Penoy.pdf

KEY WORD: SISIG

Anti-HBc IgM positive* Anti-HBs negative

KAYANIN NINYO PLEASE! LAPIT NA RMTs!

-------9. CHRONICALLY INFECTED (Larson)

1. Total cholesterol (mg/dL)

HBsAg positive*

<200 Desirable

Anti-HBc positive*

200–239 Borderline high

Anti-HBc IgM negative

≥240 High

Anti-HBs negative

------

---------

2. Triglyceride (mg/dL)

10. Four possibilities: (1) resolved infection (most

<150 Normal

common), (2) false positive anti-HBc thus

150–199 Borderline high

susceptible, (3) low-level chronic infection, and

200–499 High

(4) resolving acute infection:

≥500 Very high

HBsAg negative

------

Anti-HBc positive*

3. HDL (mg/dL)

Anti-HBs negative

<40 Low; MAJOR RISK FOR HEART DISEASE

--------

≥60 High; PROTECTION AGAINST HEART DISEASE

11.

-------

Decreased testosterone (AFFECTED TARGET GLAND)

4. LDL (mg/dL)

Increased LH and FSH

PRIMARY MALE HYPOGONADISM

<100 Optimal 100–129 Near optimal/above optimal

12. SECONDARY MALE HYPOGONADISM

130–159 Borderline high

Decreased testosterone

160–189 High

Decreased LH and FSH (AFFECTED PITUITARY GLAND)

≥190 Very high

--------13. PRIMARY FEMALE HYPOGONADISM

PATTERNS OF COMMON LABORATORY TESTS FOR HEPATITIS

Decreased estrogen (AFFECTED TARGET GLAND)

5. SUSCEPTIBLE

Increased LH and FSH

HBsAg negative Anti-HBc negative

14. SECONDARY FEMALE HYPOGONADISM

Anti-HBs negative

Decreased estrogen

--------

Decreased LH and FSH (AFFECTED PITUITARY GLAND)

6. IMMUNE DUE TO NATURAL INFECTION

---------

HBsAg negative

15. ACUTE LEUKEMIA

Anti-HBc positive*

FAB

Anti-HBs positive*

Henry/WHO 20% BLASTS

30% BLASTS

------7. IMMUNE DUE TO HEPATITIS B VACCINE

16. PRIMARY HYPOTHYROIDISM

HBsAg negative

Decreased T3 T4 (AFFECTED TARGET GLAND)

Anti-HBc negative

Increased TSH

Anti-HBs positive*

--------------

-------

17. SECONDARY HYPOTHYROIDISM

8. ACUTELY INFECTED

Decreased T3 T4

HBsAg positive*

Decreased TSH (AFFECTED PITUITARY GLAND)

Anti-HBc positive*

----------------

18. PRIMARY HYPERTHYROIDISM

42. Deficiency of vitamin C - scurvy

Increased T3 T4

-----------------

Decreased TSH

ACCEPTABLE CV

----------------

43. Cholestero CV ≤3%

19. THYROTOXICOSIS

44. Triglyceride CV ≤5%

Increased either T3 or T4

45. HDL

Normal TSH

46. LDL CV ≤4%

----------------

------------------

20. SUBCLINICAL HYPOTHYROIDISM

BODY MASS INDEX (BMI)

Normal T3 T4

47 NORMAL weight (BMI 18.5 to 24.9 kg/m2)

Increased TSH (as in primary hypo)

48. Underweight (BMI < 18.5 kg/m2)

CV ≤4%†

49. Overweight (BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/m2) 21. SUBCLINICAL HYPERTHYROIDIM

50. Obese (BMI ≥ 30 kg/m2)

Normal T3 T4 Decreased TSH (as in primary hyper)

Serum protein electrophoresis: Serum is applied in

-------------

the cathode region of an agarose gel or cellulose

FAT SOLUBLE

acetate plate saturated with a buffer of pH 8.6.

22. Vitamin A - Retinol, retinoic acid 23. Vitamin D2, D3 - Ergocalciferol, cholecalciferol

Serum proteins have a net negative charge and

24. Vitamin E - Tocopherols

migrate toward the anode, with ALBUMIN TRAVELING THE

25. Vitamin K1, K2 - Phylloquinones, menaquinones

FARTHEST, followed by alpha1 -globulins, alpha2-

-------------

globulins, beta-globulins, and gamma-globulins.

WATER SOLUBLE 26. Vitamin B1 Thiamine

The proteins are fixed in the medium, stained, and

27. Vitamin B2 Riboflavin

then quantified using a densitometer. Ciulla

28. Vitamin B6 Pyridoxine, pyridoxal 29. Niacin

51. MUDPILES mnemonics for remembering causes of

30. Folic acid

INCREASED ANION GAP (Tietz, Larson):

31. Vitamin B12 - Cyanocobalamin

M - Methanol

32. Vitamin B 7/ vitamin H - Biotin

U - Uremia

33. Pantothenic acid

D - Diabetic ketoacidosis

34. Vitamin C - Ascorbic acid

P - Paraldehyde

----------------

I - Iron, inhalants (carbon monoxide, cyanide,

35. Deficiency of vitamin A - night blindness,

toluene, isoniazid, ibuprofen)

xerophthalmia

L - Lactic acidosis

36. Deficiency of vitamin D - rickets (young),

E - Ethylene glycol, ethanol ketoacidosis

osteomalacia (adult)

S - Salicylates, starvation ketoacidosis,

37. Deficiency of vitamin K - hemorrhagic diseases

sympathomimetics

38. Deficiency of Thiamine - Beriberi, Wernicke-

---------------------

Korsakoff syndrome

52. Liver transplants are monitored by liver

39. Deficiency of Niacin - Pellagra

enzymes, cholesterol and bilirubin.

40. Deficiency of Folic acid - Megaloblastic anemia

53. Pancreatic transplants are monitored for

and neural tube defects

pancreatic enzymes (amylase and lipase) or insulin

41. Deficiency of Cyanocobalamin - pernicious and

production (ex. C-peptide levels)

megaloblastic anemia, neuropathy

--------------------

54. LABORATORY FINDINGS IN HEMOLYTIC JAUNDICE

60. The majority of cases of CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC

a. Increased unconjugated bilirubin

LEUKEMIA (CLL) appear to involve the B lymphocyte.

b, Increased AST and LDH

Take note:

c. Decreased haptoglobin

a. CLL: most common appear to involve the B

d. Increased urine urobilinogen

lymphocyte

e. Increased reticulocytes, decreased hemoglobin,

b. ALL: most common is the early pre-B cell or

positive DAT

common ALL

-------------------55. ACUTE INTERSTITIAL NEPHRITIS Hematuria, possibly macroscopic Mild to moderate proteinuria

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Numerous WBCs, and WBC casts without bacteria. INCREASED URINARY EOSINOPHILS On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:42 PM, Armeena Rosa 56. ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS

Garcia <[email protected]> wrote:

Mild proteinuria, microscopic hematuria RTE CELLS and RTE CELL CASTS

Key word: SPICY

Hyaline, granular, waxy, and broad casts

Ang Turn Around Time (TAT).. Pre-analytical, Analytical or Post-analytical

57. NEPHROTIC SYNDROME

variable?

Massive proteinuria ( >3.5 g/d)

-post ana

Low levels of serum albumin, high levels of serum lipids, and edema

Marked proteinuria

CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE

Urinary fat droplets; oval fat bodies; renal tubular

PROLONGED APTT OR PT..

epithelial (RTE) cells; epithelial, fatty, and waxy

Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN

casts; and microscopic hematuria

1. From Rodak

Oval fat bodies

a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor

------------------------

deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin

58. Anti–double-stranded DNA (ds-DNA) antibodies are

deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the

specific for SLE and are observed at a frequency of

fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less.

75%–90% in SLE patients with active disease. Current

b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are

methods used are radioimmunoassay, indirect

associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in

immunofluorescence on Crithidia luciliae, and

prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. CRITHIDIA

reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin;

LUCILAE

and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or less.

59. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) a.Early pre-B cell or common ALL accounts for 60 to

2. From Brown

70% of all cases (CD 10)

a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen

b. T cell leukemias account for 10 to 20% of the

concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of

cases

dysfibrinogenemia.

c. Rarest subclass is B-cell leukemia, and it

b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in

represents the L3 variant of the FAB classification

fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or

(Burkitt’s type)

lower will cause a prolonged APTT.

KEY WORD: SPICY

Urine sediment may be “telescoped,” that is, may

HEMATOLOGY AND PHLEBOTOMY BOOKS

display all types of cells and casts in lupus

RODAK, TURGEON OR McCALL TAYO?

nephritis or with a hypersensitivity reaction.

1. RODAK: The patient has the right to refuse to

Telescoped Sediment. This term is used to describe

give a blood specimen. If gentle urging does not

the simultaneous occurrence of elements of

persuade the patient to allow blood to be drawn, the

glomerulonephritis and those of nephrotic syndrome

phlebotomist should alert the nurse, who will either

in the same urine specimen. A telescoped sediment

talk to the patient or notify the physician. The

might therefore include red cells, red cell casts,

phlebotomist must not try to force an uncooperative

cellular casts, broad waxy casts, lipid droplets,

patient to have blood drawn; it can be unsafe for

oval fat bodies, and fatty casts. Such sediment may

the phlebotomist and for the patient. In addition,

be found in collagen vascular disease (notably lupus

forcing a patient of legal age and sound mind to

nephritis) and subacute bacterial endocarditis.

have blood drawn against his or her wishes can

2. STRASINGER

result in charges of assault and battery or unlawful

An abundance of granular, waxy, and broad casts,

restraint.

often referred to as a telescoped urine sediment.

2. TURGEON: Refusal by the patient to have blood drawn. The response to this problem is to politely

KEY WORD: SPICY

excuse yourself from the patient’s room, note the

CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE

refusal on the requisition, and notify the

PROLONGED APTT OR PT..

hematology supervisor.

Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN

3. McCALL: There are times when a phlebotomist is

1. From Rodak

not able to collect a specimen from a patient even

a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor

before attempting venipuncture. Occasionally, a

deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin

patient will refuse to have blood drawn. Other

deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the

times, the patient may be unavailable because he or

fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less.

she has gone to surgery or for another test, as in

b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are

radiology. Whatever the reason, if the specimen

associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in

cannot be obtained, notify the patient’s nurse or

prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of

physician. You may be required to fill out a form

reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin;

stating that the specimen was not obtained and the

and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or

reason why. The original form is placed in the

less.

patient’s chart and the laboratory retains a

2. From Brown

copy.

a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen

(ANSWER from McCall, Chapter 8, no. 6 is B)

The following are the most common and generally

concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of

accepted reasons for inability to obtain a specimen:

dysfibrinogenemia.

• Phlebotomist attempted but was unable to draw

b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in

blood.

fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or

• Patient refused to have blood drawn.

lower will cause a prolonged APTT.

• Patient was unavailable. KEY WORD: SPICY KEY WORD: SPICY HENRY vs. STRASINGER. Malaki na kayo..

From Rodak:

1. HENRY

1. PRP: centrifuged at 50 g for 30 minutes 2. PPP: centrifuged at 1500 x g for 15 minutes in a swinging bucket centrifuge

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad

often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?

On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:41 PM, Armeena Rosa Garcia <[email protected]> wrote: KEY WORD PEANUT

A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia D. Acute monocytic leukemia

What is the most abundant amino acid in the body, being involved in more metabolic processes than any other amino acid? A. Alanine B. Glutamine C. Serine D. Tyrosine Tests for fecal occult blood are in general use as a screening test for which of the following? A. Breast cancer B. Colorectal cancer C. Enteric infection of the colon D. Malabsorption syndrome In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after: A. 30 minutes B. 45 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 120 minutes

Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase? A. Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus C. Klebsiella and Enterobacter D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to: A. All testing done to the patient to save time B. All lab testing done in the central lab C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside D. Satellite lab testing Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens? A. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands C. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat

Pyuria: A. Protein in urine B. Glucose in urine C. WBCs in urine D. Casts in urine "Suicide sac" within the cell: A. Mitochondria B. Golgi bodies C. Lysosome D. Nucleus

D. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area In addition to performing hemoglobin electrophoresis, a solubility test may be performed to detect the presence of what hemoglobin? A. A, B. C C. F D. S

Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead screening?

What condition is characterized by an elevation of

A. Whole blood

total bilirubin primarily due to an increase in the

B. Hair

conjugated bilirubin fraction?

C. Serum

A. Hemolyticjaundice

D. Urine

B. Neonatal jaundice C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Select the most appropriate single screening test

D. Obstructive jaundice

for thyroid disease. A. Free thyroxine index

Which of the following reagent systems contains the

B. Total T3 assay

components sulfanilic acid, hydrochloric acid, and

C. Total T4

sodium nitrite?

D. TSH assay

A. Jaffe B. Zimmerman

Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid:

C. Diazo

A. Phenylalanine

D. Lowry

B. Methionine C. Tyrosine

What term is used to describe the accumulation of

D. Histidine

bilirubin in the skin? A. Jaundice

Of the total serum calcium, free ionized calcium

B. Hemolysis

normally represents approximately what percent?

C. Cholestasis

A. 10

D. Kernicterus

B. 40 C. 50

If elevated, which laboratory test would support a

D. 90

diagnosis of congestive heart failure? A. Homocysteine

Of the total serum osmolality, sodium, chloride, and

B. Troponin

bicarbonate ions normally contribute approximately

C. Albumin cobalt binding

what percent?

