Industrial Psych Rgo Enhanced For 2017

Industrial Organizational Psychology

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Table of Specification

1. Consistency theory states that there is a relationship between work motivation and A. self-esteem B. expectancy C. perceived fairness D. salary

Predisposition to Motivation O Consistency theory - There is a positive

correlation between self-esteem and performance. That is, employees who feel good about themselves are motivated to perform better at work than employees who do not feel that they are valuable and worthy people.

Kinds of Self Esteem O Chronic self-esteem is a person’s overall

feeling about himself. O Situational self-esteem (also called selfefficacy) is a person’s feeling about himself in a particular situation such as operating a machine or talking to other people. O Socially influenced self-esteem is how a person feels about himself on the basis of the expectations of others.

O Self-fulfilling Prophecy - which states that an

individual will perform as well or as poorly as he expects to perform. O Galatea effect - This relationship between self-

expectations and performance. O Pygmalion effect - The same as ‘Rosenthal effect’, if an employee feels that a manager has confidence in him, his self-esteem will increase, as will his performance. O Golem effect occurs when negative expectations of an individual cause a decrease in that individual’s actual performance

2. An employee thinks he is an idiot and will never be able to master the new computer system. The employee takes a training class on the new system and fails. This situation might best be explained by: A. social learning theory B. expectancy theory C. the Galatea effect D. equity theory

Intrinsic v Extrinsic Motivation O Intrinsically motivation - they will seek to

perform well because they either enjoy performing the actual tasks or enjoy the challenge of successfully completing the task.

O Extrinsic motivation - Work motivation that

arises from such non-personal factors as pay, coworkers, and opportunities for advancement.

McClelland’s Theory of Needs O Need for achievement - motivated by jobs that

are challenging and over which they have some control, whereas employees who have minimal achievement needs are more satisfied when jobs involve little challenge and have a high probability of success. O Need for affiliation - motivated by jobs in which they can work with and help other people. O Need for power - motivated by a desire to influence others rather than simply to be successful.

Job Expectations O A discrepancy between what an employee

expected a job to be like and the reality of the job can affect motivation and satisfaction. O Realistic Job Preview (RJP) - A method of

recruitment in which job applicants are told both the positive and the negative aspects of a job.

3. Fred's parents tell him to try his best in college. Fred's first semester GPA is 1.8 and his parents are mad. What was wrong with the goal set for Fred? A. It was not specific B. It was too high C. It was not general enough D. Fred did not help set the goal

Goal Setting Theory O Latham and Blades (1975).

O Specifi c O Measurable

O Diffi cult but Attainable O Relevant O Time-Bound

4. In expectancy theory, _____ is the perceived relationship between the amount of effort an employee puts in and the resulting outcome, and ______ is the extent to which the outcome of a worker's performance will result in a particular consequence. A. instrumentality / expectancy B. instrumentality / valence C. expectancy / instrumentality D. valence / expectancy

Expectancy Theory O Vroom (1964); Porter and Lawler (1968) O Motivation = E (I × V) O Expectancy (E): The perceived relationship

between the amount of effort an employee puts in and the resulting outcome. O if an employee believes that no matter how hard

he works he will never reach the necessary level of performance, then his motivation will probably be low

O Instrumentality (I): The extent to which the

outcome of a worker’s performance, if noticed, results in a particular consequence. O the employee will be motivated only if his

behavior results in some specific consequence. That is, if the employee works extra hours, he expects to be rewarded, or if he is inexcusably absent from work, he expects to be punished.

O Valence (V): The extent to which an

employee values a particular consequence. O if an employee is rewarded, the reward must

be something he values. If good performance is rewarded by an award, then the employee will be motivated only if he values awards.

5. ______ is the attitude one has toward her job and ______ is the extent to which an employee identifies with and is involved with an organization. A. Job satisfaction / cohesiveness B. Job satisfaction / organizational commitment C. Organizational commitment / cohesiveness D. Organizational commitment / job satisfaction

O Job Satisfaction — the attitude an employee

has toward her job O Facets: pay, supervision, coworkers, work,

and promotion opportunities, satisfaction with equipment, the work facility, the worksite, and company policy.

O Organizational Commitment — the extent to

which an employee identifies with and is involved with an organization. O Affective commitment is the extent to which

an employee wants to remain with the organization, cares about the organization, and is willing to exert effort on its behalf. O Continuance commitment is the extent to which an employee believes she must remain with the organization due to the time, expense, and effort that she has already put into it or the difficulty she would have in finding another job.

O Normative commitment is the extent to

which an employee feels obligated to the organization and, as a result of this obligation, must remain with the organization.

