civil airplane (domestic or foreign) into or out of an airport in the United States unless it complies with the fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements of part 34 of this chapter. 4. Helicopter handbooks and manuals.

5. Helicopter maintenance requirements and records. cnspections or ÷aintenance Performed by the ÷echanic. 1.  0/100-Hour cnspections. 2. Annual cnspection. An annual inspection is required once every 12 calendar months. This inspection is identical to the 100-hour inspection in scope and detail, but must be performed by a licensed Airframe and Powerplant (A&P) mechanic with Inspection Authorization (IA). This inspection shall not be over flown. 3. Approved Aircraft cnspection Program (AAcP). In lieu of 100-hour/annual inspections, phase inspections may be authorized by an operator¶s maintenance program. Phase inspections can normally be accomplished in a very short period of time, since only a portion of the aircraft is inspected at each phase. (FAR 135.419) 4. Vime/Calendar Life cnspections. Various engine and airframe components require hourly or calendar inspections or replacement. These inspections will normally be performed in conjunction with other inspections. These inspections shall not be over flown unless the operator has an FAA-approved extension from the manufacturer.

5. Airworthiness Directives and Service Bulletin Compliance. Special inspections may be required by the FAA or by the manufacturer. These inspections must be accomplished within the time frames indicated in the directive or bulletin. The operator is required to provide a compliance list at the designated base. +

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REFERENCES: AC 00-6, AC 00-45, AC 61-84; FAA-H-8083-25; AIM. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to weather information by describing: 1. Importance of a thorough weather check. 1. It¶s not only important it¶s the law: FAR 91.103, Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. ..To include, weather reports and forecasts´ 2. Obtaining a weather check is the first step in determining if a flight can be conducted 3. If you are aware of the current conditions and forecasts you are prepared for adverse weather and able to have a predetermined plan of action 2. Various sources for obtaining weather information. 1. Start by getting the big picture of the general, overall weather pattern 3 to 4 days before the flight - Local news weather, weather channel, internet WX sites 2. Day of the flight get a more route specific briefing - 1800 WX BRIEF · Flight Service Station (FSS ± Briefer or TIBS) · Direct User Access Terminal System (DUATS) · National Weather Service (NWS) · Private sources (Jeppesen, weatherTAP) 3. En Route · Flight Service Station (FSS) · En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) - 122.0 · Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) · Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) 3. Use of weather reports, forecasts, and charts.  1. ÷EVAR ± Aviation Routine Weather Report METAR KMYF 090453Z 00000KT 10SM OVC013 17/13 A3000 RMK AO2 SLP157 T01670133 · Scheduled hourly, routine weather observation for an airport · SPECI is a special, unscheduled updated METAR · Following the type of report are the elements: a. Four-letter ICAO station identifier - K÷YF

b. Date and time of the report (UTC) ± 0904 3Z c. Wind direction/speed ± 26009KV, 26012G21KV, *RB04KV, 00000KV d. Visibility ± 10S÷, 11/2S÷, R28R/1200FV e. Weather Phenomena c
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*: · Intensity - º, · Descriptor ± VS, SH, FZ, · Precipitation ± RA, SN, GR · Obstructions to Visibility ± HZ, BR, FG f. Sky conditions amount/height/type or vert vis · SKC ± Clear skies · FEW2 0 ± Less than 1/8 of the sky contains clouds · SCV1 0 ± 1/8 to ½ of the sky contains clouds · BKN0
0 - ½ to 7/8 of the sky contains clouds · O*C006 ± All the sky contains clouds · Cloud types CU (Towering cumulous/cumulonimbus) -BKN0
0CB · Vertical Visibility ± **006 g. Temperature/dew point in °C ± 1
/13, 01/÷0  h. Altimeter setting ± A2992 i. Remarks: Operationally significant weather, beginning/ending times of certain weather phenomena, and low-level wind shear ± R÷K RAB2 RAE4  Radar Weather Report OKC 1753 LN 8TRW++/+ 86/40 164/60 199/115 15W L2425 MT 570 AT 159/65 2 INCH HAIL RPRTD THIS CELL · Most radar stations report each hour · Good for observing general areas of precipitation and thunderstorms · Report includes: a. Location identifier and time ± OKC 1
 3 b. Echo Pattern ± LN (FcNE LN, AREA, CELL) c. Coverage in tenths ± 8 d. Intensity/intensity trend - ºº/º (- Light, º Heavy, ºº *ery Heavy, X cntense, XX Extreme)/(º cncreasing, - Decreasing, NC No Change, NEW Echo) e. Radial and distance from the station - 86/40 164/60 199/11  f. Dimension of the echo pattern - 1 W g. Pattern Movement - L242  (Line ÷oving from 240 at 2 Kts) h. Maximum top and location - ÷V  
0 AV 1 9/6  i. Remarks - 2 cNCH HAcL RPRVD VHcS CELL 4. Satellite Weather Pictures · Show actual position of clouds and movement · Visible imagery or Infra-red imagery · Type of clouds, temperature of the cloud tops, thickness of cloud layers p   VAF ± Verminal Aerodrome Forecast

TAF AMD KSAN 090154Z 090224 28009KT P6SM BKN012 FM0400 29005KT P6SM BKN010 FM0900 VRB03KT P6SM OVC009 FM1600 22005KT P6SM SCT015 FM2000 28011KT P6SM SKC · Scheduled four times daily and each good for 24 hour period · Uses the same code as the METAR reports with a few additions · TAF¶s are either routine (VAF), or amended (VAF A÷D) · Following the type of report are the elements: a. Four-letter ICAO station identifier ± VAF A÷D KSAN b. Issuance date and time - 0901 4Z c. Valid period ± 090224 d. Forecast ± â
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* · Intensity - º, · Descriptor ± VS, SH, FZ, · Precipitation ± RA, SN, GR · Obstructions to Visibility ± HZ, BR, FG e. Probability Forecast ± PROB40 f. Temporary Conditions, lasts for less than an hour ± VE÷PO g. Forecast Change Groups, significant permanent change - F÷0400, BEC÷G 060


FA ± Aviation Area Forecast Forecast of general weather conditions over an area the size of several states · Issued 3 times a day · FA contains four sections: Communications and product header, Precautionary statement section, a synopsis weather section and a VFR and Clouds weather section a. Communications and product header: · Issuing office - SFOC FA · Date and time - 10024  · valid times - SYNOPScS *ALcD UNVcL 102100 CLDS/WX *ALcD UNVcL 101 00...OVLK *ALcD 101 00-102100 · Coverage area - WA OR CA AND CSVL WVRS b. Precautionary statement section · Included in all FA¶s · There to remind you to check for IFR conditions, SEE AcR÷EV ScERRA FOR cFR CONDS AND ÷VN OBSCN, thunderstorm hazards, VS c÷PLY SE* OR GVR VURB SE* cCE LLWS AND cFR CONDS, and heights in the report are MSL, NON ÷SL HGVS DENOVED BY AGL OR CcG. c. Synopsis weather section