D. B-type natriuretic peptide

A. 8 B. 45

Which of the following enzymes does not belong to

C. 75

the class of enzymes known as the hydrolases?

D. 92

A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Aldolase

Which of the following characterizes Crigler-Najjar

C. Amylase

syndrome?

D. Lipase

A. Inability to transport bilirubin from the sinusoidal membrane to the microsomal region

To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase

B. Deficiency of the enzyme system required for

belong?

conjugation of bilirubin

A. Isomerases

C. Inability to transport bilirubin glucuronides to

B. Ligases

the bile canaliculi

C. Oxidoreductases

D. Severe liver cell damage accompanied by necrosis

D. Transferases

In which of the following sets of nematodes can each Which test may be performed to assess the average

organism cause a pneumonia-like syndrome in a person

plasma glucose level that an individual maintained

exposed to heavy infection with any of the three

during a previous 2- to 3-month period?

parasites?

A. Plasma glucose

A. Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura, or

B. Two-hour postprandial glucose

Onchocerca volvulus

C. Oral glucose tolerance

B. Enterobius vermicularis, Dracunculus medinensis,

D. Glycated hemoglobin

or Trichuris trichiura C. Strongyloides stercoralis, Wuchereria bancrofti,

What does hydrolysis of sucrose yield?

or Angiostrongylus costaricensis

A. Glucose only

D. Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, or

B. Galactose and glucose

Strongyloides stercoralis

C. Maltose and glucose D. Fructose and glucose

In the collection and transport of stool specimens for parasites, which parasitic stage is most

During chemotherapy for leukemia, which of the

affected by the length of time from collection to

following analytes would most likely be elevated in

examination?

the blood?

A. Cysts

A. Uric acid

B. Trophozoites

B. Urea

C. Oocysts

C. Creatinine

D. Helminth larvae

D. Ammonia Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted Which of the following red cell precursors is the

on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results

last stage to undergo mitosis?

in infection with:

A. Pronormoblast

A. Clonorchis sinensis

B. Basophilic normoblast

B. Fasciola hepatica

C. Polychromatophilic normoblast

C. Heterophyes heterophyes

D. Orthochromatophilic normoblast

D. Paragonimus westermani

The most mature cell that can undergo mitosis is

Which of the following can cause toxic shock

the:

syndrome?

A. Myeloblast

A. C. difficile and C. perfringens

B. Promyelocyte

B. M. pneumoniae and M. tuberculosis

C. Myelocyte

C. N. gonorrhoeae and E. coli

D. Metamyelocyte

D. S. aureus and S. pyogenes

Paragonimus westermani infection is acquired by:

All the following antimicrobial agents work by

A. Drinking contaminated water

inhibiting cell wall synthes is except:

B. Eating infected crustacea

A. cephalosporins

C. Eating infected fish D. Eating infected water chestnuts

B. chloramphenicol C. penicillin D. vancomycin

What components may not be prepared if whole blood

A. Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites

is spun at 1-6C?

B. Schistosoma haematobium eggs

A. Packed red cells

C. Enterobius vermicularis eggs

B. Leukocyte-poor red cells

D. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae

C. Platelets D. FFP

Gram stain from a gum lesion showed what appeared to be amoebae. A trichrome smear showed amoebae with a

One of these disease-causing organisms is killed by

single nucleus and partially digested PMNs. The

refrigeration of stored blood. Which one is it?

correct identification is:

A. Cytomegalovirus

A. Trichomonas tenax

B. Hepatitis B virus

B. Entamoeba histolytica/E. dispar

C. Plasmodium vivax

C. Entamoeba gingivalis

D. Treponema spirochete

D. Entamoeba polecki

Which one of the following anaerobes is inhibited by

Parasitic organisms that are most often transmitted

sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?

sexually include:

A. Bacteroides fragilis

A. Entamoeba gingivalis

B. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

B. Dientamoeba fragilis

C. Propionibacterium acnes

C. Trichomonas vaginalis

D. Veillonella parvula

D. Diphyllobothrium latum

The mycobacteria that produce a deep yellow or

Charcot–Leyden crystals in stool may be associated

orange pigment both in the dark and light are:

with an immune response and are thought to be formed

A. Photochromogens

from the breakdown products of:

B. Scotochromogens

A. Neutrophils

C. Nonchromogens

B. Eosinophils

D. Rapid growers

C. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes

The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of the following?

Which of the following pairs of helminths cannot be

A. Chickenpox

reliably differentiated by the appearance of their

B. Hodgkin lymphoma

eggs?

C. Burkitt lymphoma

A. Ascaris lumbricoides and Necator americanus

D. Smallpox

B. Hymenolepis nana and H. diminuta C. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale

The examination of sputum may be necessary to

D. Diphyllobothrium latum and Fasciola hepatica

diagnose infection with: A. Paragonimus westermani

A 15-um pear-shaped flagellate with a visible

B. Trichinella spiralis

parabasal body and "falling leaf" motility in a

C. Wuchereria bancrofti

direct saline mount of a diarrheal stool specimen is

D. Fasciola hepatica

most probably A. Balantidium coli

Examination of 24-hour unpreserved urine specimen is

B. Chilomastix mesnili

sometimes helpful in the recovery of:

C. Giardia lamblia

D. Trichomonas hominis Which of the following is the largest intestinal Which stage of Taenia saginata is usually infective

protozoa infecting humans?

for humans?

A. Balantidium coli

A. Cysticercus larva

B. Dientamoeba fragilis

B. Embryonated egg

C. Entamoeba histolytica

C. Filariform larva

D. Giardia lamblia

D. Rhabditiform larva Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective for Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is caused

humans?

by

A. Proglottid

A. Tiypanosoma brucei

B. Filariform larva

B. Trypanosoma cruzi

C. Rhabditiform larva

C. Leishmania braziliensis

D. Embryonated ovum

D. Dracunculus medinensis A free-living ameba that causes primary amebic Which of the following is the vector for Babesia?

meningoencephalitis is

A. Fleas

A. Dientamoeba fragilis

B. Lice

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Ticks

C. Entamoeba histolytica

D. Mosquitoes

D. Naegleria fowleri

Hematuria is a typical sign of human infection

Which species of Plasmodium may readily be

caused by

identified when crescent-shaped gametocytes are

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

found in stained blood films?

B. Trichinella spiralis

A. P. falciparum

C. Trichomonas vaginalis

B. P. malariae

D. Schistosoma haematobium

C. P. ovale D. P. vivax

Which of the following nematode parasites is acquired from eating inadequately cooked, infected

For which of the following diseases is close contact

pork?

with an infected human host the most important

A. Strongyloides stercoralis

mechanism of transmission?

B. Taenia saginata

A. Schistosomiasis

C. Taenia solium

B. Toxoplasmosis

D. Trichinella spiralis

C. Trichinosis D. Trichomoniasis

Which species of Plasmodium can have exoerythrocytic stages capable of causing relapses months or years

This parasitic infection may result in vitamin B12

after initial infection?

deficiency, and individuals

A. P. falciparum

with pernicious anemia are predisposed to more

B. P. ovale

severe symptoms.

C. P. malariae

A. Diphyllobothrium latum

D. P. cynomolgi

B. Echinococcus granidosus

C. Hymenolepis diminuta D. Taenia saginata

Second most prevalent CSF protein: A. Albumin

Elephantiasis is a complication associated with

B. Prealbumin

which of the following?

C. Transferrin

A. Cysticercosis

D. IgG

B. Guinea worm C. Hydatid cyst disease

Assay for uric acid that requires the use of mercury

D. Filariae

vapor lamp and quartz cuvet: A. Colorimetric

Which Schistosoma species has a large terminal

B. Enzymatic: UV

spine?

C. Enzymatic: H2O2

A. S. haematobium

D. None of these

B. S. japonicum C. S. mansoni

This is used to determine whether there is a

D. S. mekongi

statistically significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data. A. Mean

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B. Median C. f-test

On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:40 PM, Armeena Rosa Garcia <[email protected]> wrote: POPCORN

It can be used in the treatment of burn patients to replace colloid pressure: A. Whole blood

D. t-test Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units. A. 0.4 B. 4 C. 40 D. 400

B. Packed red blood cells C. Cryoprecipitate D. Albumin

How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC count is below 1.0 x 10 9th/L? A. 50

45 seconds reading time: A. Glucose B. Ketone C. Specific gravity D. pH Normally, measurable amounts of this substance DO NOT appear in the urine: A. Ketones

B. 100 C. 150 D. 200 In an automated instrument, this parameter is calculated rather than directly measured: A. RBC count B. WBC count C. Hemoglobin D. Hematocrit

B. Protein C. Urobilinogen D. All of these

The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic environment.

A. Anti-S

A. Multiple myeloma

B. Anti-U

B. Encephalitis

C. Anti-N

C. Neurosyphilis

D. Anti-M

D. Guillain-Barre disease

He invented the Cambridge microtome:

When encountering a patient with a fistula, the

A. Minot

phlebotomist should:

B. Adams

A. Apply the tourniquet below the fistula

C. Trefall

B. Use the other arm

D. Queckett

C. Collect the blood from the fistula D. Attach a syringe to the T-tube connector

It is a surgical connection between two structures. It usually means a connection that is created

Physician approval is required when collecting blood

between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or

from:

loops of intestine.

A. Patients with diabetes

A. Anastomosis

B. Lower arm veins

B. Network

C. Foot and leg veins

C. Matrix

D. Pediatric patients

D. Reticulum Sperm motility grading: "no forward progression" Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC), which is __________ in

A. 0

color, is a common chromogen for peroxidases which

B. 1

should be made fresh immediately before use.

C. 2

A. Red

D. 3

B. Brown C. Orange

Positive control for Simmons Citrate test:

D. Pink

A. E. coli B. K. pneumoniae

Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to

C. P. aeruginosa

differentiate:

D. S. aureus

A. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp. B. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.

Positive for the cyanide nitroprusside test:

C. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp.

A. Uric acid crystals

D. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

B. Cystine C. Tyrosine

Characteristically, species from the genus

D. Leucine

Enterococcus are: A. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl

In galactosuria:

B. Bile esculin positive

A. Positive copper reduction and reagent strip

C. Relatively sensitive to penicillin

glucose

D. Sodium hippurate negative

B. Negative copper reduction and reagent strip glucose

Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not

C. Positive copper reduction, negative reagent strip

in serum, except:

glucose

D. Negative copper reduction, positive reagent strip glucose

The crystal associated with ethylene oxide poisoning has which characteristic appearance:

Centrifugation time for microhematocrit:

A. Envelope, pyramidal

A. 3 minutes

B. Dumbbell

B. 5 minutes

C. Coffin lid

C. 10 minutes

D. Hexagonal

D. 30 minutes A laboratory worker splashes concentrated HCl in his Common among Asians:

eyes. The best safety measure is to:

A. dce

A. Wash the eye with dilute NaOH and call physician

B. dCe

STAT

C. Dce

B. Wash the eye with distilled water and call a

D. DCe

physician STAT C. Wash the eye with dilute acetic acid and call a

The presence of distinct "drumstick" appendage on

physician STAT

the nucleus of a mature neutrophil indicates:

D. Call the physician and wait for his advice.

A. Reaction to a toxic material B. Reaction to bacteria in the blood or tissues

Media that contain factors (e.g., carbohydrates)

C. A genetic defect in nuclear maturation

that give colonies of particular organisms

D. The presence of a second X chromosome (female

distinctive characteristics are called:

sex)

A. Enrichment media. B. Differential media.

High levels of ketones are usually accompanied by

C. Supportive media.

marked:

D. Selective media.

A. Albuminuria B. Glycosuria

Colorless dumbbell crystals in an alkaline urine:

C. Cylindruria

A. Calcium phosphate

D. Pyuria

B. Calcium carbonate C. Triple phosphate

Decreased production of erythropoietin by the

D. Ammonium biurate

damaged kidney: A. Anemia of chronic disease

Absence of Philadelphia chromosome in patients with

B. Anemia of renal insufficiency

CML:

C. Anemia in liver disease

A. Better prognosis of the disease

D. Anemia in endocrine disease

B. Poor prognosis of the disease C. It varies

It reflects decreased marrow production due to

D. No effect

smaller tissue oxygen requirement and subsequent reduced erythropoietin production:

Effect of decreased temperature to fluorescence:

A. Anemia of chronic disorders

A. No effect

B. Anemia of renal insufficiency

B. Variable

C. Anemia in endocrine disease

C. Decreased fluorescence

D. Anemia in liver disease

D. Increased fluorescence

In automated cell counters based on electrical Mistaken as Blastomyces in sputum:

impedance, these parameters are directly measured:

A. Eosinophil

A. WBC and RBC

B. Lymphocyte

B. WBC, RBC, and hemoglobin

C. Myelin globules

C. WBC and hemoglobin

D. Pigmented cells

D. RBC only

What could be the possible interpretation?

A component of acetest tablet:

HBsAg: negative

A. Copper sulfate

Anti-HBc: positive

B. Sodium hydroxide

Anti-HBs: positive

C. Lactose

A. Recovering from acute HBV infection

D. Sodium carbonate

B. Immune because of natural infection C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination

All are components of CLINITEST tablet, except:

D. Chronically infected

A. Copper sulfate B. Sodium hydroxide

For albumin assay, absorbance at 630 nm is less

C. Lactose

likely to be affected by bilirubin or hemoglbin in

D. Sodium carbonate

the sample. Which dye gives a much greater absorbance change at 630 nm than it would at 500

Hyperproteinemic or hyperlipidemic specimen:

nm?