6. People prone to be satisfied with their jobs have A. an external locus of control B. low self-efficacy C. high self-esteem D. all three of these characteristics

7. Job rotation, job enlargement, and job enrichment attempt to satisfy needs at which level? A. Self-actualization needs B. Social needs C. Safety needs D. Ego needs

O Job rotation A system in which employees

are given the opportunity to perform several different jobs in an organization. O Job enlargement A system in which employees are given more tasks to perform at the same time. O Job enrichment A system in which employees are given more responsibility over the tasks and decisions related to their job.

8. If you were to develop a test to determine who would be most satisfied with their jobs, you would probably develop a test that would identify people with a high level of: A. internal locus of control B. introversion C. Type B personality D. social mistrust

O Internal locus of control - The extent to which

people believe that they are responsible for and in control of their success or failure in life. O External locus of control - The extent to which people believe that their success and failure is determined by external sources (e.g., luck, other people).

9. The Thematic Apperception test measures needs for: A. socialization and acceptance B. leadership C. power, affiliation, and acceptance D. power, affiliation, and achievement

10. Help wanted signs, job fairs, and direct mailings are all examples of A. internal recruitment methods B. external recruitment methods C. methods used by employment agencies D. the least expensive recruitment methods

Recruitment Methods O Formal or Direct

O Informal or Indirect

O Media advertisements

O Situation-wanted ads

O Point of purchase

O Direct applications

O Direct mail

O Employee referrals

O Employment agencies O College recruiters O Computer databases O Special events O Employee referral

programs

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11. _____ is the process of attracting people with the right qualifications to apply for the job. A. Job analysis B. Recruitment C. Interviewing D. Selection

12. Based on the available research, which of the following recruitment strategies may enhance employee morale and motivation? A. Job analysis B. External recruitment C. Internal recruitment D. Use of electronic media

Internal Recruitment O Increases employee morale and motivation. O Risk for having a stale workforce devoid of

many ideas. O Perpetuate the racial, gender, and age composition of the workforce.

13. An organization that does not want its name in public, or fears that people would not apply if they knew the name of the company, would probably A. use a blind box ad B. advertise on the radio C. use point of purchase recruiting D. recruit at colleges and universities

14. One of the concessionaires in Yellowstone National Park offers its employees a financial incentive for recommending applicants who are subsequently hired and remain on the job for a specific period of time. This BEST exemplifies A. internal recruitment B. external recruitment C. an employee referral program D. a situation wanted recruitment approach

Employee Referrals O Realistic job preview O Employees and friends are similar O Personality O Ability O Employee can help socialize friend

when hired

15. According to research, the most effective realistic job previews (RJPs) are presented in a(n) ______ format. A. Written B. Oral C. Multimedia D. Presentation does not matter

16. CAN YOU WORK WEEKENDS and CAN YOU WORK OVERTIME WHEN NEEDED are examples of which type of interview question? A. Disqualifier B. Clarifier C. Future focused OR situational question D. Past focused question

O Clarifiers allow the interviewer to clarify

information in the résumé, cover letter, and application, fill in gaps, and obtain other necessary information. O Disqualifiers are questions that must be answered a particular way or the applicant is disqualified. O Skill-level determiners tap an interviewee’s level of expertise.

O Future-focused questions, also called situational

questions, ask an applicant what she would do in a particular situation. It is important that these questions can be answered with the applicant’s current knowledge. O Past-focused questions, sometimes referred to as patterned behavior description interviews (PBDIs), differ from situational interview questions by focusing on previous behavior rather than future intended behavior.

O organizational-fit questions tap the extent to

which an applicant will fit into the culture of an organization or with the leadership style of a particular supervisor.

17. Mr. Massaudi gave better remarks to his employees because of his earliest memory of that employee. This first impressions suggests A. Primacy effect B. Negatvie information bias C. Contrast effect D. Lack of job relatedness

18. Applicants attempting to be interviewed immediately after a poor applicant are demonstrating their understanding of the A. lack of job relatedness B. halo effect C. contrast effect D. primacy effect

Optimal Employee Selection Systems O Are Valid O Based on a job analysis (content validity) O Predict work-related behavior (criterion validity) O Reduce the Chance of a Legal Challenge O Face valid O Don’t invade privacy O Don’t intentionally discriminate O Minimize adverse impact O Are Cost Effective O Cost to purchase/create O Cost to administer O Cost to score 43

Unstructured Interviews are Not Optimal O They are: O Unreliable O Not valid O Legally problematic O Because they: O Are not job related O Rely on intuition, “amateur psychology,” and talk show methods O Suffer from common rating problems O O O O

Primacy Contrast Similarity Range restriction (e.g., leniency, strictness, central tendency)

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Common Unstructured Interview Questions O Where do you see yourself five years

from now? O What are your greatest strengths? O What are your greatest weaknesses? O What subject did you most enjoy in college? O Why should I hire you? O Why are you interested in this job? 45

Problems with Unstructured Interviews O Poor Intuitive Ability - research indicates that

human intuition and judgment are inaccurate predictors of a variety of factors ranging from future employee success to the detection of deception O Lack of Job Relatedness - preference for an

answer does not imply that it will actually predict future performance on the job.