· Brief summary of the location and movement of fronts, pressure systems, and circulation patterns · Valid for an 18 hour period SYNOPScS...ALF..÷OD/SVG WLY FLOW ACRS RGN. SVG VROF SRN BC CSVL WVRS-40/130 ÷O*G EWD VO SRN AB-CNVRL cD-NRN CA-CNVRL CA CSVL WVRS BY 21Z. SFC..CDFNV LOW N CNVRL WA-SWRN cD-OAL-RZS-30/130. VROF SERN N*BZA. BY 1 Z CDFNV CNVRL UV-LOW SRN N*. DScPVG CDFNV SRN CA AND SRN CA CSVL WVRS. VROF SRN N*-BZA. VROF LOW SRN *RcSL-NWRN OR CSVL WVRS-41/140. ...HcRV... d. VFR and Clouds weather section · General description of clouds and weather for a specific geographical area within the forecast area · Contains a 12-hour specific forecast: SRN CA..*BG-NcD-60NNW BcH LN SWD CSVL SXNS... LAX SWD...BKN-SCV01  VOP 02 . 06Z O*C010. OVLK...÷*FR CcG. LAX NWD...SKC. OCNL SCV010 CSVLN. 12Z OCNL SCV010 *cS  S÷ BR · Followed by a 6 hour categorical outlook: VHRUV. OVLK...*FR. FD ± Winds and Vemperatures Aloft Forecast ******** FD Winds Aloft Forecast ******** DATA BASED ON 141200Z VALID 150000Z FOR USE 2100-0600Z. TEMPS NEG ABV 24000 FT 3000 6000 9000 12000 18000 24000 30000 34000 39000 SAN 2915 2515+15 2323+11 2332+06 2250-11 2259-23 236339 247049 257759 ONT 2714 2516+13 2324+09 2335+04 2359-11 2272-24 237640 248049 258560 · Forecasts are made twice daily, each valid for 12 hours · No winds are forecast within 1500 feet of station elevation · No temperatures are forecast for the 3000 foot level, or any level within 3000 feet of station elevation · For each altitude: wind direction is true, speed is knots, temperature is °C · 2 1 º1  ± Wind 250 at 15 knots, temperature 15 °C · If the coded direction is more than 36 than the wind speed is 100 knots or more · 731960 - (Subtract 50 to get direction at 100 to the speed) Wind 230 at 119 knots, temperature -60°C CWA ± Center Weather Advisory · Unscheduled flow control, air traffic advisory · Used to anticipate and avoid adverse weather conditions in the en route and terminal areas · Valid for two hours AC ± Convective Outlook · Describes the prospects for general thunderstorm activity for the next 24 hours · Also areas in which there is a high, moderate or slight risk of severe thunderstorms

· Severe thunderstorms can be described as: 1. Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots 2. Hail greater than or equal to ¾´ diameter at the surface 3. Tornadoes · Good for 24 hours WW ± Severe Weather Watch Bulletins · Defines areas of possible severe thunderstorms or tornado activity    Surface Analysis Chart · Transmitted every three hours · Shows actual positions of pressure systems and fronts · Gives an overview of winds and temperature/dew points · Use to chart in conjunction with a textual briefing to get a complete visual understanding of the current weather Weather Depiction Chart · Transmitted every three hours · Shows general areas of favorable and adverse weather · Data for the chart come from manual and automated observations · Each station reports: 1. Total sky cover ± Clear Less than 1/10, Scattered 1/10 ± ½, Broken ½ 9/10, Overcast 10/10, Sky obscured 2. Cloud height or ceiling ± Scattered: height of the lowest layer, Broken: ceiling 3. Weather and obstruction to visibility 4. Visibility 5. Areas of IFR, MVFR, and VFR · Chart is good to start off a weather briefing to see what the general weather along the route is like, and where more detailed information will be necessary Radar Summary Chart · Graphically displays a collection of radar weather reports · Regularly scheduled and available between 16 and 24 hours per day · The chart displays the following information: a. Type of precipitation echo: Rain, hail & size b. Intensity: VIP level 1 ± 5 c. Trend: increasing or decreasing d. Configuration: Line or cells e. Coverage: Geographic area f. Echo tops and bases: top of precipitation not cloud top g. Movement: direction and speed · Use the chart to avoid areas of thunderstorms/heavy precipatation US Low-level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart · Four panel chart issued four times a day

· Good for getting a visual picture of the area forecast · Two lower panels are 12 and 24-hour surface progs · They show fronts, high and low pressure systems, areas of forecast precipitation/thunderstorms · Two upper panels are 12 and 24-hour progs of significant weather from the surface to 24000 feet · They depict IFR. MVF, turbulence, and freezing levels Freezing Level Charts · Freezing Level Panel of the Composite Moisture Stability Chart · Depicts overall areas of freezing · Solid lines depict the lowest freezing level for 4000 foot intervals · Dashed line indicated freezing at the surface Stability Charts · Composite Moisture Stability Chart · Available twice daily with valid times of 12Z and 00Z · Lifted Index (LI) ± Compares parcel of air lifted from the surface to 500Mb/hPa 1. Positive Index ± If parcel of air were to be lifted it would be colder than the surrounding air (stable) 2. Negative Index - If parcel of air were to be lifted it would be warmer than the surrounding air (unstable) · K Index (K) ± Primarily for the meteorologist · Examines the temperature moisture profile of the environment Severe Weather Outlook Charts · 48 hour outlook for thunderstorm activity · Issued once a day in the morning · Left panel covers the first 24 hour period beginning at 12Z, depicts areas of possible general thunderstorm activity as well as severe thunderstorms · Right panel covers the following day beginning at 12Z and is an outlook for areas of possible severe thunderstorms only · Good for advanced planning to identify possible areas of thunderstorm activity Constant Pressure Charts · Upper air weather maps · Issued twice daily 12Z and 00Z · Six charts for the 850, 700, 500, 300, 250, and 250 Mb/hPa · Good for checking the approximate weather at different altitudes · Estimated cloud tops NOVA÷ ± Notice to Airmen · NOTAM¶s are time critical aeronautical information that is either temporary or not known enough in advance to publish on charts · NOTAM information could affect the decision to make a flight

· Three types of NOTAM¶s, D, L, FDC 1. NOTAM (D) distant · Airport or primary runway closures, changes in the status of navaids, ILS¶s radar service availability, and other info essential to en-route, terminal or landing operations · Attached to hourly surface aviation observation weather reports · Good for as long as they are published 2. NOTAM (L) Local · Taxiway closures, personnel and equipment near or on runways, airport lighting outages not affecting the IAP · Distributed only locally through the ATIS or FSS 3. NOTAM (FDC) · Regulatory in nature · Amendments to published IAP¶s and other aeronautical charts. - Also flight restrictions due to natural disasters or large scale public events · Available by DUATS or FSS only if requested 4. Use of PIREPs, SIGMETs, and AIRMETs. PcREP ± Pilot Weather Reports UA · Important to get as well as give UA /OV JLI /TM 0612 /FL080 /TP 727 / SK 085 BKN 155 /TA 06 /WV 270025 /TB NEG /IC LGTMOD RIME 085 155 · Mandatory Elements: a. Location: airport, navaid/radials, fix - /O* JLc b. Time (UTC) - /V÷ 0612 c. Altitude/Flight Level - /FL080 d. Aircraft Type - /VP
2
· Optional Elements: a. Sky Cover - /SK O*C013-VOP016 08  BKN 1   b. Flight Visibility and Weather - /WX RA c. Temperature - /VA 06 d. Wind - /W* 2
002  e. Turbulence - /VB NEG, LGV, ÷OD f. Icing - /cC LGV-÷OD Rc÷E 08  1   g. Remarks - /R÷ WA ± AcR÷EV AIRMET TURB...CA FROM 70WSW OED TO 40S LKV TO FMG TO EED TO BZA TO 40SW EHF TO OAK TO FOT TO 70WSW OED OCNL MOD TURB BLW 160 DUE TO GUSTY LOW LVL WNDS AND UPR LOW. CONDS CONTG BYD 02Z THRU 08Z. · Advisories of significant weather but with lower intensities than SIGMETS · Weather that is hazardous to mainly light aircraft (VFR Private Pilots) · AIRMETS are issued on scheduled basis every 6 hours and good for 6 hours · AIRMETS are issued for the following:

1. Moderate icing 2. Moderate turbulence 3. Sustained surface winds of 30 knots or more 4. Ceiling less than 1000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles affecting over 50 percent of the area 5. Excessive mountain obscuration ScG÷EV · SIGMET advises of non-convective weather that is hazardous to all aircraft · SIGMETs are issued for the following: 1. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms 2. Severe or extreme turbulence (Clear air turbulence) not associated with TS¶s 3. Dust-storms, sand storms, or volcanic ash lowering surface or in-flight visibility to below three miles 4. Volcanic eruption · A SIGMET is valid for up to four hours CON*ECVc*E ScG÷EV · Convective SIGMETs are issued for any of the following: 1. Severe thunderstorms due to: · Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots · Hail at the surface greater than or equal to ¾´ diameter · Tornadoes 2. Embedded thunderstorms 3. A line of thunderstorms 4. Thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP 4 affecting 40% or more of a 3000 square mile area · Any convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, icing, and low level wind shear · Hazardous to all types of aircraft · Each forecast is valid for up to two hours 5. Recognition of aviation weather hazards to include wind shear. Recognition of aviation weather hazards to include wind shear · Check AcR÷EVs for: icing, moderate turbulence, heavy surface winds low visibility and mountain obscuration · Check ScG÷EVs for: Severe icing, Severe or extreme turbulence (Clear air) · Check Convective ScG÷EVs for: Severe, Embedded, or lines of thunderstorms. Also severe or greater turbulence, icing, and low-level wind shear · Check Aviation Area Forecast for general areas of poor weather and areas of IFR and MVFR conditions 6. Factors to be considered in making a ³go/no-go´ decision. · According to the 1999 Nall Report, weather-related accidents accounted for about 22 percent of all fatal pilot-related accidents.

· Weather does not cause accidents ± pilot judgment does. · Use all available information and be conservative. · Know the limitations of yourself and the aircraft you fly. · Take PIREPS seriously and note the aircraft type. · Check METAR¶s and TAF¶s en-route as well. · If the weather shows a deteriorating trend seriously consider the need to make the flight at all. · Set your personal limitations well above the minimums prescribed by the FAA.


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to operation of systems, as applicable to the helicopter used for the practical test, by describing: 1. Powerplant, including controls, indicators, cooling, and fire detection. The R22 uses a horizontally mounted Lycoming O-360-J2A on the Beta II, four-cylinder, aircooled, normally-aspirated, carburetor-equipped piston engine. 2. Main rotor system. The helicopter rotor system consists of a two-bladed main rotor and two-bladed anti-torque rotor on the tail, each equipped with a teetering hinge. The main rotor is equipped with two coning hinges. 3. Anti-torque system. The R-22 is a single-engine helicopter with a semi-rigid two-bladed main rotor and a two-bladed tail rotor. The main rotor provides a teetering hinge and two coning hinges. The tail rotor provides only a teetering hinge. 4. Landing gear, brakes, and steering system. Collective and cyclic pitch inputs to the main rotor are transmitted through pushrods and a conventional swashplate mechanism. Control inputs to the tail rotor are transmitted through a single pushrod inside the aluminum tail cone. 5. Fuel, oil, and hydraulic systems. The fuel system is gravity flow (no pumps) and includes fuel tanks, as hut off valve located in the cabin behind the left seat and a strainer (gascolator.) The tank air vent is located inside the mast fairing. The aux tank is inter connected with the main tank so that fuel flow is controlled by one valve. 6. Electrical system. The electrical system includes a 14 volt, 60 ampere, alternator, voltage controller, battery relay, and a 12 volt, 25 amp battery. Breakers are on the ledge in front of the left seat and are marked to indicate function and amperage and are of the push to reset type. 7. Environmental system.

8. Pitot static/vacuum system and associated instruments. PcVOV-SVAVcC cNSVRU÷ENVS The pitot-static instruments, which include the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator, operate on the principle of differential air pressure. Pitot pressure, also called impact, ram, or dynamic pressure, is directed only to the airspeed indicator, while static pressure, or ambient pressure, is directed to all three instruments. An alternate static source may be included allowing you to select an alternate source of ambient pressure in the event the main port becomes blocked. AcRSPEED cNDcCAVOR The airspeed indicator displays the speed of the helicopter through the air by comparing ram air pressure from the pitot tube with static air pressure from the static port²the greater the differential, the greater the speed. The instrument displays the result of this pressure differential as indicated airspeed ALVc÷EVER The altimeter displays altitude in feet by sensing pressure changes in the atmosphere. There is an adjustable barometric scale to compensate for changes in atmospheric pressure. The main component of the altimeter is a stack of sealed aneroid wafers. They expand and contract as atmospheric pressure from the static source changes. The mechanical linkage translates these changes into pointer movements on the indicator. *ERVcCAL SPEED cNDcCAVOR The vertical speed indicator (VSI) displays the rate of climb or descent in feet per minute (f.p.m.) by measuring how fast the ambient air pressure increases or decreases as the helicopter changes altitude. Since the VSI measures only the rate at which air pressure changes, air temperature has no effect on this instrument. Although the sealed case and diaphragm are both connected to the static port, the air inside the case is restricted through a calibrated leak. When the pressures are equal, the needle reads zero. As you climb or descend, the pressure inside the diaphragm instantly changes, and the needle registers a change in vertical direction. When the pressure differential stabilizes at a definite ratio, the needle registers the rate of altitude change. There is a lag associated with the reading on the VSI, and it may take a few seconds to stabilize when showing rate of climb or descent. 9. Anti-icing systems. 10. Avionics equipment.

  

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REFERENCES: AC 61-84, FAA-H-8083-1, FAA-H-8083-21; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to performance and limitations by describing:

1. Determination of weight and balance condition. BALANCE Helicopter performance is not only affected by gross weight, but also by the position of that weight. It is essential to load the aircraft within the allowable center of- gravity range specified in the rotorcraft flight manual¶s weight and balance limitations. 2. Use of performance charts and other data for determining performance in various phases of flight. Density Altitude²Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. Standard Atmosphere²At sea level, the standard atmosphere consists of a barometric pressure of 29.92 inches of mercury (in. Hg.) or 1013.2 millibars, and a temperature of 15°C (59°F). Pressure and temperature normally decrease as altitude increases. The standard lapse rate in the lower atmosphere for each 1,000 feet of altitude is approximately 1 in. Hg. and 2°C (3.5°F). For example, the standard pressure and temperature at 3,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) is 26.92 in. Hg. (29.92 ± 3) and 9°C (15°C ± 6°C). Pressure Altitude²The height above the standard pressure level of 29.92 in. Hg. It is obtained by setting 29.92 in the barometric pressure window and reading the altimeter. Vrue Altitude²The actual height of an object above mean sea level.