A. Hyponatremia

A. HABA (Hydroxyazobenzene-benzoic acid)

B. Hypernatremia

B. BCG (Bromcresol green)

C. Pseudohyponatremia D. Pseudohypernatremia

Minor lipoproteins: A. LpX and HDL

Common among Ashkenazi Jews:

B. HDL and LDL

A. Parahemophilia

C. VLDL and chylomicrons

B. Hemophilia A

D. IDL and Lp(a)

C. Hemophilia B D. Hemophilia C

Dilution for WBC count in automated cell counters: A. 1: 10,000

A result of 4.5 Ehrlich unit is equivalent to:

B. 1: 100

A. 0.45 mg/dL

C. 1: 50,000

B. 4.5 mg/dL

D. 1: 500

C. 45

mg/dL

D. 450 mg/dL Disorders involving the macrophages and monocytes, except:

To evaluate urine color and clarity:

A. Gaucher

A. Check the urine with a white background

B. Pelger-Huet

B. Check the urine with a newsprint

C. Niemann-Pick

C. Check the urine with a black background

D. Alder-Reilly

D. Check the urine with a polarizing light

What is the the most widely used sedimentation

A. 405 grams

technique?

B. 416 grams

Zeibig: Formalin–ethyl acetate sedimentation

C. 429 grams

procedure.

D. 583 grams

Diluents for synovial fluid cell count:

Enzyme with moderate specificity for the heart,

1. Normal saline (0.9%) with methylene blue

skeletal muscles, brain:

2. Hyptonic saline (0.3%)

CK

3. Saline with saponin 4. Acetic acid

Enzyme with moderate specificity for the liver,

A. 1 and 3

heart, skeletal muscles:

B. 2 and 4

AST

C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

What is the substrate used in the classic CherryCrandall method for lipase determination?

Not included in the Code of Ethics:

Olive oil

A. Reliability B. Integrity C. Honesty D. Humility

Alcohol level: Decreased inhibitions, loss of critical judgment, memory impairment, diminished reaction time: A. 0.09 – 0.25

WBC casts without bacteria: A. Cystitis B. Acute glomerulonephritis

B. 0.18 – 0.30 C. 0.27 – 0.40 D. 0.35 – 0.50

C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Acute interstitial nephritis

Decreased aldosterone: A. High serum sodium and potassium

DONOR CRITERIA FOR PLASMAPHERESIS

B. Low serum sodium and potassium

Frequent plasma donors have a total serum protein of

C. Low serum sodium, high serum potassium

at least ___ g/dL:

D. High serum sodium, low serum potassium

A. 2 g/dL B. 3 g/dL C. 6 g/dL D. 10 g/dL

A major advantage of POCT is: A. Faster turnaround time B. Lower cost C. Ease of use

Rouleaux formation can be observed in all of the

D. Both A and B

following, EXCEPT: A. Reverse ABO typing B. Autologous control C. AHG phase D. None of these

The National Cholesterol Education has established cutoffs LDL cholesterol coronary cutoff

A unit containing 405 mL blood should weigh: (answer, and give us the factor)

Program (NCEP)

for total cholesterol and

to define persons at high risk for

heart disease later in life. What is the

for a desirable LDL cholesterol

concentration?

A.

<130 mg/dL

3. Bacterial and non-bacterial organisms

B.

<160 mg/dL

A. 1 and 2

C.

<200 mg/dL

B. 1 and 3

D.

>130 mg/dL

C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3

Ninety percent (90%) of the carbon dioxide

present in the blood is in the form of:

CYTOKINES are produced by many cell populations

A. Bicarbonate ions*

(endothelial cells, fibroblasts, epithelial cells,

B. Carbonate

and others), they are MAINLY THE PRODUCTS OF:

C. Dissolved CO2.

A. B cells

D. Carbonic acid

B. Macrophages C. B cells and macrophages

Calculation of the anion gap is useful for

quality

D. T cells and macrophages

control for: A. Calcium

Susceptibility to Autoimmune Diseases is usually

B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium,

linked to:

potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)*

A. HLA Class I alleles

C. Phosphorus

B. HLA Class II alleles

D. Magnesium

C. HLA Class III alleles D. NOTA

All are variables needed in the Cockroft and Gault formula except:

All of the following are metallic mordants, except:

A. Age

A. Iron

B. Body weight in kilograms

B. Iodine

C. Serum creatinine

C. Alum

D. Urine creatinine

D. Copper

Proportional systematic error

Macrocytes sediment ____ than microcytes

A. t test

A. Faster

B. f test

B. Slower

C. Y intercept

C. Same

D. Slope

D. No effect

When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud's dextrose

Cortisol level in PM is ______ than in AM

agar, which of the following should not be in the

(morning).

medium?

A. Higher

A. Trimethoprim

B. Lower

B. Cycloheximide

C. Same

C. Vancomycin

D. Variable

D. Aminoglycoside

PEAK 8 am to 9 am TROUGH (low) 10 pm to 11 pm

Broad-spectrum antibiotics act against: 1. Gram-negative bacteria

Urine microscopic examination reveals 4+ bacteria,

2. Gram-positive bacteria

but nitrite reagent pad is negative. Culture reveals

growth of E.coli. What is the most probable reason for the negative nitirite result?

The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:

A. E. coli lacks the reductase enzyme

a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic

B. Number of bacteria not enough to produce a (+)

b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen

nitrite

c. After addition of salicylic acid

C. Further reduction of nitrite to nitrogen

d. After the specimen cools to room temperature

D. Improperly preserved urine sample Which of the following locations is not a site of In the acetamide test, the production of _____

extramedullary hematopoiesis?

results in an alkaline pH,

A. Bone marrow

causing the medium to change color from green to

B. Liver

royal blue.

C. Spleen

A. Acetamide

D. Thymus

B. Citrate C. Urea

Laboratory professionals are at special risk for

D. Ammonia

disease transmission. The majority of cases of laboratory-related infections are associated with:

Effect of overanticoagulation on Hemoglobin

A. Contamination of abraded skin

(Cyanmethb method) determination:

B. Puncture of wounds

A. Increased

C. Ingestion of infectious material

B. Decreased

D. Infectious areosols

C. No effect

E. Bite of a laboratory test animal

D. Variable Decreased ESR at hematocrit but NOT Hb

Association with AIDS is most characteristic of: A. M. avium-intracellulare

Roundworn that inhabits the small intestines and

B. M. marinum

usually demonstrated as rhabditiform larva in

C. M. bovis

stool:

D. M. xenopi

A. A. lumbricoides B. N. americanus

Anemia characterized by accumulation of iron in the

C. T. spiralis

mitochondria of the eythroid precursors due to a

D. S. stercoralis

defect in HEME synthesis: A. Iron deficiency anemia

Reagent used in APT test:

B. Sideroblastic anemia

A. Sulfuric acid

C. Aplastic anemia

B. Hydrochloric acid

D. Pure red cell aplasia

C. Potassium hydroxide D. Sodium hydroxide

The blood bank reports that samples of banked blood stored at refrigerator temperature have become

Possible problem if sperm clumping was observed:

contaminated with a nonfermentative gram-negative

A. Sperm vitality

bacillus. The organisms known to be implicated in

B. Lack of support medium

such cases are:

C. Male antisperm antibodies

A. Pseudomonas fluorescens and Pseudomonas putida

D. Female antisperm antibodies

B. Alcaligenes faecalis and Alcalignes odorans

C. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus spp anitratus and

B. Decreased serum iron and increased TIBC *

lwoffi

C. Increased serum iron and decreased TIBC

D. Pseudomonas cepacia and Pseudomonas stutzeri

D. Increased serum iron and increased TIBC

First morning urine, except:

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

A. Pregnancy test

The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) test is

B. Evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria

performed to assess the blood level of:

C. Nitrate determination

A. Ferritin

D. Urobilinogen determination

B. Hemopexin C. Iron

A chemical that confirms phosphate stones:

D. Transferrin

A. Sodium cyanide B. Mercuric iodide

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

C. Ammonium molybdate

Which protein is produced in decreased amount in

D. Neocuproine

Wilson's disease? A. Albumin

Colorless dumbbell and spherical crystals in an

B. Ceruloplasmin

alkaline urine:

C. Haptoglobin

A. Ammonium biurate

D. Hemopexin

B. Calcium carbonate C. Triple phosphate

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

D. Amorphous phosphate

Which electrolyte plays a major role in the regulation of water balance in the body?

All laboratory procedures and policies must be

A. Chloride

reviewed and documented at least:

B. Phosphorus

a. Monthly or when authorized changes are made

C. Potassium

b. Annually or when authorized changes are made

D. Sodium

c. Whenever the personnel make changes in procedure d. Quarterly or when authorized changes are made

KEY WORD: CALBREATH The androgen that is the most biologically active

Indirect cost or overhead:

is:

1. Reagents, consumables

A. Androstenedione

2. Technologists' time, MT labor cost

B. Androsterone

3. QC necessary to ensure test accuracy

C. Dehydroepiandrosterone

4. Maintenance and repairs to equipment

D. Testosterone

A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

C. 1, 2 and 4

The physiologically active from of calcium is:

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A. Complexed B. Ionized

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

C. Lipid-bound

Which of the following characterize iron-deficiency

D. Protein-bound

anemia? A. Decreased serum iron and decreased TIBC

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

Which trace metal accumulates in Wilson's disease?

1053. Parathyroid effect on serum calcium: (1) Bone,

A. Cobalt

(2) Kidney and (3) Intestines

B. Copper

a. Bone: Resorption of calcium and phosphate

C. Nickel

b. Kidney: Direct enhancement of calcium and

D. Zinc

magnesium tubular reabsorption; direct blockage of phosphate tubular reabsorption; increased vitamin D

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

metabolite formation

An integral part of the transmission of nerve

c. Intestine: Stimulation of vitamin D metabolite

impulses:

synthesis – leads to enhanced gastrointestinal

A. Iron

uptake of calcium

B. Phosphorus

1054. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

C. Potassium

a. This common disorder can present in many ways:

D. Sodium

infertility, hirsutism, chronic anovulation, glucose intolerance, hyperlipidemia or dyslipidemia, and

Decreased neutral α-glucosidase in seminal fluid indicates disorder involving the: A. Testes B. Epididymis C. Bulbourethral gland D. Urethra

hypertension. b. Investigations for this disorder involve estimation of free testosterone, SHBG, FSH, LH, fasting glucose, insulin, and lipid levels. c. Ovarian ultrasound reveals multiple cysts in many patients (about 30% of patients do not have ovarian cysts). d. Most patients with this disorder are overweight; however, patients with polycystic ovary syndrome

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(PCOS) of eastern Asian or South American descent are of normal weight.

On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:40 PM, Armeena Rosa

1055. HIRSUTISM is abnormal, abundant, androgen-

Garcia <[email protected]> wrote:

sensitive terminal hair growth in areas in which terminal hair follicles are sparsely distributed or

KEYWORD: HASHBROWNS (continuation)

not normally found in women. Most commonly, hirsutism is idiopathic in etiology (60% of cases),

1051. The chief extracellular anions are chloride

with PCOS the next most common cause (35%).

and bicarbonate, and there is a RECIPROCAL

1056. ARTERIAL BLOOD GAS PATTERN

relationship between them: A DECREASE IN THE AMOUNT

a. MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION: Low pO2 and metabolic

OF ONE PRODUCES AN INCREASE IN THE AMOUNT OF THE

acidosis.

OTHER.

The drop in PO2 is caused by diminished circulation

1052. Serum calcium and phosphorus generally

times – that is, the rate of oxygenation of venous

maintain a reciprocal relationship.

blood is reduced. The acidosis is caused by low

a. Primary hyperparathyroidism or some cases of

perfusion of oxygenated blood due to compromised

malignancy: INCREASED CALCIUM, DECREASED PHOSPHATE

cardiac output.

b. BUT if calcium increase is due to renal failure,

b. In PULMONARY EMPBOLISM: Low pO2 and metabolic

phosphate values also rise; both calcium and

acidosis.

phosphate values are elevated in cases of multiple

The low pO2 is caused by direct blockage of blood

myeloma and vitamin D overdose, as well as in cases

flow into the pulmonary circuit. The acidosis is

of cancers that metastasize to bone.

caused by low oxygen saturation in the lungs with subsequent diminished oxygen delivery to tissues.

c. Both conditions, MI and PE, result in tissue

a. Positive: Growth and blackening of the agar

hypoxia.

slant b. Negative: no blackening. no growth 1068. Group A / S. pyogenes - Large zone of beta hemolysis on BAP 1069. Group B / S. agalactiae – Narrow zone of beta hemolysis on BAP 1070. DCIS and LCIS Breast Cancer STAGE 0 a. DCIS – ductal carcinoma in situ

1057. Urine specimens with high specific gravity

b. LCIS – lobular carcinoma in situ

greater than the refractometer or urinometer scale can be diluted and retested. a. Only the decimal portion of the observed SG is

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multiplied by the dilution factor. b. For example, a specimen diluted 1:2 with a reading of 1.025 would have an actual specific gravity of 1.050. c. For example, a specimen diluted 1:5 with a

On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:31 PM, Armeena Rosa Garcia <[email protected]> wrote: HASHBROWNS

reading of 1.008 would have an actual specific gravity of 1.040

1.Double embedding: Infiltrated with CELLOIDIN then

1058. Renal threshold for glucose is 160 to 180

embedded with PARAFFIN.

mg/dL.