O Primacy effects or “first impressions” in the

interview is mixed. Some research indicates that information presented prior to the interview or early in the interview carries more weight than does information presented later in the interview. O Contrast effect, the interview performance of one applicant may affect the interview score given to the next applicant.

O Negative-information bias seems to occur

only when interviewers aren’t aware of job requirements. This lack of honesty may be especially evident in the interview, where the face-to-face nature of the process increases the odds that an applicant would respond in such a way as to look better to the interviewer.

O Interviewer-Interviewee Similarity - research

suggests that an interviewee will receive a higher score if he or she is similar to the interviewer in terms of personality , attitude, gender, or race.

O Interviewee Appearance In general, physically

attractive applicants have an advantage in interviews over less attractive applicants and applicants who dress professionally receive higher interview scores than do more poorly dressed applicants.

O Nonverbal Cues - the use of appropriate

nonverbal communication is highly correlated with interview scores. Appropriate nonverbal cues include such things as smiling and making appropriate eye contact.

19. What recommendations would you give to HR practitioners to ensure that interviewers base their decisions on relevant information? A. use trained professionals B. hold them accountable for bad decisions C. use the structured interview D. interview in teams of three or more

20. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of grade point average for employee selection? A. GPA predicts job performance B. GPA predicts best in the first years after graduation C. GPA has low adverse impact D. All three are true

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O In-basket technique is designed to simulate

the types of daily information that appear on a manager’s or employee’s desk. O “in” level, which holds paperwork that must

be handled O “out” level, which contains completed paperwork.

O Simulations, which can include such diverse

activities that place an applicant in a situation that is as similar as possible to one that will be encountered on the job. Simulations must be based on job-related behaviors and should be reasonably realistic. O Role play - allows the trainee to perform

necessary interpersonal skills by acting out simulated roles. O Work Samples - an applicant is asked to perform samples of actual job-related tasks.

O Leaderless Group Discussion - applicants

meet in small groups and are given a jobrelated problem to solve or a job-related issue to discuss. O Business games are exercises that allow the applicant to demonstrate such attributes as creativity, decision making, and ability to work with others.

21. Which of the following is good advice in asking for a letter of recommendation? A. Provide your reference with a copy of your resume B. Give your reference plenty of advance notice before the letter is due C. Choose references who can provide information from multiple perspectives D. All three other options are good advice

22. The first step in creating an assessment center is to A. conduct a job analysis B. find a location to hold the center C. develop the necessary exercises D. restructure the company budget

23. Which of the following assessment center techniques allows the applicant to demonstrate such attributes as creativity, decision making, and ability to work with others? A. Business games B. Simulations C. Out basket technique D. In basket technique

24. Though work samples are excellent selection tools for several reasons, the main reason for not using them is that they can be A. expensive to construct B. neither are expensive to administer nor to construct C. expensive to administer D. both are expensive to administer and to construct

25. When computing internal reliability, _____ is used for dichotomous items and _____ is used for interval and ratio items. A. coefficient alpha , KR 20 B. coefficient alpha , Spearman Brown C. KR 20 , coefficient alpha D. Spearman-Brown , coefficient alpha

26. A student takes the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) as a requirement to get into college. Her score on the test is 1020. Three weeks later, she is asked to take the identical test again. This time she scores 900. This inconsistency in scores is an issue of: A. Internal reliability B. Parallel forms C. Test-retest consistency D. Inter-rater agreement

O Top-down selection, applicants are rank-

ordered on the basis of their test scores. Selection is then made by starting with the highest score and moving down until all openings have been filled. O Rule of three (or rule of five), in which the names of the top three scorers are given to the person making the hiring decision

O Passing scores are a means for reducing

adverse impact and increasing flexibility. With this system, an organization determines the lowest score on a test that is associated with acceptable performance on the job. O Multiple-cutoff approach A selection strategy in

which applicants must meet or exceed the passing score on more than one selection test. O Multiple-hurdle approach Selection practice of administering one test at a time so that applicants must pass that test before being allowed to take the next test.

O Banding - A statistical technique based on

the standard error of measurement that allows similar test scores to be grouped.