PERFOR÷ANCE CHARVS In developing performance charts, aircraft manufacturers make certain assumptions about the condition of the helicopter and the ability of the pilot. It is assumed that the helicopter is in good operating condition and the engine is developing its rated power. The pilot is assumed to be following normal operating procedures and to have average flying abilities. HO*ERcNG PERFOR÷ANCE Helicopter performance revolves around whether or not the helicopter can be hovered. More power is required during the hover than in any other flight regime. Obstructions aside, if a hover can be maintained, a takeoff can be made, especially with the additional benefit of translational lift. Hover charts are provided for in ground effect (cGE) hover and out of ground effect (OGE) hover under various conditions of gross weight, altitude, temperature, and power. 3. Effects of density altitude and other atmospheric conditions on performance. In combination, high and hot, a situation exists that can well be disastrous for an unsuspecting, or more accurately, an uninformed pilot. The combination of high temperature and high elevation produces a situation that aerodynamically reduces drastically the performance of the rotor blades. The horsepower out-put of the engines decrease because its fuel-air mixture is reduced. The blades develop less thrust because the blades, as airfoils, are less efficient in the thin air. Less lift is developed because the thin air exerts less force on the airfoils. Therefore, climb performance is substantially reduced and may, in extreme situations, be non-existent. 4. Factors to be considered when operating within ³avoid´ areas of the height/velocity diagram. HEcGHV/*ELOCcVY DcAGRA÷ A height/velocity (H/V) diagram, published by the manufacturer for each model of helicopter, depicts the critical combinations of airspeed and altitude should an engine failure occur.

Operating at the altitudes and airspeeds shown within the crosshatched or shaded areas of the H/V diagram may not allow enough time for the critical transition from powered flight to autorotation. During a climb, a helicopter is operating at higher power settings and blade angle of attack. An engine failure at this point causes a rapid rotor r.p.m. decay because the upward movement of the helicopter must be stopped, then a descent established in order to drive the rotor. Time is also needed to stabilize, then increase the r.p.m. to the normal operating range. The rate of descent must reach a value that is normal for the airspeed at the moment. Since altitude is insufficient for this sequence, you end up with decaying r.p.m., an increasing sink rate, no deceleration lift, little translational lift, and little response to the application of collective pitch to cushion the landing. 5. Conditions that may cause loss of tail rotor effectiveness/ unanticipated loss of directional control. LTE is not related to an equipment or maintenance malfunction and may occur in all single-rotor helicopters at airspeeds less than 30 knots. It is the result of the tail rotor not providing adequate thrust to maintain directional control, and is usually caused by either certain wind azimuths (directions) while hovering, or by an insufficient tail rotor thrust for a given power setting at higher altitudes. ÷AcN ROVOR DcSC cNVERFERENCE (28 -31 ) Refer to figure 11-10. Winds at velocities of 10 to 30 knots from the left front cause the main rotor vortex to be blown into the tail rotor by the relative wind. The effect of this main rotor disc vortex causes the tail rotor to operated in an extremely turbulent environment. During a right turn, the tail rotor experiences a reduction of thrust as it comes into the area of the main rotor disc vortex. WEAVHERCOCK SVABcLcVY (120-240) In this region, the helicopter attempts to weathervane its nose into the relative wind. [Figure 1111] Unless a resisting pedal input is made, the helicopter starts a slow, uncommanded turn either to the right or left depending upon the wind direction. If the pilot allows a right yaw rate to develop and the tail of the helicopter moves into this region, the yaw rate can accelerate rapidly. VAcL ROVOR *ORVEX RcNG SVAVE (210-330) Winds within this region cause a tail rotor vortex ring state to develop. [Figure 11-12] The result is a non-uniform, unsteady flow into the tail rotor. The vortex ring state causes tail rotor thrust variations, which result in yaw deviations. The net effect of the unsteady flow is an oscillation of tail rotor thrust. Rapid and continuous pedal movements are necessary to compensate for the rapid changes in tail rotor thrust when hovering in a left crosswind. LVE AV ALVcVUDE At higher altitudes, where the air is thinner, tail rotor thrust and efficiency is reduced. When operating at high altitudes and high gross weights, especially while hovering, the tail rotor thrust may not be sufficient to maintain directional control and LTE can occur. In this case, the

hovering ceiling is limited by tail rotor thrust and not necessarily power available. In these conditions gross weights need to be reduced and/or operations need to be limited to lower density altitudes. REDUCcNG VHE ONSEV OF LVE To help reduce the onset of loss of tail rotor effectiveness, there are some steps you can follow. 1. Maintain maximum power-on rotor r.p.m. If the main rotor r.p.m. is allowed to decrease, the antitorque thrust available is decreased proportionally. 2. Avoid tailwinds below an airspeed of 30 knots. If loss of translational lift occurs, it results in an increased power demand and additional antitorque pressures. 3. Avoid out of ground effect (OGE) operations and high power demand situations below an airspeed of 30 knots. 4. Be especially aware of wind direction and velocity when hovering in winds of about 8-12 knots. There are no strong indicators that translational lift has been reduced. A loss of translational lift results in an unexpected high power demand and an increased antitorque requirement. 5. Be aware that if a considerable amount of left pedal is being maintained, a sufficient amount of left pedal may not be available to counteract an unanticipated right yaw. 6. Be alert to changing wind conditions, which may be experienced when flying along ridge lines and around buildings. 6. Other factors to be considered in determining that required performance is within the helicopter's capabilities. ALVcVUDE As altitude increases, the air becomes thinner or less dense. This is because the atmospheric pressure acting on a given volume of air is less, allowing the air molecules to move further apart. Dense air contains more air molecules spaced closely together, while thin air contains less air molecules because they are spaced further apart. As altitude increases, density altitude increases. VE÷PERAVURE Temperature changes have a large affect on density altitude. As warm air expands, the air molecules move further apart, creating less dense air. Since cool air contracts, the air molecules move closer together, creating denser air. High temperatures cause even low elevations to have high density altitudes. ÷OcSVURE (HU÷cDcVY) The water content of the air also changes air density because water vapor weighs less than dry air. Therefore, as the water content of the air increases, the air becomes less dense, increasing density altitude and decreasing performance. Humidity, also called ³relative humidity,´ refers to the amount of water vapor contained in the atmosphere, and is expressed as a percentage of the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold. This amount varies with temperature; warm air can hold more water vapor, while colder air can hold less. Perfectly dry air that contains no water vapor has a relative humidity of 0 percent, while saturated air that cannot hold any more water vapor, has a relative humidity of 100 percent. Humidity alone is usually not considered an important factor in calculating density altitude and helicopter performance; however, it does