2. Flotation waterbath: 45 to 50 C

1059. Positive result for ketone (sodium

3. To remove formalin pigments: Picric acid

nitroprusside) pad is PURPLE.

4. To remove mercurial deposits: Iodine

1060. Major ketone body in urine is BHA.

5. Explosive when dry: Picric acid

1061. Ketone not detected with sodium nitroprusside

6. Function of alum in hematoxylin: Mordant

reagent pad is BHA.

7. Primary importance of Frozen Sections: RAPID

1062. Largest cell in the urine sediment is SQUAMOUS

DIAGNOSIS

EPITHELIAL CELL.

8. Enzyme histochemistry: Frozen section

1063. Lead poisoning – elevated ALA, protoporphyrin

9. Second best choice for routine cytologic

1064. Normal value for CSF protein is 15 to 45

examination after Papanicolau: Phase contrast

mg/dL.

microscopy

1065. Gastric Acidity:

10. NOT SUITABLE for kidney structures: Bouin's

a. Parietal cells – produces HCl and intrinsic

11. Cell death due to ischemia (loss of blood

factor

supply) is known as infarction, and is manifested by

b. Chief cells – produces pepsinogen that is

caharacteristic histologic appearance: COAGULATION

activated by HCl to pepsin

NECROSIS

c. Specialized G cells – produces gastrin that

12. Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea:

stimulates parietal cells to produce HCl.

Clostridium difficile

1066. Bile solubility test (+S. pneumoniae)

13. Corynebacterium amycolatum: Most frequently

a. Positive: Colony disintegrates; an imprint of the

recovered Corynebacterium species from human

lysed colony may remain in the zone

clinical material. It is part of the normal skin

b. Negative: Intact colonies

microbiota.

1067. Bile esculin test (+Group D)

14. Primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients: Candida albicans.

15. Doublewalled, wrinkled cyst form: Acanthamoeba

34. Donor deferral, German measles (Rubella)

castellanii

vaccination: 4 weeks

16. Intracellular form of blood and tissue

35. When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin stain,

flagellates: leishmanial form

GLITTER CELLS stain LIGHT BLUE as opposed to the

17. Normal stool pH: pH 7 to 8

VIOLET COLOR usually seen with NEUTROPHILS.

18. Stool pH associated with CHO disorders: pH 5.5

35. After episodes of hemoglobinuria, yellow-brown

or less

granules may be seen in renal tubular epithelial

19. Microhematocrit: 10,000 g for 5 minutes

cells and casts or free-floating in the urine

20. Standing plasma test: creamy layer

sediment. To confirm that these granules are

(chylomicrons); turbid (VLDL)

hemosiderin, the Prussian blue stain for iron is

21. Microanatomical fixatives should never contain

used and stains the hemosiderin granules a blue

osmic acid/osmium tetroxide because it inhibits

color. (RTE cells with HEMOSIDERIN).

hematoxylin.

36. Second most prevalent protein in CSF: Prealbumin

22. Nuclear fixatives should contain glacial acetic

(transthyretin)

acid due to its affinity for nuclear chromatin.

37. MECONIUM, which is usually defined as a

23. Cytoplasmic fixatives (Flemming's without HAc,

newborn’s first bowel movement, is formed in the

Regaud's, Orth's, Helly's and formalin with post-

intestine from fetal intestinal secretions and

chroming). They should never contain Glacial Acetic

swallowed amniotic fluid. It is a dark green, mucus-

Acid because it destroys the mitochondria and Golgi

like material. It may be present in the amniotic

bodies.

fluid as a result of fetal distress.

24. Manual paraffin wax infiltration and embedding:

38. Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an

At least four (4) changes of wax are required at 15

arm with a cannula (temporary dialysis access

minutes interval to ensure complete removal of the

device) or fistula (a permanent surgical fusion of a

clearing agent from tissue. The specimen is then

vein and an artery).

immersed in another fresh solution of melted

39. Adverse reaction of Aminoglycosides:

paraffin for approximately 3 hours to ensure

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

complete embedding or casting of tissue.

40. TETANY: neuromotor irritability accompanied by

25. Cambridge/Rocking microtome: invented by

muscular twitching and eventual convulsions;

Paldwell Treffall.

generally due to low calcium levels (hypocalcemia)

26. Bond between Best carmine and glycogen:

41. Reagent for the APT test: 1% NaOH

Coulombic attraction/electrostatic bonds, hydrogen

42. APT test: fetal blood, pink solution

bonds

43. APT test: maternal blood, yellow-brown

27. Routine H and E: Regressive staining, it

supernatant

involves a differentiation step

44. Florence test: test for choline

28. Stains for the glomerular basement membrane:

Iodine, KI/ dark brown rhombic crystals

PAS, Azocarmine stain

45. Barbiero's test: test for spermine

29. Postmortem clotting: immediately after death,

Picric acid, TCA/ yellow leafshaped crystals,

rubbery consistency

needles

30. Antemortem thrombi: friable, characterized by

46. Blondheim's test: test to differentiate

fibrin precipitation

hemoglobin from myoglobin, ammonium sulfate will

31. Leadership: DIRECTING

precipitate hemoglobin

32. COMPONENTS OF FIBRIN GLUE: cryoprecipitate

47. Nanometer is also millimicron

(fibrinogen) and topical thrombin

48. Embedding medium for EM is Plastic

33. Donor deferral, measles (rubeola) vaccination: 2

49. Best vital stain is neutral red

weeks

50. Vital stain for mitochondria is Janus Green

51. Ferning: Early pregnancy

74. Addison’s disease: deficiency of adrenocortical

52. Pap's consists of 3 stains: Harris hematoxylin,

hormones

OG 6 and EA

75. Conn’s syndrome: aldosterone-secreting adrenal

53. Total renal BLOOD flow is 1200 mL/min

adenoma

54. Total renal PLASMA flow is 600 to 700 mL/min

76. Cushing’s syndrome: excessive production of

55. Most potent estrogen is Estradiol

glucocorticoids (cortisol) by adrenal cortex

56. Most important androgen in terms of potency and

77. Phaeochromocytoma: tumors of the adrenal medulla

amount secreted is testosterone (Marshall)

or symphatetic ganglia that produce and release

57. Conn syndrome: primary aldosteronism

large quantities of catecholamines

58. Hirsutism: male-pattern hair growth in women;

78. Amenorrhea: cessation of menstruation

most common cause is PCOS (polycystic ovary

79. Cirrhosis: Greek work YELLOW; irreversible

syndrome, Marshall)

scarring process by which normal liver architecture

59. Primary male hypogonadism

is transformed into abnormal nodular architecture

Decreased testosterone

80. Gilbert’s syndrome: hereditary disorder in which

Increased LH and FSH

there is DECREASED BILIRUBIN TRANSPORT into the

60. Secondary male hypogonadism

hepatocytes.

Decreased testosterone

81. Crigler-Najjar syndrome: hereditary DEFICIENCY

Decreased LH and FSH

of the UDPG-TRANSFERASE ENZYME

61. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient

82. Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with

has eaten or become physically active. This is a

increased plasma conjugated bilirubin, inborn error

good time to draw blood specimens because the body

of metabolism

is at rest and food has not been ingested during the

83. Rotor syndrome, possibly of viral origin, where

night.

there is also a block in the excretion of conjugated

62. ACID: substance than can yield a hydrogen ion or

bilirubin but without liver pigmentation

hydronium ion when dissolved in water

84. Wilson’s disease is a defect of copper transport

63. BASE: substance than can yield hydroxyl ions

from the liver resulting in overload of copper in

(OH-)

liver and brain

64. COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES: properties of osmotic

85. Menkes disease is an X-linked recessive disorder

pressure, freezing point, boiling point and vapor

in which defective transport of copper from mucosal

pressure

cells results in copper deficiency.

65. t-test: compare accuracy, mean (TAM)

86. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: chronic autoimmune

66. f-test: compare precision, SD (SPF)

thyroiditis; it is the most common cause of primary

67. Random error: 1:2SD, 1:3SD, R:4S (ODD NUMBERS)

hypothyroidism

68. Systematic error: 2:2SD, 4:1SD, 10:x (EVEN

87. Graves’ disease: diffuse toxic goiter

NUMBERS)

88. Kwashiorkor: acute protein calories malnutrition

69. ZERO-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is dependent

89. Marasmus: caused by caloric insufficiency

on enzyme concentration only

without protein insufficiency so that the serum

70. FIRST-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is directly

albumin level remains normal; there is considerable

proportional to substrate concentration

loss of body weight

71. Arteriosclerosis: thickening or hardening of the

90. Leydig cells: cells of the testicles that

walls of arteries

produce testosterone

72. Atherosclerosis: accumulation of lipid in the

91. CD34: cell membrane marker of stem cells

veins and arteries

92. GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing

73. Azotemia: elevated urea in blood

hemoglobin degradation products such as methemoglobin: ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS

93. ADSORPTION: Providing an antibody with its

110. Leptocyte: thin, flat red cell with hemoglobin

corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so

at periphery and increased central pallor;

that the antibody will attach to the antigen,

hypochromic cell

thereby removing the antibody from the serum

111. Reed-Sternberg cell: presence is definitive

94. ELUTION: process whereby cells that are coated

histologic diagnosis of HODGKIN’S DISEASE

with antibody are treated in such a manner as to

112. Alder-Reilly anomaly: leukocytes of the

disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody

myelocytic series, and sometimes all leukocytes

95. ACID PHOSPHATASE (ACP) and ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE

contain coarse azurophilic mucopolysccharide

(ALP): red blood cell enzyme used as an

granules

identification marker in paternity testing and

113. Auer rod: needle-shaped or round inclusion in

criminal investigation (Harmening)

the cytoplasm of myeloblasts and promyelocytes;

96. AMORPH: gene that does not appear to produce a

composed of condensed primary granules

detectable antigen; a silent gene

114. Chediak-Higashi anomaly: congenital, autosomal

97. ANASTOMOSIS: connection between two blood

recessive disorder, characterized by partial

vessels, either direct or through connecting

albinism, photophobia and the presence of abnormally

channels

large blue granules in leukocytes

98. ANTI-A1 LECTIN: DOLICHOS BIFLORUS

115. May-Hegglin anomaly: autosomal dominant

99. ANTI-B LECTIN: BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA

inherited blood cell disorder characterized by

100. ANTI-H LECTIN: ULEX EUROPAEUS

thrombocytopenia and granules containing cytoplasmic

101. ANTI-M LECTIN: IBERIS AMARA

inclusions similar to Dohle bodies

102. ANTI-N LECTIN: VICIA GRAMINEA

116. Sezary syndrome: cutaneous T CELL LYMPHOMA

103. DOSAGE: phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts

characterized by exfoliative erythroderma,

more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a

peripheral lymphadenopathy and Sezary cells present

double dose (homozygous inheritance of the

in the skin, lymph nodes and peripheral blood

appropriate gene) than with a red blood cell

117. Gaucher’s disease: rare disorder of fat

carrying a single dose (heterozygous inheritance) of

metabolism caused by deficiency of

an antigen

glucocerebrosidase

104. EPITOPE: portion of the antigen molecule that

118. Bernard-Soulier syndrome: mutations to platelet

is directly involved in the interaction with the

GP IB or GP IX, defect of platelet adhesion

antibody; the ANTIGENIC DETERMINANT

119. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia: mutations to

105. PRIVATE ANTIGEN: antigenic characteristic of

platelet GP IIb or IIIa; defect of fibrinogen-

the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an

dependent platelet aggregation

individual or a related family of individuals and

120. Lactoferrin: protein produced by the neutrophis

therefore is not commonly found on all cells

and stored in the secondary granules that is able

(usually less than 1% of the population)

bind iron

106. PUBLIC ANTIGEN: antigen characteristic of the

161. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL

red blood cell membrane found commonly among

162. DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate buffer system

individuals, usually more than 98% of the population

is CARBON DIOXIDE.

107. Apoptosis: programmed cell death

163. TURNAROUND TIME (TAT): time from ordering a

108. Ecchymosis: small hemorrhagic spot, LARGER THAN

test through analysis in the laboratory to the

PETECHIA, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a

charting of the report.

rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also

164. Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a

known as bruise

description of their particular hazard, such as

109. Koilonychia: fingernails are thin, flattened

POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC.

and concave; associated with iron deficiency anemia

165. Information contained in the Material Safety

or renal dysfunction at risk of developing

Data Sheets (MSDS) includes the following: physical

hyperkalemia. The transient hyperkalemia related to

and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion

massive transfusion appear to be related to the

potential, reactivity potential, health hazards and

patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels,

methods for safe handling.

and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells.

166. Urinometer is placed with a SPINNING MOTION.

180. Significant Antibody titer in HDN:

The scale reading is then taken at the BOTTOM OF THE

HARMENING

URINE MENISCUS.

4th edition: significant is 32

167. Studies have shown that although everyone who

5th edition: significant is 16 to 32

eats ASPARAGUS produces a urine odor, ONLY certain

6th edition: critical titer is 16 — with Christian

genetically predisposed people can smell the odor.

Cammayo and Shy Valbuena.

168. CABBAGE urine odor: METHIONINE MALABSORPTION.

181. BENCHMARKING: individual facility COMPARE ITS

169. The heme portion of MYOGLOBIN IS TOXIC TO RENAL

RESULTS WITH THOSE OF ITS PEERS

TUBULES and high concentrations can cause acute

182. MEAN: average value

renal failure.