27. An industrial organizational psychologist correlates the responses to the even numbered items on a selection test with the responses to the odd numbered items from the same test. Which of the following answers BEST describes the concern of the psychologist? A. Parallel form reliability B. Test-retest reliability C. Split-half reliability D. Scorer reliability

33. A type of distribution error in which a rater tends to rate every employee in the middle of the scale is called _______. A. leniency B. strictness C. central tendency D. halo

28. If a police applicant is asked questions about her favorite hobbies and religious beliefs, she may feel the test is not valid. In this case, her impression demonstrates the importance of ______ validity. A. construct B. concurrent C. criterion D. face

29. If we use the weight of an infant to predict the subsequent performance of the infant in college, the weight measure is probably A. reliable and valid B. not reliable but valid C. reliable but not valid D. not reliable and not valid

30. The extent to which a test found valid for a job in one location is valid for the same job in another location refers to the concept of _______. A. the cross over effect B. temporal stability C. validity generalization D. known group validity

31. Dr. Gertrude correlates scores on a test (Test 1) with scores on other tests (Test 2 and Test 3). The analysis demonstrates that the scores on Test 1 correlate highly with scores on Test 2 but do not correlate with scores on Test 3. This type of analysis is used to determine: A. Content validity B. Construct validity C. Concurrent validity D. Predictive validity

32. Dr. Vernon wants to estimate the percentage of future employees who will be successful on the job if an organization uses a particular test. What would you recommend? The use of _____. A. Taylor- Russell Tables B. Expectancy Tables C. Lawshe Tables D. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser Formula

34. Which of the following performance appraisal approaches would have dimensions such as prevent crimes from occurring and minimize citizen complaints? A. Competency focus B. Task focus C. Goal focus D. Trait focus

Dimensions of Performance Appriasal O Trait-Focused Performance Dimensions -

concentrates on such employee attributes as dependability, honesty, and courtesy. Though commonly used, trait-focused performance appraisal instruments are not a good idea because they provide poor feedback and thus will not result in employee development and growth.

O Competency-Focused Performance

Dimensions - competency-focused dimensions concentrate on the employee’s knowledge, skills, and abilities. For example, competency-focused dimensions might include writing skills, oral presentation skills, and driving skills.

O Task-Focused Performance Dimensions - Task-

focused dimensions are organized by the similarity of tasks that are performed. O Goal-Focused Performance Dimensions - to organize the appraisal on the basis of goals to be accomplished by the employee. O Contextual Performance Dimension - the effort an employee makes to get along with peers, improve the organization, and perform tasks that are needed but are not necessarily an official part of the employee’s job description.

35. A test predicts performance for two different groups of applicants (e.g., men and women); however, the test predicts the performance significantly better for men than it does for women. This exemplifies: A. Utility B. Single-group utility C. Differential validity D. Known-group validity

Employee Comparison O Paired Comparisons -

This method involves comparing each possible pair of employees and choosing which one of each pair is the better employee

O Rank Order -

employees are ranked in order by their judged performance for each relevant dimension. The ranks are then averaged across each dimension to yield an overall rank.

O Forced Distribution -

a predetermined percentage of employees are placed in categories.

36. What type of rating scale is depicted below? Job knowledge Poor 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Excellent Dependability Poor 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Excellent A. Behaviorally anchored rating scale B. Behavioral observation scale C. Graphic rating scale D. Personality Inventory

37. Bob has been a model employee all year except for the last two to three weeks; yet, his ratings on his performance appraisal reflect his performance during this last two week to three week period. This type of rating bias is referred to as A. strictness error B. the recency effect C. contrast error D. infrequent observation

38. If an employee was to produce a work product of a quality level above the organization's standards, it technically would be called _______. A. an error B. self initiative C. good worker output D. none of these

O Error - Deviation from a standard of quality;

also a type of response to communication overload that involves processing all information but processing some of it incorrectly.

39. According to literatures, the greatest problem with all of the employee comparison methods is that they do not provide information about _______. A. the employee's motivation B. how well an employee is actually doing C. work related behaviors D. there are no problems with this method

Training Models O I. Classroom Instructions O Case Study - the members of a small group each

read a case, which is either a real or hypothetical situation typical of those encountered on the job. For case studies to be most successful, the cases should be taken from actual situations. O Simulation - Exercises that allow the trainee to practice newly learned skills. Simulations offer the advantage of allowing the trainee to work with equipment under actual working conditions without the consequences of mistakes.

O Role Play - allows the trainee to perform

necessary interpersonal skills by acting out simulated roles. O Behavior Modeling - A training technique in which employees observe correct behavior, practice that behavior, and then receive feedback about their performance.

40. Which of the following training methods requires trainees to discuss appropriate and inappropriate employee behaviors, watch the appropriate behavior being performed and role play the appropriate behavior? A. Job rotation B. Behavior modeling C. Apprentice training D. Role playing

O II. Distance Learning – non classroom based

training in which employees follows programmed instructions on their own. O computer-based training (CBT) O e-learning; O interactive video O Webinars O blogs, wikis

Categories of Distance Learning O Asynchronous O Employees complete the training at their own

pace and at the time and place of their choosing

O Synchronous O Employees complete the training at the same

time and the same place although they may be in difference physical locations O Webinars, webcasts, and teleconferences are common methods 90

O III. On-the-Job Training - informal training by

experienced peers and supervisors that occurs on the job and during job task. O Modeling - Learning through watching and

imitating the behavior of others.