contribute. There are no rules-of-thumb or charts used to compute the effects of humidity on density altitude, so you need to take this into consideration by expecting a decrease in hovering and takeoff performance in high humidity conditions. HcGH AND LOW DENScVY ALVcVUDE CONDcVcONS You need to thoroughly understand the terms ³high density altitude´ and ³low density altitude.´ In general, high density altitude refers to thin air, while low density altitude refers to dense air. Those conditions that result in a high density altitude (thin air) are high elevations, low atmospheric pressure, high temperatures, high humidity, or some combination thereof. Lower elevations, high atmospheric pressure, low temperatures, and low humidity are more indicative of low density altitude (dense air). However, high density altitudes may be present at lower elevations on hot days, so it is important to calculate the density altitude and determine performance before a flight. One of the ways you can determine density altitude is through the use of charts designed for that purpose. WEcGHV Lift is the force that opposes weight. As weight increases, the power required to produce the lift needed to compensate for the added weight must also increase. Most performance charts include weight as one of the variables. By reducing the weight of the helicopter, you may find that you are able to safely take off or land at a location that otherwise would be impossible. However, if you are ever in doubt about whether you can safely perform a takeoff or landing, you should delay your takeoff until more favorable density altitude conditions exist. If airborne, try to land at a location that has more favorable conditions, or one where you can make a landing that does not require a hover. In addition, at higher gross weights, the increased power required to hover produces more torque, which means more antitorque thrust is required. In some helicopters, during high altitude operations, the maximum antitorque produced by the tail rotor during a hover may not be sufficient to overcome torque even if the gross weight is within limits. WcNDS Wind direction and velocity also affect hovering, takeoff, and climb performance. Translational lift occurs anytime there is relative airflow over the rotor disc. This occurs whether the relative airflow is caused by helicopter movement or by the wind. As wind speed increases, translational lift increases, resulting in less power required to hover. The wind direction is also an important consideration. Headwinds are the most desirable as they contribute to the most increase in performance. Strong crosswinds and tailwinds may require the use of more tail rotor thrust to maintain directional control. This increased tail rotor thrust absorbs power from the engine, which means there is less power available to the main rotor for the production of lift. Some helicopters even have a critical wind azimuth or maximum safe relative wind chart. Operating the helicopter beyond these limits could cause loss of tail rotor effectiveness. Takeoff and climb performance is greatly affected by wind. When taking off into a headwind, effective translational lift is achieved earlier, resulting in more lift and a steeper climb angle. When taking off with a tailwind, more distance is required to accelerate through translation lift.
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Examiner shall select at least one maneuver from AREAS OF OPERATION VII through XII, and ask the applicant to present a preflight lesson on the selected maneuver as the lesson would be taught to a student. Previously developed lesson plans from the applicant¶s library may be used. 

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the selected maneuver by: 1. Using a lesson plan that includes all essential items to make an effective and organized presentation. 2. Stating the objective. 3. Giving an accurate, comprehensive oral description of the maneuver, including the elements and associated common errors. 4. Using instructional aids, as appropriate. 5. Describing the recognition, analysis, and correction of common errors. ,


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a preflight inspection, as applicable to the helicopter used for the practical test, by describing² a. reasons for the preflight inspection, items that should be inspected, and how defects are detected. b. importance of using the appropriate checklist. c. removal of control locks, rotor blade tie-down, and wheel chocks, if applicable. d. determination of fuel, oil, and hydraulic fluid quantity, possible contamination and/or leaks. e. inspection of flight controls. f. detection of visible structural damage. g. importance of proper loading and securing of baggage and equipment. h. use of sound judgment in determining whether the helicopter is in condition for safe flight. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a preflight inspection by describing² a. failure to use or improper use of checklist. b. hazards which may result from allowing distractions to interrupt a preflight inspection. c. inability to recognize discrepancies. d. failure to ensure servicing with the proper fuel and oil. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a preflight inspection from an instructional standpoint.

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, AC 91-32; CFR part 91; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-808116; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of crew resource management by describing² a. proper arranging and securing of essential materials and equipment in the cockpit. b. proper use and/or adjustment of such cockpit items as safety belts, shoulder harnesses, anti-torque pedals, and seats. c. occupant briefing on emergency procedures, rotor blade avoidance, and use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses. d. utilization of all available human resources, maintenance personnel, weather briefers, and air traffic control, and other groups routinely working with the pilot who are involved in decisions that are required to operate a flight safely. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to crew resource management by describing² a. failure to place and secure essential materials and equipment for easy access during flight. b. improper adjustment of equipment and controls. c. failure to brief occupants on emergency procedures, rotor blade avoidance, and use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses. d. failure to utilize all available human resources, maintenance personnel, weather briefers, air traffic control, and other groups routinely working with the pilot who are involved in decisions that are required to operate a flight safely. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains crew resource management from an instructional standpoint. 

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21, AC 91-13, AC 91-42; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of engine starting and rotor engagement, as appropriate to the helicopter used for the practical test, by describing² a. safety precautions related to engine starting and rotor engagement. b. proper positioning of helicopter to avoid hazards. c. use of external power. d. effect of atmospheric conditions on engine starting and rotor engagement. e. importance of proper friction adjustment. f. importance of following the appropriate checklist. g. adjustment of engine and flight controls during engine start and rotor engagement. h. prevention of undesirable helicopter movement during and after engine start and rotor engagement. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to engine starting and rotor engagement by describing² a. failure to use or improper use of checklist. b. exceeding starter time limitations.

c. excessive engine RPM and/or temperatures during start. d. failure to ensure adequate main rotor or tail rotor clearance. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains engine starting and rotor engagement from an instructional standpoint.

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of the before takeoff check by describing² a. division of attention inside and outside the cockpit. b. importance of following the checklist and responding to each item. c. reasons for ensuring suitable engine temperatures and pressures for run-up and takeoff. d. method used to determine that the helicopter is in safe operating condition. e. importance of reviewing emergency procedures. f. method used for ensuring that takeoff area or path is free of hazards. g. method used for ensuring adequate clearance from other traffic. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to the before takeoff check by describing² a. failure to use or the improper use of the checklist. b. acceptance of marginal helicopter performance. c. an improper check of controls. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a before takeoff check from an instructional standpoint. å   



  









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The examiner shall select at least one TASK. 

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REFERENCES: AIM; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; 14 CFR part 91. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of radio communications and ATC light signals by describing² a. selection and use of appropriate radio frequencies. b. recommended procedure and phraseology for radio voice communications. c. receipt, acknowledgment of, and compliance with, ATC clearances and other instructions. d. prescribed procedure for radio communications failure. e. interpretation of, and compliance with, ATC light signals. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to radio communications and ATC light signals by describing²

a. use of improper frequencies. b. improper techniques and phraseologies when using radio voice communications. c. failure to acknowledge, or properly comply with, ATC clearances and other instructions. d. use of improper procedures for radio communications failure.   