183. MODE: most frequently occurring value

170. CASTS have tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES OF

184. MEDIAN: middle value within range

THE COVERSLIP.

185. CONSTANT systematic error - y-intercept

171. ETHYLENE GLYCOL (anti-freeze) poisoning:

186. PROPORTIONAL systematic error - SLOPE

MONOHYDRATE CAOX

187. Fungi (dermatophyte) produces macroconidia that

172. TRIPLE PHOSPHATE: coffin-lid or FEATHERY

are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with

APPEARANCE (as they disintegrate)

smooth walls: EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM

173. MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER provides a method for

188. In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors

counting UNDILUTED seminal fluid. Sperms are

with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered

immobilized by heating part of the specimen prior to

UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through

charging the chamber.

surgery).

174. COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA)

189. Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction: either

provides OBJECTIVE determination of both SPERM

Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response

VELOCITY and TRAJECTORY (DIRECTION OF MOTION).

(%RR)

175. A maximum of 30 mL AMNIOTIC FLUID is collected

190. ASCHOFF BODIES are nodules found in the hearts

in sterile syringes. The first 2 to 3 mL collected

of individuals with RHEUMATIC FEVER.

can be contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid

191. MERCURY: must NOT GO through drain disposal

and cells and are discarded.

192. FORMALDEHYDE WASTES: can be recycled by

176. OSMOTIC DIARRHEA: increased RETENTION of water

distillation or by drain disposal, can be detoxified

and solutes in the large intestine associated with

by commercial product, or can be disposed of by

MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION.

licensed waste hauler.

177. SECRETORY DIARRHEA: increased SECRETION of

193. BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK:

water and electrolytes into the large intestine

represent the second X chromosome in females and may

caused by BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS.

be seen in 2 to 3% of neutrophils in FEMALES. The

178. Plasmapheresis donor, total protein at least 6

number of Barr bodies in a cell is one less than the

g/dL.

number of X chromosomes present in a cell.

179. Packed red blood cells LEAK POTASSIUM into the

194. DOHLE BODIES: rough endoplasmic reticulum

plasma or additive solution of the blood component

containing RNA and may represent localized failure

during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of

of the cytoplasm to mature. They are found in

packed red blood cells may put patient populations

infections, poisoning, burns and following

such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic,

chemotherapy.

195. CHEDIAK-HIGASHI: granulocytes usually contain

crystals will indicate FULL SATURATION WITH WATER.

several very large, reddish-purple or greenish-gray

Alcohol is then discarded and changed with fresh

staining granules in the cytoplasm; in the monocytes

solution.

and lymphocytes they stain bluish purple and may be

204. Skeletal muscle contains bundles of very long,

present singly, or there may be several in one cell.

multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their

These granules represent ABNORMAL LYSOSOMES.

contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under

196. Sickling of the RBCs is maximal at 37C and

voluntary control. STRIATED, VOLUNTARY

decreases as the temperature lowers.

205. Cardiac muscle also has cross-striations and is

197. Platelets on top of the red cell should not be

composed of elongated, often branched cells bound to

confused with RBC inclusion body. There is generally

one another at structures called intercalated discs

a nonstaining halo surrounding the platelet when it

that are unique to cardiac muscle. Contraction is

is positioned on top of the RBC.

involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic. STRIATED,

198. ESR: bubbles and fibrin clots, invalid results

INVOLUNTARY

199. HYGROMETERS: measure HUMIDITY

206. Smooth muscle consists of collections of

200. ALCOHOL FIXATIVE CONCENTRATIONS; 70% to 100%

fusiform cells that lack striations and have slow,

because less concentrated solutions will produce

involuntary contractions. NONSTRIATED, INVOLUNTARY

lysis of cells.

207. CASEOUS NECROSIS: cell death produced by the

201. Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s

Tubercle Bacillus. In gross state, the necrotic

solution are commonly used fixatives for nucleic

tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE.

acids.

208. Three (3) major changes that are observed in

202. MICROWAVE: physical agent similar in mechanism

the NUCLEUS: PYKNOSIS, KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation

to vacuum oven (heat) and agitation to increase

and fragmentation) and KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of

movement of molecules and accelerate fixation. It is

the nucleus).

also used to accelerate staining, decalcification,

209. Four (4) phases or stages of CELL DEGENERATION:

immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy.

CLOUDY SWELLING, FATTY DEGENERATION, CELL DEATH OR

* The processing time depends on the thickness and

NECROSIS and CALCIFICATION.

density of the specimen. Reagents used for microwave

210. BM aspiration is performed by a physician and

processing include ethanol, isopropanol and

may be obtained by:

proprietary mixtures of alcohol, and paraffin.

* Needle biopsy: most frequently performed method

Graded concentration of solutions is not required.

* Surgical biopsy

Clearing agents are not necessary because the

* Percutaneous (entering through the skin) TREPINE

temperature of the final paraffin step facilitates

(small object used to remove circular section of

evaporation of the alcohols from the tissue. Xylene

tissue) biopsy (core of bone with accompanying

and formalin are not used in this process, which

marrow is obtained)

eliminates toxic fumes and carcinogens. * Disadvantages of the system include the fact that

ISBB

the process is labor intensive because the solutions

211. Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT

are manually manipulated, temperatures must be

SERUM: anti-M

maintained between 70 and 85°C, and the size of

212. Most common cause of transfusion reactions:

tissue sample is critical (2 mm). Also the cost of

CLERICAL ERRORS

laboratory-grade microwaves may be prohibitive, and

213. Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN: DISCARD THE

proper use of the microwave oven requires careful

UNIT

calibration and monitoring.

214. Noticeable clots in RBC unit: DO NOT ISSUE THE

203. LAST ALCOHOL BATH FOR DEHYDRATION SHOULD BE

UNIT, indication of contamination or bacterial

PURE ETHANOL. A blue discoloration of COPPER SULFATE

growth

215. FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of

240. Last stage in the granulocytic series capable

transfusion reaction: CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS

of mitosis: MYELOCYTE

216. SAGM, ADSOL shelf life: 42 days

241. Youngest cell in the granulocytic series to

217. REJUVENATION or red blood cells may be

NORMALLY appear in peripheral blood: BAND

performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire

242. Preferable site for BM aspiration and biopsy in

218. Preparation of leukopoor RBCs: filtering,

adult: ILIAC CREST

centrifugation and washing

243. Miller disc is an ocular device to facilitate

219. Longest expiration date: FROZEN RBCs

counting of: RETICULOCYTES

220. Component of choice for vWD: CRYOPRECIPITATE

244. Organ that removes erythrocyte inclusions

221. Transfusion of BUFFY COAT IS BEST INDICATED

without destroying the cell: SPLEEN

for: NEWBORNS with severe infections

245. Megaloblastic anemia: MACROCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC

222. Test performed on blood that will be transfused

246. Anemia in sickle cell disease: NORMOCYTIC,

to an acidotic or hypoxic infant: HEMOGLOBIN S

NORMOCHROMIC

223. CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation

247. Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia:

between T cells and sheep RBCs: CD2

MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC

224. Joining (J) chain: IgM and secretory IgA

248. AUTOSPLENECTOMY occurs in SICKLE CELL ANEMIA

225. Ig that helps initiate the classical complement

249. PCH: Anti-P, DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY

pathway: IgM and IgG

250. Major leukocyte in aplastic anemia: LYMPHOCYTES

226. Primary immune response: IgM

251. BITE CELLS in G6PD deficiency

227. Highest titer in secondary response: IgG

252. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: schistocytes

228. Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release

and nucleated RBCs

histamine: IgE

253. ANTIBIOTIC implicated in aplastic anemia:

229. Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test: REAGIN

CHLORAMPHENICOL

230. Test for HIV infection in infants who are born

254. Type of anemia in acute leukemia: NORMOCYTIC,

to HIV-positive mothers: PCR

NORMOCHROMIC

231. Best indicator of early acute HBV infection:

255. Hodgkin’s disease: REED-STERNBERG CELLS

HBsAg

256. Myelofibrosis: TEARDROP RBCs

232. First antibody detected in serum after

257. DIC is most often associated with M3: acute

infection with HBV: anti-HBc

promyelocytic leukemia

233. Blood products are tested for which virus

258. Peripheral smear of patient with MULTIPLE

before being transfused to newborns: CMV

MYELOMA: ROULEAUX

234. Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies: chronic

259. Franklin’s disease: GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE

active hepatitis

260. TRAP: Hairy cell leukemia

235. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): urinary

261. CD 10: Common ALL (CALLA)

bladder cancer

262. PT and APTT result in patient with

HEMATOLOGY

polycythemia: BOTH PROLONGED

236. Last stage in the erythrocytic series capable

263. PRIMARY INHIBITOR OF FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM:

of mitosis: POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN

237. Last nucleated stage in the erythrocytic

264. Lupus anticoagulant is directed against:

series: ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

PHOSPHOLIPID

238. Appearance of primary/nonspecific granules:

265. ASPIRIN inhibits CYCLOOXYGENASE

PROMYELOCYTE 239. Appearance of secondary/specific granules:

HISTOPATH

MYELOCYTE

266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID DIAGNOSIS

267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS

291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA

268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES

292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS,

269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE

AZOCARMINE

OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR

293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE,

270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as

CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE

Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol

294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as

271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for

possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518

TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY

295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used

272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE

animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep,

TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI

horse, guinea pig and others

273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,

296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE

BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES

297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

ESPECIALLY SKIN

CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE

275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,

298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does

MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-

not exceed: 150 mg

containing tissues

299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180

276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative

mg/dL

process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia

300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:

and other bacteria

ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)

277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES

301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND

278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary

SAFRANIN

biopsies

302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates

279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY

303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE

structures, lipid and mucus

GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS

280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.

304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:

SEVENTEEN

PYELONEPHRITIS

281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND

305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin

URGENT BIOPSIES

hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large

282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides

amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID

and nuclear proteins

306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells

283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest

307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy

decalcifying agent

Proteinuria >4 g/day)

284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens

308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:

tissues at the same time

CALCIUM OXALATE

285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most

309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium

sensitive method for determining the extent of

phosphate

decalcification

310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE

286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON

311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial

(PLASTIC MEDIUM)

endotoxin

287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING

312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod

288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately

mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE

6-10C lower than the mp of wax

313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate

289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS

314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate

290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains

315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the

282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides

fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL

and nuclear proteins

316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal

283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest

deficiency

decalcifying agent

317. Most common cause of male infertility:

284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens

VARICOCELE

tissues at the same time

318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s

285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most

stain

sensitive method for determining the extent of

319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN

decalcification

320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:

286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON

ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME

(PLASTIC MEDIUM) 287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING

HISTOPATH

288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately

266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID

6-10C lower than the mp of wax

DIAGNOSIS

289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS

267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS

290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains

268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES

291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA

269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE

292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS,

OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR

AZOCARMINE

270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as

293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE,

Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol

CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE

271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for

294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as

TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY

possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518

272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE

295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used

TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI

animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep,

273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,

horse, guinea pig and others

BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER

296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE

274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

ESPECIALLY SKIN

297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,

CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE

MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-

298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does

containing tissues

not exceed: 150 mg

276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative

299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180

process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia

mg/dL

and other bacteria

300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:

277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES

ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)

278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary

301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND

biopsies

SAFRANIN

279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY

302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates

structures, lipid and mucus

303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE

280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.

GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS

SEVENTEEN

304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:

281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND

PYELONEPHRITIS

URGENT BIOPSIES

305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin

393. Increased eosinophils in CSF: parasitic

hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large

infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES

amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID

IMMITIS

306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells

394. CSF glucose is approximately 60 to 70 percent

307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy

that of plasma glucose

Proteinuria >4 g/day)

395. Normal CSF protein: 15 to 45 mg/dL

308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:

396. Normal concentration of glutamine in CSF: 8 to

CALCIUM OXALATE

18 mg/dL

309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium phosphate

SEMINAL FLUID

310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE

397. Liquefaction within 30 to 60 minutes

311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial

398. Volume 2 to 5 mL

endotoxin

399. pH 7.2 to 8

312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod

400. Sperm morphology: at least 200 sperms should be

mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE

evaluated

313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate

401. Sperm viability, eosin-nigrosin stain, counting

314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate

number of dead cells in 100 sperms

315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the

402. Motility is evaluate in approximately 20 high-

fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL

power fields

316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal

403. Sperm concentration 20 M to 160 M per mL

deficiency

404. Sperm count ≥ 40 M per ejaculate*

317. Most common cause of male infertility:

405. Most common dilution is 1:20 prepared using a

VARICOCELE

MECHANICAL (positive-displacement) rather than a

318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s

Thoma pipette

stain

406. Minimum motility of 50% with a rating of 2.0

319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN

after 1 hour is considered normal

320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:

407. Fructose ≥ 13 umol per ejaculate

ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME

408. Specimens for fructose should be tested within 2 hours or FROZEN to prevent fructolysis

CM: 4th Edition Strasinger

409. RAPE, presence of sperm: (1) enhancing specimen

CEREBROSPINAL FLUID (CSF)

with XYLENE and examining under PHASE MICROSCOPY (2)

386. Approximately 20 mL of CSF is produced every

ACP (3)

hour in the choroid plexuses and reabsorbed by the

specific antigen [PSA]), which is present even in

arachnoid villi

the absence of sperm (4) ABO, DNA

387.