O Job rotation - An employee performs several

different jobs with. Aside from increasing employee awareness, the main advantage of job rotation is that it allows for both lateral transfers within an organization and greater flexibility in replacing absent workers.in an organization

O Apprentice training - A training program,

usually found in the craft and building trades, in which employees combine formal coursework with formal on-the-job training.

O Coaching - A method of training in which a new

employee receives on-the-job guidance from an experienced employee. O Experience employee works with new employee O Problems O Not all employees are good coaches O Coaching can lower the coach’s work productivity

O Pass through programs and corporate coaches can

alleviate problems

O Pass-through programs, in which experienced workers are

temporarily assigned to the training department.

O Mentoring – a process when a veteran in the

organization who takes a special interest in a new employee and helps him not only to adjust to the job but also to advance in the organization. O Mentoring is less formal than coaching O Good mentors can be difficult to find

Transfer of Training O The extent to which behavior learned in

training will be performed on the job. O Overlearning - Practicing a task even after it

has been mastered in order to retain learning.

41. Which of the following training methods is best for learning interpersonal skills? A. Role play B. Case study C. Critical incidents D. Modeling

42. _______ exercises allow the trainee to work with equipment and in an environment like that found in the actual job. A. Case study B. Programmed instruction C. Simulation D. Critical incident

43. You examine the job descriptions for every position in your company and determine that every employee must know how to use Excel to be successful. What level of analysis is this? A. Organizational analysis B. Task analysis C. Operations analysis D. Person analysis

Training Needs Analysis O The purpose of needs analysis is to

determine the types of training, if any, that are needed in an organization, as well as the extent to which training is a practical means of achieving an organization’s goals. O Organizational Analysis - The process of determining the organizational factors that will either facilitate or inhibit training effectiveness.

O Task analysis - The process of identifying the

tasks for which employees need to be trained. O Person analysis - The process of identifying the employees who need training and determining the areas in which each individual employee needs to be trained.

44. Which of the following is the best training objective? By the end of this training, the employee _________ A. will be a better salesperson B. will be able to correctly answer ninety percent of customer questions C. will have learned about our product line D. will be more knowledgeable

45. Lectures, use of videos, discussions, and question and answer periods are activities which belong to which of the following training methods? A. classroom training B. computer assisted instruction C. distance learning D. on the job training

46. Which of the following types of needs analysis has the purpose of determining factors that either facilitate or inhibit training effectiveness? A. Organizational B. Demographic C. Task D. Person

47. Overlearning helps increase A. role applicability B. job satisfaction C. transfer of training D. boredom

48. A task analysis conducted as part of a training needs assessment is made easier if A. a person analysis is conducted first B. job descriptions are available C. training has previously been conducted D. trainers are certified

49. Supervisors who set goals, provide feedback, and encourage employees to use their training are trying to motivate employees to A. come to training B. perform better in training C. pay attention during training D. transfer what is learned in training to the job

50. A Solomon Four Groups Design attempts to do all of the following except A. control for the effects of outside factors B. control for the effects of pretesting C. control for the effects related to time D. be more practical than other designs

51. In an experiment designed to test the effect of noise on employee performance, noise is the ______ and employee performance is the ______. A. dependent variable/independent variable B. dependent variable / control variable C. independent variable/dependent variable D. control variable / dependent variable

52. Andrei is completing a questionnaire containing 400 items covering five major categories: tools and equipment, perceptual and physical, mathematical, communication and decision making and responsibility. Andrei is using the: A. Job Components Inventory B. Position Analysis Questionnaire C. Critical Incident Technique D. Threshold Traits Analysis

53. Which of the following sections in a thorough job description can be used in help wanted advertisements, internal job posting, and company brochures? A. Job Title B. Work Activities C. Brief Summary D. Work Content

54. According to research, there is a _____ correlation between how well employees liked a training program and how much they learned. A. Small B. Moderate C. Large D. Almost perfect

55. During the job analysis interview, the questions asked should be: A. Open ended B. True-false C. Future focused D. Highly Structured

56. Creating a list of tasks that are thought to be involved with a job, and having job incumbents rate the tasks on scales such as frequency of occurrence and importance, best defines which job analysis method? A. Task analysis B. Critical incident technique C. Job-element approach D. Ammerman technique

57. Once task statements have been written, the next step is to: A. select tests to tap KSAOs B. determine essential KSAOs C. interview incumbents D. rate the task statements

Steps in Job Analysis O Step 1: Identify Tasks Performed O Subject matter experts (SMEs) - Sources such as

supervisors and incumbents who are knowledgeable about a job. O Ammerman technique - A job analysis method in which a group of job experts identifies the objectives and standards to be met by the ideal worker. O Job participation, is especially effective because it is easier to understand every aspect of a job once you have done it yourself.