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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; 14 CFR part 91; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16, AC 90-42, AC 90-48, AC 90-66 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of traffic pattern operations by describing² a. operations at controlled and uncontrolled airports and heliports. b. adherence to traffic pattern procedures, instructions, and appropriate regulations. c. how to maintain appropriate spacing from other traffic. d. how to maintain desired ground track. e. wind shear and wake turbulence. f. orientation with landing area or heliport in use. g. how to establish an approach to the landing area or heliport. h. use of checklist. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to traffic patterns by describing² a. failure to comply with traffic pattern instructions, procedures, and rules. b. improper correction for wind drift. c. inadequate spacing from other traffic. d. improper altitude or airspeed control. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains traffic patterns from an instructional standpoint. å   



  









  

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REFERENCES: AIM; FAA-H-8083-25; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16. AC 150/53401, AC 150/ 5340-18, AC-150/5340-30 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of airport and heliport markings and lighting by describing: 1. Identification and proper interpretation of airport and heliport markings. 2. Identification and proper interpretation of airport and heliport lighting. ,cc


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant:

1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a vertical takeoff and landing by describing² a. how to establish and maintain proper RPM. b. proper position of collective pitch, cyclic, and anti-torque pedals prior to initiating takeoff. c. ascending vertically, at a suitable rate, to the recommended hovering altitude, in headwind, crosswind, and tailwind conditions. d. descending vertically, at a suitable rate, to a selected touchdown point. e. touching down vertically in headwind, crosswind, and tailwind conditions. f. how to maintain desired heading during the maneuver. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a vertical takeoff and landing by describing² a. improper RPM control. b. failure to ascend and descend vertically at a suitable rate. c. failure to recognize and correct undesirable drift. d. improper heading control. e. terminating takeoff at an improper altitude. f. overcontrol of collective pitch, cyclic, or anti-torque pedals. g. failure to reduce collective pitch to the full-down position, smoothly and positively, upon surface contact. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a vertical takeoff and landing from an instructional standpoint. å   



  








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This TASK applies only to helicopters equipped with wheel-type landing gear. REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-808116; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of surface taxi by describing² a. positioning of cyclic and collective to begin forward movement. b. proper use of cyclic, collective, and brakes to control speed while taxiing. c. use of anti-torque pedals to maintain directional control. d. use of brakes during minimum radius turns. e. proper position of tailwheel (if applicable) locked or unlocked. f. positioning of controls to slow and stop helicopter. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to surface taxi by describing² a. improper positioning of cyclic and collective to start and stop movement. b. improper use of brakes. c. hazards of taxiing too fast. d. improper use of anti-torque pedals. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains surface taxi from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to surface taxi. p


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-808116; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of hover taxi by describing² a. how to maintain proper Revolutions Per Minute (RPM). b. maintaining desired ground track and heading. c. how to make precise turns to headings. d. holding recommended hovering altitude. e. appropriate groundspeed. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to hover taxi by describing² a. improper RPM control. b. improper control of heading and track. c. erratic altitude control. d. misuse of flight controls. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains hover taxi from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to hover taxi. p


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-808116; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of air taxi by describing² a. how to maintain proper RPM. b. selection of an altitude and airspeed appropriate for the operation. c. proper use of collective pitch, cyclic, and anti-torque pedals to maintain desired track and groundspeed in headwind and crosswind conditions. d. compensation for wind effect. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to air taxi by describing² a. improper RPM control. b. erratic altitude and airspeed control. c. improper use of collective pitch, cyclic, and anti-torque pedals during operation. d. improper use of controls to compensate for wind effect. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains air taxi from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to air taxi. p


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a slope operation by describing² a. factors to consider in selection of slope. b. planning and performance of a slope operation, considering wind effect, obstacles, and discharging of passengers. c. effect of slope surface texture. d. how to maintain proper RPM. e. control technique during descent to touchdown on a slope. f. use of brakes (if applicable). g. factors that should be considered to avoid dynamic rollover. h. technique during a slope takeoff and departure. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a slope operation by describing² a. improper planning selection of, approach to, or departure from the slope. b. failure to consider wind effects. c. improper RPM control. d. turning tail of the helicopter upslope. e. lowering downslope skid or wheels too rapidly. f. sliding downslope. g. improper use of brakes (if applicable). h. conditions that, if allowed to develop, may result in dynamic rollover. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a slope operation from an instructional standpoint.

4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a slope operation. p 
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The examiner shall select at least one takeoff TASK and one approach TASK. 

 

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a normal and crosswind takeoff and climb by describing² a. consideration of wind conditions. b. factors affecting takeoff and climb performance. c. how to maintain proper RPM. d. how to establish a stationary position on the surface or a stabilized hover, prior to takeoff in headwind and crosswind conditions. e. presence of effective translational lift. f. acceleration to a normal climb. g. climb airspeed and power setting. h. crosswind correction and ground track during climb. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a normal and crosswind takeoff and climb by describing² a. improper RPM control. b. improper use of cyclic, collective pitch, or anti-torque pedals. c. failure to use sufficient power to avoid settling prior to entering effective translational lift. d. improper coordination of attitude and power during initial phase of climb-out. e. failure to establish and maintain climb power and airspeed. f. drift during climb. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a normal or a crosswind takeoff and climb from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a normal or a crosswind takeoff and climb. p


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a maximum performance takeoff and climb by describing² a. importance of considering performance data, to include height/velocity diagram. b. factors related to takeoff and climb performance of the aircraft.

c. how to establish and maintain proper RPM. d. preparatory technique prior to increasing collective pitch to initiate takeoff. e. technique to initiate takeoff and establish a forward climb attitude to clear obstacles f. transition to normal climb power and airspeed. g. crosswind correction and track during climb. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a maximum performance takeoff and climb by describing² a. failure to consider performance data, including height/velocity diagram. b. improper RPM control. c. improper use of cyclic, collective pitch, or anti-torque pedals. d. failure to use the predetermined power setting for establishing attitude and airspeed appropriate to the obstacles to be cleared. e. failure to resume normal climb power and airspeed after obstacle clearance. f. drift during climb. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a maximum performance takeoff and climb from an instructional standpoint. å   



  






   


 
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 REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a rolling takeoff by describing² a. situations where this maneuver is recommended. b. factors related to takeoff and climb performance of the aircraft. c. how to establish and maintain proper RPM. d. preparatory technique prior to initiating takeoff. e. how to initiate forward accelerating movement on the surface. f. indication of reaching effective translational lift. g. transition to a normal climb airspeed and power setting. h. crosswind correction and track during climb. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a rolling takeoff by describing² a. improper RPM control. b. improper use of cyclic, collective pitch, or anti-torque pedals. c. failure to maintain heading and ground track. d. failure to attain effective translational lift prior to attempting transition to flight. e. use of excessive forward cyclic during the surface run. f. settling back to the takeoff surface after becoming airborne. g. excessive altitude prior to attaining climb airspeed. h. failure to establish and maintain climb power and airspeed.

3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a rolling takeoff from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a rolling takeoff. p


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a normal and crosswind approach by describing² a. factors affecting performance. b. how to maintain proper RPM. c. establishment and maintenance of the recommended approach angle and rate of closure. d. coordination of flight controls. e. crosswind correction and ground track. f. loss of effective translational lift. g. how to terminate the approach. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a normal and crosswind approach by describing² a. improper RPM control. b. improper approach angle. c. improper use of cyclic to control rate of closure and collective pitch to control approach angle. d. failure to coordinate pedal corrections with power changes. e. failure to arrive at the termination point at zero groundspeed. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a normal or a crosswind approach from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a normal or a crosswind approach. p


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a steep approach by describing² a. purpose of the maneuver. b. importance of considering performance data, to include height/velocity diagram. c. selection of proper approach angle for obstacle clearance. d. how to maintain proper RPM. e. establishment and maintenance of the appropriate approach angle and rate of closure. f. coordination of flight controls. g. crosswind correction and ground track. h. location where effective translational lift is lost.

i. how to terminate the approach. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a steep approach by describing² a. improper approach angle. b. improper RPM control. c. improper use of cyclic to control rate of closure and collective pitch to control approach angle. d. failure to coordinate pedal corrections with power changes. e. failure to arrive at the termination point at zero groundspeed. f. inability to determine location where effective translational lift is lost. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a steep approach from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a steep approach. p


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a shallow approach and running/roll-on landing by describing² a. purpose of the maneuver. b. effect of landing surface texture. c. factors affecting performance. d. how to maintain proper RPM. e. obstacles and other hazards, which should be considered. f. establishment and maintenance of the recommended approach angle and rate of closure. g. coordination of flight controls. h. crosswind correction and ground track. i. loss of effective translational lift. j. transition from descent to surface contact. k. flight control technique after surface contact. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a shallow approach and running/roll-on landing by describing² a. improper RPM control. b. improper approach angle. c. improper use of cyclic to control rate of closure and collective pitch to control approach angle. d. failure to coordinate pedal corrections with power changes. e. failure to maintain a speed that will take advantage of effective translational lift during the final phase of approach. f. touching down at an excessive groundspeed. g. failure to touch down in appropriate attitude. h. failure to maintain directional control after touchdown.