410. Motile sperm can be detected for up to 24 hours

CSF Total volume in adult:

seminal glycoprotein p30 (prostatic

6th edition: 90 to 150 mL

after intercourse, whereas nonmotile sperm can

4th edition: 140 to 170 mL

persist for 3 days. As the sperm die off, only the

388. Total volume in neonate: 10 to 60 mL

heads remain and may be present for 7 days after

389. Normal adult CSF 0 to 5 WBCs/uL

intercourse.

390. Neonates 0 to 30 WBCs/uL 391. Reactive lymphocytes in CSF, viral infections

SYNOVIAL FLUID

392. Moderately elevated WBC count (less than 50

411. Volume less than 3.5 mL

WBCs/uL) with increased normal and reactive

412. Normal: clear and pale yellow

lymphocytes and plasma cells may be indicative of MS

413. Able to form 4 to 6 cm string

or other degenerating neurologic disorders

414. Less than 2,000 RBCs/uL

415. Less than 200 WBCs/uL

BARBARA BROWN

416. Glucose less than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood

COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT

glucose

431. SCREENING PROCEDURE that is helpful in the diagnosis of many diseases, it is one indicator of

SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES

the body’s ability to fight disease, it is used to

417. Most reliable differentiation: Fluid-to-blood

MONITOR the effects of drug and radiation therapy,

ratios for protein and LD

and it may be employed as an INDICATOR OF PATIENT’S

418. WBC counts greater than 1,000/uL and RBC counts

PROGRESS in certain diseased states such as

greater than 100,000/uL are indicative of an exudate

infection or anemia.

PLEURAL FLUID

HEMATOCRIT

419. Pleural fluid cholesterol greater than 60 mg/dL

432. TRAPPED PLASMA: amount of plasma that still

or a pleural fluid to serum cholesterol ratio

remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has

greater than 0.3 provides a reliable information

been spun. Increased in macrocytic anemias,

that the fluid is an exudate

spherocytosis, thalassemia, hypochromic anemia and

420. Fluid to serum total bilirubin ratio of 0.6 or

sickle cell anemia

more also indicates the presence of an exudate

433. When comparing spun hematocrit results obtained

421. Pleural fluid pH lower than 7.3 may indicate

on an electronic cell counter, the spun hematocrit

the need for chest-tube drainage, in addition to

results vary from 1 to 3% HIGHER because of this

antibiotics in cases of pneumonia. The finding of pH

trapped plasma (unless cell counter has been

as low as 6 indicates esophageal rupture that is

calibrated).

allowing the influx of gastric fluid

434. Anticoagulated blood should be centrifuged within 6 hours of collection when the blood is

PERITONEAL FLUID

stored at room temperature.

422. RBC counts GREATER THAN 100,000/uL are

435. Overanticoagulation: FALSELY LOW due to

indicative of BLUNT TRAUMA INJURIES

shrinkage of cells

423. Normal WBC counts are less than 500 cells/uL

436. Air bubbles denote poor technique but do not

and the count increases with bacterial peritonitis

affect the results

and cirrhosis

437. Incomplete sealing of the microhematocrit

424. CA 125 antigen, source is from OVARIES,

tubes: FALSELY LOW

FALLOPIAN TUBES or ENDOMETRIUM

438. Inadequate centrifugation of the microhematocrit tubes or allowing the tubes to stand

FECALYSIS

longer than several minutes after centrifugation:

425. Large intestine is capable of absorbing

FALSELY ELEVATED

approximately 3,000 mL of water

439. Hematocrit may be expressed in either of two

426. Most representative, for fecal fats; 3-day

ways (1) as percentage, e.g., 42% or (2) as a

stool collection

decimal point, e.g., 0.42.

427. Muscle fibers: slide is examined for 5 minutes. Only undigested fibers are counted, and the presence

WHITE BLOOD CELLS COUNT

of more than 10 is reported as increased

440. Count above 11 x 10 9th/L is termed

428. Bleeding in excess of 2.5 mL/150 gram of stool

LEUKOCYTOSIS

is considered pathologically significant

441. Mix the Thoma pipet for approximately 3 minutes

429. Normal stool pH is between 7 and 8

to ensure hemolysis and adequate mixing

430. pH below 5.5 in cases of CARBOHYDRATE DISORDERS

442. Manual counts, no more than 10-cell variation between the four squares

461. Thyroxine (µg/dL to nmol/L) 12.9 PLATELET COUNT

462. X-axis: HORIZONTAL, ABSCISSA, INDEPENDENT

443. Prolonged BT and poor clot retraction are found

VARIABLES

when there is marked thrombocytopenia

463. Y-axis: VERTICAL, ORDINATE, DEPENDENT VARIABLES

444. EDTA: decreased platelet clumping but increased

464. UREA: Colorimetric: diacetyl [ inexpensive,

MPV

lacks specificity]

445. If concentration of EDTA exceeds 2mg/mL of

465. UREA: Enzymatic: NH3 formation [greater

whole blood, platelets may SWELL AND THEN FRAGMENT,

specificity, more expensive]

causing invalidly higher count

466. CREATININE: Colorimetric: end point [simple,

446. Using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid, the platelet

nonspecific]

count must be completed within 30 minutes of

467. CREATININE: Colorimetric: kinetic [rapid,

diluting in order to ensure against platelet

increased specificity]

DISINTEGRATION

468. CREATININE: Enzymatic [measure ammonia

447. 1% ammonium oxalate, the dilution is stable for

colorimetrically or with ion-selective electrode]

8 hours

469. URIC ACID: Colorimetric [problems with turbidity, several common drugs interfere]

ERTHROCYTE SEDIMENTATION RATE

470. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: UV [need special

448. Macrocytes tend to settle more rapidly than

instrumentation and optical cells]

microcytes

471. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: H2O2 [interference by

449. Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis: falsely lower

reducing substances]

ESR

472. Constituents of a number of common foods,

450. Agglutination: more rapid sedimentation rate

including BANANAS, VANILLA, TEA AND COFFEE, may

451. In severe anemia: ESR IS MARKEDLY INCREASED

react in the test for HMMA. HMMA is also VMA. 4Hydroxy-3-Methoxymandelic acid (HMMA)

SUGAR WATER TEST

473. Laboratory personnel should be aware of the

452. Citrated whole blood

MECHANICAL HAZARDS of equipment such as CENTRIFUGES,

453. In anemia, the hemolysis may be slightly

AUTOCLAVES, and HOMOGENIZERS.

increased in PNH negative specimens

474. Third Taenia: Taenia asiatica or the Taiwan

454. Use of defibrinated blood may cause positive

Taenia

results due to the hemolysis of traumatized RBCs

475. Fungal elements fluoresce green with acridine

455. Test should be performed WITHIN 2 HOURS of

orange

obtaining the specimen

476. Reporting of normal urine crystals: reported as rare, few, moderate, or many per hpf

SUCROSE HEMOLYSIS TEST

477. Abnormal crystals may be averaged and reported

456. Citrated whole blood

per lpf

457. Increased hemolysis (<10%) may be found in

478. Reagent for APT test: 1% NaOH

leukemia or myelosclerosis

479. Infective stage of Leishmania to man:

458. PNH: 10% to 80% hemolysis

PROMASTIGOTE 480. Infective stage of Trypanosoma to man:

ACID SERUM TEST

TRYPOMASTIGOTE

459. Whole blood defibrinated

481. Infective stage of Plasmodia to man:

460. When patient has received blood transfusions,

SPOROZOITES

less lysis occurs because of the presence of normal

482. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis:

transfused red blood cells

ANGIOSTRONGYLUS CANTONENSIS

483. When an accident involving electrical shock

503. Amniotic fluid OD 450: When BILIRUBIN is

occurs, the ELECTRICAL SOURCE MUST BE REMOVED

present, a rise in OD is seen at 450 nm because this

IMMEDIATELY.

is the wavelength of maximum bilirubin absorption.

484. URINARY MEATUS: external urinary opening

504. Rare: 0–10 bacteria/hpf

485. POLYURIA: greater than 2.5 L/day in adults

505. Few: 10–50 bacteria/hpf

486. OLIGURIA: less than 400 mL/day in adults

506. Moderate: 50–200 bacteria/hpf

487. Yellow-orange specimen caused by the

507. Many: >200 bacteria/hpf

administration of phenazopyridine (brand name

508. First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER

Pyridium) or azo-gantrisin compounds to people who

509. Second layer of spun hematocrit: PLASMA

have urinary tract infections [drug for UTI: orange

510. Third layer of spun hematocrit: BUFFY COAT

and viscous urine]

511. Bottom layer of spun hematocrit: PACKED CELLS

488. CLINITEST tablets contain copper sulfate,

512. Patients with CML negative for the Philadelphia

sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and sodium

chromosome: POOR PROGNOSIS

hydroxide

513. LEUKOCYTOSIS >11 x 10 9th/L

489. ACETEST provides sodium nitroprusside, glycine,

514. Forward light scatter: CELL SIZE

disodium phosphate, and lactose in tablet form. The

515. Side light scatter: CELL GRANULARITY

addition of lactose gives better color

516. KERATOCYTES: helmet cells/with horn-like

differentiation. Acetest tablets are hygroscopic; if

projections

the specimen is not completely absorbed within 30

517. ANTI-dsDNA: most specific antibody for SLE

seconds, a new tablet should be used.

518. Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): CHRONIC

490. Bence Jones protein coagulates at temperatures

ACTIVE HEPATITIS

between 40°C and 60°C and dissolves when the

519. Polymerase chain reaction: MOLECULAR

temperature reaches 100°C.

520. Restriction fragment length polymorphism:

491. Automated reagent strip readers: REFLECTANCE

MOLECULAR

PHOTOMETRY

521. Enhanced by acidifying patient serum: anti-M

492. Casts have a tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES

522. Wiener and coworkers gave a name to one such

OF THE COVER SLIP

agglutinin, calling its antigen I for

493. Squamous epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate,

“individuality.” The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST

or many per LPF

BLOOD SPECIMENS tested.

494. Transitional epithelial cells: Rare, few,

523. For patients with history of FEBRILE

moderate, or many per HPF

NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSF REACTION: LEUKOPOOR RBCs

495. RTE CELLS: AVERAGE NUMBER PER 10 HPFS

524. Irradiation of blood components: CESIUM

496. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Acid-albumin and the CTAB

525. CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD

tests (+) thick, white turbidity

SAMPLING (PUBS), results in a fetal blood specimen

497. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Metachromatic staining

that can be used for rapid karyotyping or molecular

spot test: BLUE SPOT

studies.

498. Very slight amount of OXYHEMOGLOBIN: PINK CSF

526. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): URINARY

499. Conversion of oxyhemoglobin to unconjugated

BLADDER CANCER

bilirubin: YELLOW CSF

527. CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE: Two separate black or

500. Heavy hemolysis: ORANGE CSF

gray bands, one at T and the other at C, are visible

501. Red or brown seminal fluid: BLOOD

in the results window, indicating that the specimen

502. Normal appearance of gastric fluid: PALE GRAY

contains detectable levels of hCG. Although the

with mucus

intensity of the test band may vary with different specimens, the appearance of two distinct bands should be interpreted as a positive result.

528. CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE: If no band appears at

549. Main cause of SHIFT is IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF

T and a black or gray band is visible at the C

THE INSTRUMENT

position, the test can be considered negative,

550. POCT: near-patient testing, decentralized

indicating that a detectable level of hCG is not

testing, bedside testing and alternate-site testing

present.

551. POCT: usually by nonlaboratorian personnel

529. CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: If no band appears at C

(nurses, respiratory therapists, etc)

or incomplete or beaded bands appear at the T or C

552. Absorbance (A) = abc = 2-log%T

position, the test is invalid. The test should be

553. The bacteriological examination of water

repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device.

consists of (1) total plate counts (2) detecting the

530. CARD PREGNANCY: If the test band appears VERY

presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation

FAINT, it is recommended that a new sample be

of MPN (MOST PROBABLE NUMBER)

collected 48 hours later and tested again using

554. Water analysis, presumptive test: FORMATION OF

another Card Pregnancy Test device.

GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH

531. The standard screening method for HIV antibody

555. Water analysis, confirmed test: FORMATION OF

has been the ELISA, and the standard confirmatory

GAS IN BGBL BROTH or TYPICAL COLIFORM COLONIES ON

test is the Western blot.

EMB/ENDO AGAR

532. Aside from Western blot, other confirmatory

556. Water analysis, completed test: FORMATION OF

tests, including indirect immunofluorescence assay

ACID AND GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH and the

(IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line

DEMONSTRATION OF GRAM NEGATIVE NONSPOREFORMING

immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests, have

BACILLI

also been developed.