Steps in Job Analysis O Step 2: Write Task Statements O Task inventory - A questionnaire containing a list of tasks each of which the job incumbent rates on a series of scales such as importance and time spent. O Step 3: Rate Task Statements O Task analysis—using a group of SMEs to rate each

task statement on the frequency and the importance or criticality of the task being performed

Steps in Job Analysis O Step 4: Determine Essential KSAOs. O A knowledge is a body of information needed to

perform a task. O A skill is the proficiency to perform a learned task. O An ability is a basic capacity for performing a wide range of different tasks, acquiring a knowledge, or developing a skill. O Other characteristics include such personal factors as personality, willingness, interest, and motivation and such tangible factors as licenses, degrees, and years of experience.

Steps in Job Analysis O Step 5: Selecting Tests to Tap KSAOs

Methods Providing General Information About Worker Activities O Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) - A structured job analysis method developed by McCormick. O The PAQ contains 194 items organized into six

main dimensions: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other persons, job context, and other job-related variables such as work schedule, pay, and responsibility

O Job Structure Profile. A revised version of the

PAQ was developed by Patrick and Moore. Include item content and style, new items to increase the discriminatory power of the intellectual and decision-making dimensions, and an emphasis on having a job analyst, rather than the incumbent.

O Job Elements Inventory (JEI), developed by Cornelius

and Hakel. The JEI contains 153 items and has a readability level appropriate for an employee with only a tenth-grade education. O Functional Job Analysis (FJA) was designed by Fine as a quick method that could be used by the federal government to analyze and compare thousands of jobs. Jobs analyzed by FJA are broken down into the percentage of time the incumbent spends on three functions: data (information and ideas), people (clients, customers, and coworkers), and things (machines, tools, and equipment).

O Methods Providing Information About Tools and

Equipment O Job Components Inventory (JCI) for use in England. The JCI consists of more than 400 questions covering five major categories: tools and equipment, perceptual and physical requirements, mathematical requirements, communication requirements, and decision making and responsibility. O It is the only job analysis method containing a

detailed section on tools and equipment.

O Methods Providing Information About the Work

Environment

O AET, an acronym for “Arbeitswissenschaftliches

Erhebungsverfahren zur Tatigkeitsanalyse”; a 216 -item, standardized questionnaire that analyzes a job along a list of dimensions

O Methods Providing Information About

Competencies O Occupational Information Network (O*NET) - The job analysis system used by the federal government that has replaced the Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT). O Dictionary of Occupational Titles The DOT is a

directory that was published by the federal government that supplied information for almost 30,000 jobs.

O Critical Incident Technique (CIT) - The job

O

O

O

O

analysis method developed by John Flanagan that uses written reports of good and bad employee behavior. Threshold Traits Analysis (TTA) - 33-item questionnaire developed by Lopez that identifies traits necessary to successfully perform a job. Fleishman Job Analysis Survey (F-JAS) - A job analysis method in which jobs are rated on the basis of the abilities needed to perform them. Job Adaptability Inventory (JAI) A job analysis method that taps the extent to which a job involves eight types of adaptability. Personality-Related Position Requirements Form (PPRF) - A new job analysis instrument that helps determine the personality requirements for a job.

58. Job analysis is the not the best foundation for: A. Providing a raise for an employee doing a job well done B. Selection of an applicant based on his qualifications C. Training employees that lacks competencies for their job D. Legality in the tasks assigned to an employee

59. After conducting a job evaluation we find that Bob is underpaid by P5,000 and Bill is overpaid by P5,000. We would probably: A. give Bob a raise and lower Bill's salary B. not do anything C. redo the job evaluation D. give Bob a raise and leave Bill's salary alone

60. Which of the following is an essential skill for a cashier? A. Knowledgeable of gift cards, travelers checks, food stamps, cash, checks, processing coupons, and refunds B. See details at close range (within a few feet of the observer) C. Has a year of experience to a related field D. Proficient in the use of cash register

61. If a researcher calculated a correlation coefficient of r = 1.27 between two variables, you would conclude that there is a(n): A. High correlation B. Very low correlation C. Error in calculation D. Moderately low positive correlation

62. The best method(s) to use in analyzing a job appears to be: A. the Position Analysis Questionnaire B. interviews, observations, and job participation C. The Critical Incident Technique D. dependent on how the information will be used

63. _____ leadership focuses on taskoriented behaviors whereas _____ leadership focuses on long-term goals. A. Transformational / transactional B. LMX / transformational C. Transactional / LMX D. Transactional / transformational

O Transactional leadership Leadership style in

which the leader focuses on task-oriented behaviors. O Transformational leadership Visionary leadership in which the leader changes the nature and goals of an organization.