3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a shallow approach and running/roll-on landing from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a shallow approach and running/roll-on landing. p


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a go-around by describing² a. situations where a go-around is necessary. b. importance of making a timely decision, considering obstacles, loss of translational lift, and engine response time. c. proper use of power throughout maneuver. d. timely and coordinated application of flight controls during transition to climb attitude. e. proper track and obstacle clearance during climb. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a go-around by describing² a. failure to recognize a situation where a go-around is necessary. b. hazards of delaying the decision to go around. c. improper application of flight controls during transition to climb attitude. d. failure to control drift and clear obstacles safely. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a go-around from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a go-around. 



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In a multiengine helicopter maneuvering to a landing, the applicant should follow a procedure that simulates the loss of one powerplant. REFERENCE(S): FAA-H-8083-21; Rotorcraft Flight Manual 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements an approach and landing with simulated powerplant failure.

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2. Exhibits adequate knowledge of maneuvering to a landing with a powerplant inoperative, including the controllability factors associated with maneuvering, and the applicable emergency procedures.


1-32 3. Selects a suitable touchdown point. 4. Maintains, prior to beginning the final approach segment, the desired altitude 10 knots, the desired heading 5° , and 100 feet, the desired airspeed maintains desired track.

5. Establishes the approach and landing configuration appropriate for the runway or landing area, and adjusts the powerplant controls as required. 6. Maintains a normal approach angle and recommended airspeed to the point of transition to touchdown. 7. Terminates the approach in a smooth transition to touchdown. 8. Completes the after-landing checklist items in a timely manner, after clearing the landing area, and as recommended by the manufacturer. 9. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to approach and landing with simulated powerplant failure by describing² a. hazards resulting from not following manufacturer¶s recommended procedures in the event of a powerplant failure. b. failure of the pilot to follow the appropriate checklist. 10. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains approaching and landing procedures with a simulated powerplant failure. 11. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to an approach and landing with simulated powerplant failure.
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The examiner shall select at least one TASK. 

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight-and-level flight by describing² a. effect and use of flight controls. b. the Integrated Flight Instruction method. c. trim technique. d. methods that can be used to overcome tenseness and over controlling. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight-and-level flight by describing² a. improper coordination of flight controls. b. failure to cross-check and correctly interpret outside and instrument references. c. faulty trim technique. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight-and-level flight from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight-and-level flight. p


1-34

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of level turns by describing² a. effect and use of flight controls. b. the Integrated Flight Instruction method. c. trim technique. d. methods that can be used to overcome tenseness and over controlling. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to level turns by describing² a. improper coordination of flight controls. b. failure to cross-check and correctly interpret outside and instrument references. c. faulty trim technique. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains level turns from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to level turns. p


1-35


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight climbs and climbing turns by describing² a. effect and use of flight controls. b. the Integrated Flight Instruction method. c. trim technique. d. methods that can be used to overcome tenseness and over controlling. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight climbs and climbing turns by describing² a. improper coordination of flight controls. b. failure to cross-check and correctly interpret outside and instrument references. c. faulty trim technique. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight climbs and climbing turns from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight climbs and climbing turns. p


1-36


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight descents and descending turns by describing² a. effect and use of flight controls. b. the Integrated Flight Instruction method. c. trim technique.

d. methods that can be used to overcome tenseness and over controlling. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight descents and descending turns by describing² a. improper coordination of flight controls. b. failure to cross-check and correctly interpret outside and instrument references. c. faulty trim technique. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight descents and descending turns from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight descents and descending turns. p


1-37 =


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The examiner shall select at least TASK B or C. In addition, applicant shall provide a helicopter appropriate for demonstrating touchdown autorotations.


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a rapid deceleration by describing² a. purpose of the maneuver. b. how to maintain proper RPM throughout maneuver. c. evaluation of wind direction and speed, terrain, and obstructions. d. proper use of anti-torque pedals. e. selection of an altitude that will permit safe clearance between tail boom and terrain. f. coordinated use of cyclic and collective controls throughout maneuver. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a rapid deceleration by describing² a. improper RPM control. b. improper use of anti-torque pedals. c. improper coordination of cyclic and collective controls. d. failure to properly control the rate of deceleration. e. stopping of forward motion in a tail-low attitude. f. failure to maintain safe clearance over terrain. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a rapid deceleration from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a rapid deceleration. p


1-38
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a straight-in autorotation by describing²

a. purpose of maneuver. b. selection of a suitable touchdown area. c. how to maintain proper engine and rotor RPM. d. evaluation of wind direction and speed. e. effect of density altitude, gross weight, rotor RPM, airspeed, and wind to determine a touchdown point. f. how and at what point maneuver is initiated. g. flight control coordination, aircraft attitude, and autorotational speed. h. deceleration, collective pitch application, and touchdown technique, or i. technique for performing a power recovery to a hover. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a straight-in autorotation by describing² a. improper engine and rotor RPM control. b. uncoordinated use of flight controls, particularly anti-torque pedals. c. improper attitude and airspeed during descent. d. improper judgment and technique during termination. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a straight-in autorotation to touchdown from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to 

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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a 180° autorotation by describing² a. purpose of maneuver. b. selection of a suitable touchdown area. c. how to maintain proper engine and rotor RPM. d. evaluation of wind direction and speed. e. effect of density altitude, gross weight, rotor RPM, airspeed, and wind to determine a touchdown point. f. how and at what point the maneuver is initiated. g. flight control coordination, aircraft attitude, and autorotation airspeed. h. proper planning and performance of the autorotative turn. i. deceleration, collective pitch application, and touchdown technique, or j. technique for performing a power recovery to a hover. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a 180° autorotation by describing² a. improper engine and rotor RPM control. b. uncoordinated use of flight controls, particularly anti-torque pedals. c. improper attitude and airspeed during descent. d. improper judgment and technique during the termination. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a 180° autorotation to touchdown from an instructional standpoint.

4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a 180° autorotation. p 

1-40




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The examiner shall select at least one TASK from A, B, C, or D to be accomplished in flight and at least one TASK from E, F, G, H, I, or J to be accomplished orally on the ground.