557. Herpesviruses: cardinal feature of the group is

533. HBs ag: active infection

LATENCY

534. HBe ag: active hepatitis B with HIGH DEGREE OF

558. Reoviruses: derivation of the word:

INFECTIVITY

R(respiratory), E(enteric), O(orphan)

535. IgM anti-HBc: current or recent acute hepatitis

559. ASCHOFF BODIES: rheumatic fever

B

560. CREOLA BODIES: cluster of columnar cells,

536. Total anti-HBc: current or past hepatitis B

bronchial asthma

537. Anti-HBe: recovery from hepatitis B

561. ELEMENTARY BODIES: infectious particles of

538. Anti-HBs: immunity to hepatitis B

Chlamydia

539. HBV DNA: acute, atypical, or occult hepatitis

562. SCLEROTIC BODIES: dark brown-black organisms,

B; viral load may be used to monitor effectiveness

chromoblastomycosis

of therapy

563. ASTEROID BODIES: concentric radiating

540. ITIS: inflammation

eosinophilic material (ag-ab reaction), sporotrichosis

SEVEN BASE SI UNITS

564. NEGRI BODIES: rabies

541. Length: METER

565. GUARNIERI BODIES: poxvirus

542. Mass: KILOGRAM

566. OWL’S EYE INCLUSION BODIES: cytomegalovirus

543. Time: SECONDS

567. PSAMMOMA BODIES: elements with concentric

544. Quantity of mass: MOLE

striations of collagen-like materials, benign

545. Electric current: AMPERE

conditions, ovarian or thyroid carcinoma

546. Thermodynamic temperature: KELVIN

568. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES

547. Luminous intensity: CANDELA

569. Hand, foot and mouth disease: COXSACKIEVIRUS

548. Main cause of TREND is DETERIORATION OF

570. In CYSTIC FIBROSIS of the pancreas, the

REAGENTS

increase IN NEUTRAL FATS confer the greasy “BUTTERSTOOL” appearance.

637. Transports exogenous triglycerides: 616. Iron conversion factor from conventional to SI

Chylomicrons

(µmol/L): 0.179

638. Transports endogenous triglycerides: VLDL

617. Bilirubin conversion factor from conventional

639. Highest cholesterol content: LDL

to SI (µmol/L): 17.1

640. One step method for cholesterol determination:

618. Thyroxine conversion factor to SI (µg/dl to

Liebermann - Burchardt

mmol/L): 12.9

641. Cholesterol esterase: Used in enzymatic method

619. Specimen collection & processing: Pre-

of cholesterol determination

analytical QA

642. CV of HDLc (NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable

620. Long term accuracy of analytical methods:

Measurement Error):≤ 4%

External QC

643. Assay for Uric acid that uses mercury arc vapor

621. Abrupt change: Shift

lamp: Enzymatic: UV

622. Gradual change: Trend

644. Greater specificity and more expensive BUN

623. One control value exceeds +2s and another

assay: Enzymatic: ammonia formation

exceeds -2s: R4s

645. Simple, Nonspecific test for Creatinine

624. 2 consecutive ctrl values exceed the same mean

determination : Colorimetric: end point

+2s or -2s: 2:2s

646. Categories of Azotemia: Pre-renal, Renal, Post-

625. Fixed-angle centrifuge advantages over the

renal

horizontal centrifuge: Lesser air friction, smaller

647. Test used to assess the ability to conjugate

increase in sample temperature, quicker

bilirubin and secrete bile: Total and Direct

sedimentation of small particles, and operated over

Bilirubin assay

higher speed

648. Gamma spike/ Monoclonal gammopathy: Multiple

626. Used to determine whether there is

myeloma

statistically significant difference between the SD

649. Beta-gamma bridging: Hepatic cirrhosis

of 2 groups of data: f-test

650. Reaction rate is directly proportional to

627. Used to determine whether there is

substrate concentration: First-order kinetics

statistically significant difference between the

651. Enzyme specific for both pancreas and salivary

means of 2 groups of data: t-test

glands: Amylase

628. Sample of known quantity with several

652. Clinically significant if decreased:

analytes.: Control

Cholinesterase

629. Anticoagulant for cardiopulmonary bypass:

653. Substrate used in Bowers-McComb method for ALP

Heparin

activity measurement: p-nitrophenylphosphate

630. Basal state collection: Early morning blood

654. Chief counterion of sodium: Chloride

collection

655. Driving force of bicarbonate buffer system:

631. Uses 2 monochromators, affected by quenching:

CARBON DIOXIDE

Fluorometry

656. Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship:

632. Uses 2 photodetectors, for the sample beam and

Reciprocal

reference beam: Double – beam in space

657. Confirmatory test for Acromegaly: Glucose

633. Obsolete blood glucose methodologies: Folin-

suppression test

Wu, Nelson Somogyi

658. Increased in Hypothyroidism (primary): TSH

634. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used:

659. T3 uptake levels in Hypothyroidism : Decreased

Ortho-toluidine, condensation method

660. Begins with patient identification and

635. Test for chylomicrons, creamy layer on top:

continues until testing is completed and the results

Standing plasma test

are reported : Chain of custody

636. Apolipoprotein component of VLDL: Apo-B100

661. Requires whole blood EDTA sample: Cyclosporine

685. Principle of Automated Reagent Strip Reader:

and Tacrolimus tests

Reflectance photometry

662. Method of choice for measuring antidepressants:

686. Soluble in dilute acetic acid: Red blood cells,

HPLC

amorphous phosphates, carbonates

663. Gold standard for drug testing: GC-MS

687. Soluble in ether: Lipids, chyle, lymphatic

664. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase: Organophosphates

fluid

& Carbamates

688. Appear microscopically as yellow brown-granules

665. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen

and produce a characteristic pink sediment (brick

ions: Acid

dust), uroerythrin: AMORPHOUS URATES

666. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl

689. Cause a white precipitate following specimen

ions: Base

refrigeration :Amorphous phosphates

667. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen

690. Tubular injury: 2 or more RTE cells per HPF

ions: Base

691. Telescoped sediment: Elements of

668. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl

glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome

ions: Acid

692. Glitter cells: Neutrophils seen in hypotonic

669. Comparing patient’s results with previous

urine

results: Delta check

693. Formation of casts:

670. POCT is most often performed by nurses,

Hyaline→cellular→granular→waxy

perfusionists (who operate heart-lung machine during

694. Hyaline cast consists entirely of: Uromodulin

open heart surgery), respiratory therapists and

695. Crystals seen in liver disease: Bilirubin,

physician themselves.

tyrosine, leucine 696. Forms of Struvite: Coffin-lid, Feather-like,

671. Expressed in Ehrlich units (mg/dl):Urobilinogen

Fern-leaf, Prism, Colorless sheets, Flakes

672. Used to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin:

697. Ethylene glycol poisoning: Monohydrate Calcium

Blondheim’s test

Oxalate (oval, dumbbell)

673. Degree of Hazard 1:Slight hazard

698. Most frequent parasite encountered in urine:

674. Degree of Hazard 2:Moderate hazard

Trichomonas vaginalis

675. Degree of Hazard 3:Serious hazard

699. Fecal contaminant in urine: Pinworm ova

676. Degree of Hazard 4:Extreme hazard

700. Diluent for CSF WBC Count: 3% Glacial HAc with

677. Handwashing: Clean between fingers 15 sec (or

methylene blue

20 sec , 6th ed), downward

701. Precipitation test for CSF total protein: TCA

678. When skin or eye contact occurs, the best first

and SSA

aid is to immediately: Flush the area with water for

702. Positive for pellicle clot formation:

at least 15 minutes and then seek medical attention

Tubercular meningitis

679. Preservative of choice for urine cytology

703. Oligoclonal bonding in CSF bonding but not in

studies: Saccomano’s fixative

serum →

680. Urine specimen for Urobilinogen: Afternoon

Barre syndrome and neurosyphilis

sample (2-4pm)

704. Semen fructose test is not tested within 2

681. Storage conditions for reagent strip: Cool, dry

hours: Specimen must be FROZEN

place

705. Reagent used in Florence test which detects

682. Reagent incorporated in Ketone pad: Sodium

choline: Potassium iodide, Iodine

nitroprusside

706. Used to assess sperm cell velocity and

683. Hoesch Test: Ehrlich’s reagent in 6M HCl

trajectory: Computer-assisted semen analysis (CASA)

684. Speckled pattern on blood parameter: Hematuria

707. Normal volume of synovial fluid: less than 3.5 ml

Multiple sclerosis, encephalitis, Guillain-

708. Normal synovial fluid glucose:<10mg/dl lower

733. Nasopharyngeal swabs: H. influenzae, N.

than blood glucose

meningitidis, B. pertussis

709. Cells seen in synovial fluid which resembles

734. Inhibits gram-positive bacteria: Crystal violet

polished rice macroscopically: Rice bodies

and sodium desoxycholate (bile salt)

710. Type of effusion caused by congestive heart

735. Inhibits gram-negative bacteria: Sodium azide,

failure: Transudate

phenylethyl alcohol

711. Sputum: Not a normal body fluid,

736. Detects gram-negative endotoxin: Limulus lysate

tracheobronchial secretions

test

712. Important diagnostic test for Pneumocystic

737. Protein A: Staphylococcus aureus,

carinii in immunocompromised patients:

coagglutination

Bronchoalveolar lavage

738. Slime layer production: Staphylococcus

713. Tests for Neural Tube defects: AFP,

epidermidis

acetylcholinesterase

739. Protein M: Streptococcus pyogenes

714. Microviscosity test for fetal lung maturity:

740. Colonies with ground glass appearance:

measured by FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION

Legionella (Mahon)

715. Green amniotic fluid: MECONIUM

741. Increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

716. Dark red-brown color of amniotic fluid: FETAL

to aminoglycosides: Increased calcium and magnesium

DEATH

742. Smallest free-living organism: Mycoplasma

717. Normal Gastric fluid appearance: PALE GRAY WITH

743. Benchmarking: Comparison with peers

MUCUS

744. Histoplasma crossreacts with: Blastomyces,

718. Noninvasive test to determine gastric acidity:

Aspergillus and Coccidioides

DIAGNEX TUBELESS TEST

745. Aman medium stain: Lactophenol cotton blue

719. Collagen-like material with concentric

746. Czapek’s medium: Isolation of Aspergillus

striations seen in ovarian and thyroid carcinomas:

747. African histoplasmosis: Histoplasma duboisii

PSAMMOMA BODIES

748. Test for Candida albicans that uses serum: Germ

721. Laminar flow: Biosafety Cabinet class II

tube test

722. HEPA filter: Removes org > 0.3 um (bacteria,

749. Chlamydospore production of Candida albicans:

fungi)

Cornmeal agar

723. Blood culture collection: 2-3 samples (Max 3-4)

750. Candidiasis infection affecting the oral

at least 1 hour apart in 24 hours

cavity: Thrush

724. Grade A milk: <75,000 bacteria per mL when raw,

751. General isolation media for fungi: Saboraud’s

and <15,000 bacteria once pasteurized

dextrose agar

725. Enteric agar: XLD, EMB, HEA

752. Major biologic hazard to laboratory personnel:

726. Rickettsial stains: Gimenez, Macchiavello

Coccidioides immitis

727. Concentration of Hydrogen Peroxide as

753. Sensitive fungal (fluorescent) dye that binds

disinfectant: 3% H2O2

to cell wall: Calcofluor white

728. MIO medium: Motility Indole Ornithine

754. Chromoblastomycosis: Sclerotic bodies

729. Quaternary ammonium compounds are inactivated

755. Rose gardener’s disease: Sporotrichosis

by: Organic substances

756. Eosinophilic material due to antigen-antibody

730. Fite-Faraco stain: Hematoxylin as counterstain

reaction in cases of sporotrichosis: Asteroid body

instead of methylene, AFB

757. Largest DNA virus: Poxvirus

731. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate: Anti-phagocytic,

758. Smallest DNA virus: Parvovirus

anti-complement

759. Largest RNA virus: Paramyxovirus

732. Bromthymol blue as indicator: HEA, TCBS,

760. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus

Simmon’s citrate agar

(Picornaviridae)

761. Cross reactive antigen in all human

786. Screening test for PNH: Sugar water screening

adenoviruses: Hexon

test

762. Gastroenteritis in children during winter

787. Derived from RBC Histogram: MCV, RDW

months: Rotavirus

788. Derived from Platelet Histogram: MPV, PDW

763. Nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults:

789. In cyanmethemoglobin method, all hemoglobin are

Norovirus

measured, except: Sulfhemoglobin

764. Toxic to HSV: Calcium alginate

790. Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia: Mauve

765. Isolation medium for Cytomegalovirus: Human

lavender

fibroblast cells

791. Patient with PNH received blood transfusion:

766. True amoeba: GENUS Entamoeba

Less lysis due to the presence of normal RBCs

767. Trophozoite with ingested red blood cell:

transfused

Entamoeba histolytica

792. Positive instrumental errors: Bubbles in the

768. Trophozoite with ingested WBC: Entamoeba

sample, extraneous electrical pulsesand aperture

gingivalis

plugs (most common)