64. According to two-factor theory, ____ is an example of a hygiene factor. A. growth B. responsibility C. control D. pay

Two factor theory O Herzberg’s needs theory,

postulating that there are two factors involved in job satisfaction: hygiene factors and motivators. O Hygiene factors - job-related

elements that result from but do not involve the job itself. If less; results to dissatisfaction. O Motivators – elements of a job that concern the actual duties performed by the employee. If more; results to satisfaction.

65. Matt constantly posts charts and graphs indicating the latest production statistics. Matt seems to believe in: A. providing feedback B. intrinsic motivation theory C. the Pygmalion effect D. goal setting theory

66. Operant conditioning focuses on A. modeling of behavior B. reinforcement of behavior C. self-esteem D. employee needs

67. Managers constructing a reinforcement hierarchy for employees are probably using: A. gainsharing B. social loafing C. the Premack principle D. classical conditioning

Premack Principle O Premack Principle - Reinforcement is relative

and that a supervisor can reinforce an employee with something that on the surface does not appear to be a reinforcer. O Reinforcement hierarchy - A rank-ordered list

of reinforcers for an individual.

68. Type B personalities: A. are likely to react negatively to stress B. are opposite personalities C. never feel stressed D. are less likely to react negatively to stress

69. Darnell was hired as a cook's assistant but all he has been doing for the past five months is clean tables and take out the trash. Darnell's stress level can probably be explained by: A. a lack of person-organization fit B. role conflict C. role ambiguity D. role overload

70. Clay is very intelligent and Joshua is not very bright. On the basis of result of existing research, we would expect Clay to be _________ with his job and Joshua to be ______ satisfied with his job. A. dissatisfied / satisfied B. satisfied / dissatisfied C. satisfied / satisfied D. intelligence is not related to job satisfaction

71. ______ refers to the extent to which group members like and trust one another. A. Group cohesiveness B. Stability of membership C. Group homogeneity D. Group status

72. Lilly is working on a group project with three other students. The project is going great so Lilly decides to reduce her effort. The theory that best explains her social loafing is: A. free-rider B. distraction C. individual dominance D. sucker-effect

Social Loafing O The fact that individuals in a group often exert

less individual effort than they would if they were not in a group. O free-rider theory - when things are going well, a

group member realizes that his effort is not necessary and thus does not work as hard as he would if he were alone. O sucker effect – social loafing occurs when a group member notices that other group members are not working hard and thus are “playing him for a sucker.” To avoid this situation, the individual lowers his work performance to match those of the other members.

73. A situation in which a group becomes so cohesive and like-minded that it makes poor decisions by ignoring information relevant to the decision-making process is: A. individual dominance B. groupthink C. social loafing D. the devil's advocate approach

74. During the _____ stage of team development, team members often become frustrated with their roles. A. storming B. forming C. norming D. performing

Stages of Team Development O forming stage - The first stage of the team

process, in which team members “feel out” the team concept and attempt to make a positive impression. O storming stage - group members disagree and resist their team roles. O norming stage - teams establish roles and determine policies and procedures. O performing stage - teams work toward accomplishing their goals.

75. People who join a group to be with other people have ______ needs. A. identification B. affiliation C. support D. physical proximity

76. Social impact theory is related to: A. group size B. communication structure C. group status D. group roles

O Social impact theory - States that the

addition of a group member has the greatest effect on group behavior when the size of the group is small.

77. Julie provides information to Temea who provides information to Juan who provides information to Julie. This is an example of which type of communication network? A. Circle B. Centralized C. Chain D. Open

78. Anita is typing and starts to make mistakes when she notices that the person sitting next to her is typing much faster and making fewer mistakes. Anita`s increase in mistakes is probably due to A. comparison B. evaluation apprehension C. mere presence D. none of the three are viable explanations

79. Which of the following is true about the effect of individual dominance in a group. A. Group performance will almost always decrease due to individual dominance B. Group performance will increase if the dominating person is competent C. A dominating person really has relatively little effect on the group’s performance D. Group performance will increase only if the leader is high in compassion

80. Under IMPACT Theory, a leader can become effective by A. changing her style to meet the situation B. finding a climate consistent with her style C. using strategy and affiliation D. both a and b

Personality as Source of Conflict

81. Some people have a high need for attention. The _____ yells a lot for attention and the _____ gets attention by poking fun at others. A. tank / sniper B. grenade / think-they-know-it-all C. grenade / friendly sniper D. tank / think-they-know-it-all