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to power failure at a hover by describing² a. recognition of power failure. b. how to maintain a constant heading. c. correction for drift. d. effect of density altitude, height above the surface, gross weight, wind, and rotor RPM on performance. e. autorotation and touchdown technique from a stationary or forward hover. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to power failure at a hover by describing² a. failure to apply correct and adequate pedal when power is reduced. b. failure to correct drift prior to touchdown. c. improper application of collective pitch. d. failure to touch down in a level attitude. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a simulated power failure at a hover from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a simulated power failure at a hover. p


1-41
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
Examiner shall direct the applicant to terminate this TASK with a power recovery at an altitude high enough to ensure a safe touchdown could be accomplished in the event of an actual power failure. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to power failure at altitude by describing² a. importance of being continuously aware of suitable landing areas. b. technique for establishing and maintaining proper rotor RPM, airspeed, and pedal trim during autorotation. c. method used to evaluate wind direction and speed. d. effect of density altitude, gross weight, rotor RPM, airspeed, and wind to determine landing area.

e. selection of a suitable landing area. f. planning and performance of approach to the selected landing area. g. importance of dividing attention between flying the approach and accomplishing the emergency procedure, as time permits. h. techniques that can be used to compensate for undershooting or overshooting selected landing area. i. when and how to terminate approach. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to power failure at altitude by describing² a. failure to promptly recognize the emergency, establish and maintain proper rotor RPM, and confirm engine condition. b. improper judgment in selection of a landing area. c. failure to estimate approximate wind direction and speed. d. uncoordinated use of flight controls during autorotation entry and descent. e. improper attitude and airspeed during autorotation entry and descent. f. failure to fly the most suitable pattern for existing situation. g. failure to accomplish the emergency procedure, as time permits. h. undershooting or overshooting selected landing area. i. uncoordinated use of flight controls during power recovery. p


1-42 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a simulated power failure at altitude from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to power failure at altitude.


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to settling-with-power by describing² a. conditions that are likely to result in settling-with-power. b. timely recognition of settling-with-power. c. techniques for recovery. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to settling-with-power by describing² a. failure to recognize conditions that are conducive to development of settling-withpower. b. failure to detect first indications of settling-with-power. c. improper use of controls during recovery. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains settling-with-power from an instructional standpoint. p


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The examiner may accomplish this TASK orally if the helicopter used for the practical test has a governor that cannot be disabled. REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual.


To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to low rotor RPM recovery by describing² a. conditions that are likely to result in low rotor RPM. b. potential problems from low rotor RPM if not corrected timely. c. techniques for recovery. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to low rotor RPM recovery by describing² a. failure to recognize conditions that are conducive to the development of low rotor RPM. b. failure to detect the development of low rotor RPM and to initiate prompt corrective action. c. improper use of controls. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains low rotor RPM recovery from an instructional standpoint.


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Helicopter Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to anti-torque system failure by describing: 1. Helicopter aerodynamics related to failure. 2. Indications of failure. 3. Recommended pilot technique to maintain controlled flight. 4. How to select a landing area. 5. Recommended technique to accomplish a safe landing, when failure occurs. p


1-44


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; AC 90-87; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to dynamic rollover by describing: 1. Helicopter aerodynamics involved. 2. How interaction between anti-torque thrust, crosswind, slope, cyclic and collective pitch control contribute to dynamic rollover. 3. Preventive actions used for takeoffs and landings on different surfaces.



  
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to ground resonance by describing: 1. Aerodynamics involved and association with a fully articulated rotor system. 2. Conditions that are conducive to the development of ground resonance. 3. Preventive actions used for takeoffs and landings on different surfaces.



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REFERENCE: Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of low ³G´ conditions by describing: 1. Situations that will cause a low ³G´ condition. 2. Recognition of low ³G´ conditions. 3. Proper recovery procedures to prevent mast 4. Effects of this condition on different types of rotor systems.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to systems and equipment malfunctions by describing recommended pilot action, appropriate to the helicopter used for the practical test, in the following areas: 1. Smoke or fire during ground or flight operations. 2. Engine/oil and fuel system. 3. Carburetor or induction icing. 4. Hydraulic system. 5. Electrical system. 6. Flight controls. 7. Rotor/drive system. 8. Pitot/static system. 9. Any other system or equipment.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to emergency equipment and survival gear appropriate to the helicopter used for the practical test by describing: 1. Location in the helicopter. 2. Method of operation or use. 3. Servicing. 4. Storage. 5. Equipment and gear appropriate for operation in various climates, over various types of terrain, and over water. =cc


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The examiner shall select at least one TASK.


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant:

1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a confined area operation by describing² a. conduct of high and low reconnaissance. b. method used to evaluate wind direction and speed, turbulence, terrain, obstacles, and emergency landing areas. c. selection of a suitable approach path, termination point, and departure path. d. how to maintain proper RPM. e. how to track the selected approach path to the termination point, establishing an acceptable approach angle and rate of closure. f. factors that should be considered in determining whether to terminate at a hover or on the surface. g. conduct of ground reconnaissance and selection of a suitable takeoff point, considering wind and obstructions. h. factors affecting takeoff and climb performance. i. factors to consider in performing a takeoff and climb under various conditions. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a confined area operation by describing² a. failure to perform, or improper performance of high and low reconnaissance. b. failure to track the selected approach path or to fly an acceptable approach angle and rate of closure. c. improper RPM control. d. inadequate planning to ensure obstacle clearance during the approach or the departure. e. failure to consider emergency landing areas. f. failure to select a definite termination point during the high reconnaissance. g. failure to change the termination point, if conditions so dictate. i. improper takeoff and climb technique for existing conditions. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a confined area operation from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a confined area operation.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a pinnacle/platform operation by describing² a. conduct of high and low reconnaissance. b. methods used to evaluate wind direction and speed, turbulence, terrain, obstacles, and emergency landing areas. c. selection of a suitable approach path, termination point, and departure path. d. how to maintain proper RPM. e. how to track the selected approach path to the termination point, and establish an acceptable approach angle and rate of closure. f. factors that should be considered in determining whether to terminate in a hover or on the surface.

g. selection of a suitable takeoff point, considering wind and obstructions. h. factors affecting takeoff and climb performance. i. factors to consider in performing a takeoff and climb under various conditions. h. failure to consider effect of wind direction or speed, turbulence, or loss of effective translational lift during the approach. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a pinnacle/platform operation by describing² a. failure to perform, or improper performance of, high and low reconnaissance. b. failure to track selected approach path or to fly an acceptable approach angle and rate of closure. c. improper RPM control. d. inadequate planning to assure obstacle clearance during approach or departure. e. failure to consider emergency landing areas. f. failure to select a definite termination point during the high reconnaissance. g. failure to change the termination point, if conditions so dictate. h. failure to consider effect of wind direction or speed, turbulence, or loss of effective translational lift during the approach. i. improper takeoff and climb technique for existing conditions. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a pinnacle/platform operation from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a pinnacle/platform operation. =ccc


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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 
To determine that the applicant: 1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of after-landing and securing by describing² a. methods to minimize hazardous effects of rotor downwash during hovering to parking area. b. engine temperature stabilization and shutdown. c. method to secure rotor blades and cockpit. d. safety concerns for passenger(s) when exiting. e. postflight inspection to include use of checklist. f. refueling procedures, including safety concerns. 2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to after-landing and securing by describing² a. hazards resulting from failure to follow recommended procedures. b. failure to conduct a postflight inspection and use a checklist. 3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains after-landing and securing from an instructional standpoint. 4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to after-landing and securing.