82. What field research gains in _______ it loses in _______. A. control / external validity B. power / control C. internal validity / power D. external validity / control

O Random selection – increases external validity

(generalizability of the research results) O Random assignment – increases internal validity

(degree of control among variables in the study) O Trade off between internal and external validity

83. hahidi Industries has a policy of promoting employees who perform well. Unfortunately, many of the people promoted do not become effective supervisors. Currently there is a crisis because most of the supervisors are getting poor performance reviews. Shahidi Industries seems to be a good example of: A. The Anderson Analog B. The Peter Principle C. Personpower planning D. none of the above

Peter Principle O The idea that organizations tend to promote

good employees until they reach the level at which they are not competent—in other words, their highest level of incompetence.

84. Which of the following is not true of job titles? i. Titles should describe the nature of a job ii. Job titles can affect perceptions of job status iii. Titles provide workers with identity iv. Job titles can vary from one company to another but has the same KSAOs v. Job titles motivates its holders A. iv B. i and iii C. i and v D. none of these

85. An employee who inquires about his/her level of pay compared to other employees within the same organization is addressing the issue of _______. A. internal equity B. external equity C. merit D. comparable worth

86. According to Situational Leadership Theory, the most effective leader behavior to use on staff who are unable and unwilling to do a job is A. Directing B. Delegating C. Supporting D. Coaching

87. Which is not true regarding an ideal compensation system? A. Ideal compensation attracts best-fit employees to the position B. It is in compliance with legal guidelines C. It is equitable among employees in the same position D. When employees believe that they are paid the most in the field

88. Increasing the perception that a group is difficult to obtain membership in helps to increase A. Group status B. Group isolation C. Group communication status D. Group homogeniety

89. Rating task statements as the third step in Job analysis cannot include which procedure below? A. Rating of task based on importance B. Tasks are rated based on frequency C. Complexity of the task as a basis for rating D. Budgetary allotment associated to the task

90. Rating task statements as the third step in Job analysis cannot include which procedure below? A. Rating of task based on importance B. Tasks are rated based on frequency C. Complexity of the task as a basis for rating D. Budgetary allotment associated to the task

91. Berto has been frustrated with his job for the last three months. He was given two new assignments to complete in addition to his regular duties. To make matters worse, his computer is too slow to handle the programs he needs to run. Berto's stress level can probably be explained by A. lack of person-organization fit B. role ambiguity C. role conflict D. role overload

92. Ruth believes that she can effectively handle any customer complaint, whereas Jill is worried that she will cry if a customer yells at her. The ______ would predict that Ruth will perform better than Jill. A. social learning theory B. self-fulfilling prophecy C. equity theory D. expectancy theory

93. Which need theory has three levels of needs and allows individuals to skip levels? A. Maslow's theory B. Two-factor Theory C. ERG theory D. McClelland's needs theory

ERG theory O Aldefer’s needs theory, which describes

three levels of satisfaction: existence, relatedness, and growth.

Comparison of Needs Theories Maslow

ERG

Two-Factor

Growth

Motivators

Self-actualization

Ego Social

Relatedness

Safety Physical

Existence

Hygiene Factors 170

94. An individual does not like to do laundry but prefers to do laundry over studying for exams. Because doing laundry is liked more than studying, _______ predicts that the opportunity to do laundry will motivate a person to study. A. equity theory B. the Thompson tenet C. the Anderson adage D. the Premack principle

95. All of Armand's employees make the same amount of money but he thinks they lie to each other about how much they make. To stop this, he posts all salary information on the bulletin board. Armand seems to believe in _______. A. consistency theory B. expectancy theory C. equity theory D. social learning theory

96. Allowing employees to make decisions about their jobs A. increases job satisfaction B. reduces turnover C. decreases absenteeism D. combination of all other options

97. A leader who uses an achievement oriented style A. shares information with employees B. shows concern for employees C. sets goals and rewards performance D. controls rewards and punishment

98. Making goals _______ would not increase their effectiveness. A. specific B. high but attainable C. general D. concrete

99. Every Friday, a group of bank employees wear matching tee-shirts with the logo of their bank's baseball team. This best demonstrates the needs for: A. physical proximity B. support C. identification D. affiliation

100. Bill is required to complete five forms for every request he makes. Bill is upset because he considers theses forms to be examples of a: A. meeting cow B. speed cow C. Holstein cow D. paper cow

Sacred Cow Hunt O Employees look for practices and policies that

waste time and are counterproductive. O First step in organizational change

O The Paper Cow - Unnecessary paperwork

generated within organizations out of force of habit. O The Meeting Cow - An unnecessary or unnecessarily long meeting scheduled out of force of habit. O The Speed Cow - The tendency for organizations to require employees to work faster and produce work sooner than needed.