769. Gay bowel syndrome: Giardiasis

793. Negative instrumental error: Excessive lysing

770. Cercaria minus a tail: Schistosomule

of RBCs

771. Infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum:

794. Instrumental error that is either a positive or

Plerocercoid larva

negative error: Improper setting of aperture current

772. Resembles Diphyllobothrium latum adult:

or threshold

Spirometra

795. Purplish red pinpoint hemorrhagic spots:

773. Passing of proglottids of Taenia: Irritated by

Petechiae

ALCOHOL

796. Blood escapes into SMALL areas of skin and

774. Taenia spp. eggs: Hexacanth embryo with thick

mucous membrane: Purpura

radial striations

797. Blood escapes into LARGE areas of skin, mucous

775. Cercarial dermatitis: Schistosomes

membrane, and other tissues: Ecchymosis

776. Length of needle in routine phlebotomy: 1.0 –

798. Primary hemostasis: Vasoconstriction

1.5 inches

799. Outer surface of platelet: Glycocalyx

777. Angle of draw in venipuncture: 15 to 30 ° angle

800. Contains microtubules that maintains platelet

(15 degree angle)

shape: Sol-gel zone

778. The distance of drop of blood from the edge of

801. Platelet estimate of 100,000 to 149,000/µL:

the slide: 1 cm

Slight decrease

779. Blood production outside the bone marrow:

802. Platelet estimate of 150,000 to 199,000/µL: Low

EXTRAmedullary hematopoiesis

normal

780. Hematopoietic stem cell marker: CD 34

803. Labile factors: Factors V and VIII

781. Common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen: CD

804. Prematurely activates at cold temperature:

10

Factors VII FXI

782. Test for Hemoglobin S which uses black line:

805. Vitamin K-dependent factors: Factors II, VII,

Dithionate solubility test

IX, X

783. Starry sky pattern under low power imparted by

806. Normal value for TEMPLATE bleeding time:6 – 10

numerous macrophages with apoptotic debris:

minutes

Burkitt’s lymphoma

807. Christmas factor: Factor IX

784. Granules (tertiary granules) present in

808. Rosenthal syndrome: Factor XI deficiency

Neutrophil: Alkaline phosphatase

809. Platelet estimate of 401,000 to

785. Euglobulin clot lysis time: Screening test for

599,000/µl:

fibrinolysis

Slight increase

810. Platelet estimate of 600,000 to 800,000/µL:

830. Brown chromogen for peroxidases:

Moderate increase

Diaminobenzidine (DAB)

811. A surgical connection between to structures, it

831. Administrative investigation:2 members of board

usually means a connection that is created between

+ 1 legal officer

tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops

832. Policies and guidelines for Med Tech Education:

of intestines: ANASTOMOSIS

CMO no. 14 s. 2006

812. Polyclonal antibodies used in

833. Accreditation of clinical lab for training MT

immunohistochemical techniques are frequently

interns: CMO no. 6 s. 2008

derived from: RABBIT

834. STAT, STATIM: Immediately

813. Most rapid of the common freezing agents:

835. Biodegradable wastes: Green bag

LIQUID NITROGEN

836. Urine for routine urinalysis: 10 to 15 ml urine

814. General purpose fixative: 10% neutral buffered

(50 ml-container capacity)

formalin

837. Urine for drug testing: 30 to 45 ml (60 ml-

815. Protein fixation: Neutral buffered formol

container capacity)

saline or formaldehyde vapor

838. Urine for cytology: at least 50 ml urine

816. Fixatives for nucleic acids: Ethanol, methanol

(Gregorios)

and Carnoy’s solution

839. Venipucture: 15 to 30 degree angle

817. Amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times

840. Arterial puncture: 45 to 60 degree angle (90

the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently, the

degrees for femoral artery)

maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be 20

841. Before blood is collected from the radial

times the tissue volume.

artery in the wrist, one should do a MODIFIED ALLEN

818. Recommended ratio of fluid to tissue volume for

TEST to determine whether the ulnar artery can

DECALCIFICATION is 20 to 1

provide collateral circulation to the hand after the

819. Amount of dehydrating agent should not be less

radial artery puncture.

than 10 times the volume of tissue

842. Central Venous Assess (CVA) collection:

820. Dehydration: Low grade to high grade alcohol

eliminates multiple phlebotomies and surgical

821. Absence of water: WHITE anhydrous copper

situations. Five (5) ml of blood must be drawn and

sulfate

discarded to eliminate contaminants. CVA is not

822. Presence of water: BLUE anhydrous copper

recommended for bacteriology (organisms can

sulfate

contaminate specimen)

823. Clearing: Dealcoholization

843. Order of draw from CATHETER LINES: First 3 to 5

824. Most rapid embedding technique: Vacuum

ml blood is discarded THEN, blood culture,

embedding

anticoagulated tubes and clot tubes.

825. Automated tissue processor: Fix, dehydrate,

844. Donor bleeding: 45 degree angle to the skin,

clear, and infiltrate

make a quick clean puncture; once in the skin,

826. Histochemical demonstration of ENZYMES: FROZEN

reduce the angle of the needle to about 10 to 20

SECTION

degrees

827. ACRIDINE ORANGE is the most commonly used

845. Anaerobic and require ICE slurry (immediate

fluorochrome to demonstrate DNA and RNA in fresh or

cooling): Lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas (if not

fixed tissues.

analyzed within 30 min = ↓ pH, and po2), iCa+2

828. Von Kossa’s silver nitrate method: Calcium

(heparinized whole blood if not analyzed within 30

salts = black

min)

829. Red chromogen for peroxidases:

846. C-Peptide test: evaluates hypoglycemia and

Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC)

continuous assessment of beta cell function

847. Increased C-peptide: Insulinoma, type 2 DM,

874. Westergren tube: 30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore

ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs

875. Capillary tube: 7 to 7.5 cm (70-75 mm) long, 1

848. Decreased C-peptide: Type 1 DM

mm bore (1.2 mm)

849. Colorimetric method for Triglycerides: van

876. Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2,000 to 2,300 g

Handel and

for 30 minutes

Zilversmith

850. CDC reference method: Modified van Handel and

877. Microhematocrit: Centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000

Zilversmith

g for 5 minutes (five minutes)

851. Fluorometric method for Triglycerides: Hantzch

878. Normocytic, normochromic: Acute blood loss,

condensation

hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia

852. Largest and least dense: CHYLOMICRONS

879. Microcytic, hypochromic: Anemia of chronic

853. Smallest but the most dense: HDL

disease, thalassemia, IDA and sideroblastic anemia

854. Found in obstructive jaundice and LCAT

880. Macrocytic, normochromic: MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA

deficiency: Lipoprotein X

881. Poikilocytosis: DECREASED ESR

855. Floating beta lipoprotein: β-VLDL

882. Correction for WBC count, Adult: 5 or more

856. Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein: Lp (a)

nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential

857. Triglycerides, LDLc:

883. Correction for WBC count, Neonate: 10 or more

FASTING 12 to 14 hours

858. Formula for LDLc: Total cholesterol – HDL –

nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential

VLDL

884. Increased EDTA: Decreased hematocrit, decreased

859. Friedewald VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.175

ESR

860. De Long VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.825

885. Hemoglobinopathies: QUALITATIVE defect in

861. Friedewald VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/5

hemoglobin

862. De Long VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/6.5

886. Thalassemia: QUANTITATIVE defect in hemoglobin

863. ONE-STEP direct method for cholesterol:

887. Responsible for clot retraction: THROMBOSTHENIN

LIEBERMANN-BURCHARDT (L-B)

888. Electromechanical detection of fibrin clot:

864. One-step method for cholesterol: Colorimetry

FIBROMETER

(Pearson, Stern and MacGavack)

889. Photo-optical detection: Electra, COAG-A-MATE,

865. Two-step method for cholesterol: C + Extraction

Ortho-Koagulab

(Bloors)

890. Complement-dependent cytotoxicity: INVERTED

866. Three-step method for cholesterol: C+ E +

PHASE CONTRAST microscope

Saponification (Abell-Kendall)

891. Stains for the BASEMENT MEMBRANE: PAS and

867. Four-step method for cholesterol: C + E + S +

azocarmine

Precipitation (Schoenheimer, Sperry, Parekh and

892. Fixatives for H & E: All fixatives can be used

Jung)

except those that contain osmic acid. Osmic acid

868. CDC reference method for cholesterol: Abell,

(like Flemming’s) inhibits hematoxylin

Levy and Brodie method

893. Manual H & E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING, it

869. Modification of the ABELL-KENDALL method

includes a differentiation step

continues as the REFERENCE METHOD for cholesterol

894. Harris hematoxylin: Primary/Basic/Nuclear stain

used by the CDC (Henry)

895. Eosin: Secondary/Counterstain/Acid/Cytoplasmic

870. TANGIER’S DISEASE: HDL is abnormal and

stain

significantly reduced

896. Stain of choice for cytology: ORIGINAL Pap’s

871. Activated at cold temperature: Factors VII and

stain

XI (seven, eleven)

897. Pap’s stain consists of 3 stains: Harris

872. Labile factors, decrease on storage: Factors V

hematoxylin, Orange green (OG6) and Eosin Azure (EA)

and VIII (five, eight)

898. Harris hematoxylin: stains the nucleus

873. Wintrobe tube: 11.5 cm long, 3 mm bore

899. OG 6: stains the cytoplasm of mature cells

923. Board of MT Member: Marian Tantingco

(superficial cells)

924. PRC CHAIRPERSON: TEOFILO S. PILANDO, JR.

900. EA 36/50/65: stains the cytoplasm of immature

925. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL

cells (parabasal, intermediate cells) 926. BIPHASIC MEDIUM/CASTANEDA BOTTLES: BRUCELLA --------------------------------------------

927. CIN medium: Y. enterocolitica

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS

928. CCFA: C. difficile

901. FIRST PRESIDENT: Charlemagne T. Tamondong

929. BCYE medium: Legionella

"Emergence of the Profession" (1963-1967)

930. HBT medium: Gardnerella

902. Nardito D. Moraleta "Professional Recognition"

931. ssDNA: Parvovirus

(1967-1970)

932. dsRNA: Reovirus

903. Felix E. Asprer "Legislative Agenda" (1970-

933. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus

1971, 1973-1976)

(Picornaviridae)

904. Bernardo T. Tabaosares "Celebration of the

934. Acid-resistant: Enterovirus

Practice" (1971-1973)

935. Acid-sensitive: Rhinovirus

905. Angelina R. Jose "Career Advocacy" (1973)

936. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES

906. Venerable C.V. Chua (Venerable OCA)

937. Measles: RUBEOLA

"Educational Enhancement" (1977-1981)

938. German measles: RUBELLA

907. Carmencita P. Acedera "Image Building" (1982-

939. Chickenpox: VARICELLA

1991)

940. Odor of bitter almonds: CYANIDE

908. Marilyn R. Atienza "Proactivism" (1992-1996)

941. Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth:

909. Norma N. Chang "International Leadership"

ARSERNIC

(1997-2000)

942. Legally intoxicated: Blood alcohol greater than

910. Agnes B. Medenilla "Organizational Dynamism"

100 mg/dL (0.10%)

(2001-2002, 2005-2006)

943. Potentiometry: measurement of pH and pCO2

911. Shirley F. Cruzada "Interdisciplinary

944. Amperometry: measurement of pO2

Networking" (2003-2004)

945. High affinity to keratin: ARSENIC

912. Leila M. Florento "Beyond Expectations" (2007-

946. Visible region: 400 to 700 nm

2012)

947. UV region <400 nm

913. Romeo Joseph J. Ignacio "Soar Higher through

948. Infrared region > 700 nm

V.O.I.C.E." Visibility, Oneness, Integrity,

949. Cholesterol, acceptable CV ≤ 3%

Commitment and Excellence (2013 - 2015)

950. Triglyceride, acceptable CV ≤ 5%

914. Ronaldo E. Puno (2015-present)

951. HDLc, LDLc acceptable CV ≤ 4%

----------------------------------------------------

952. OBESE BMI ≥ 30 kg/sq.m.

--------

953. Overweight BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/sq.m.

915. FATHER OF PAMET: CRISANTO ALMARIO

954. Underweight BMI < 18.5 kg/sq.m.

916. PAMET was originally organized on SEPTEMBER 15,

955. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient

1963

has eaten or become physically active.

917. PAMET HYMN Music: Francis Jerota Pefanco

956. STAT for the Latin word statim meaning

918. PAMET HYMN Lyrics: Hector Gentapanan Gayares,

immediately. Tests that fall into this category

Jr.

include:

919. Current PAMET President: Ronaldo E. Puno

a. Glucose in diabetic ketoacidosis

920. Current PASMETH President: Bernard U. Ebuen

b. Some drug levels such as theophylline

921. Board of MT Head: Dr. Marietta Baccay

c. Amylase in suspected pancreatitis

922. Board of MT Member: Marilyn Atienza

d. CK in suspected MI

e. Hematocrit

977. Ampicillin crystals form bundles when

f. Blood gases

refrigerated

g. Potassium

------------------------------------978. F. tularensis is a very small, strictly

957. CRITICAL VALUES or PANIC VALUES: list of

aerobic, coccoid to pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-

analytes that truly do have the potential to be

negative bacillus that requires CYSTINE or CYSTEINE

lethal if unchecked for a short period.

for growth

958. SCHILLING TEST: Laboratory determination of

979. Legionella spp. may be isolated on BCYE agar

vitamin B12 absorption

supplemented with growth factors, including LCYSTINE, FERRIC SALT, AND Α-KETOGLUTARATE.

959. Hemostatic mechanisms comprise four (4) main

980. Bordetella spp. are strictly aerobic,

systems: the vascular system, platelets, coagulation

nonfermentative, catalase-positive, minute

system and fibrinolytic system.

coccobacilli requiring NICOTINIC ACID, CYSTEINE, and usually METHIONINE, for growth.

960. OSMOLALITY

981. MEDICAL MALPRACTICE is misconduct or lack of

a. Osmolality = 2Na + (Glucose/20) + (BUN/3)

skill by a health-care professional that results in

b. Osmolality = 1.86Na + (Glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8) +

injury to the patient.

9

982. NEGLIGENCE, which is defined as failure to give

961. Anion gap

reasonable care by the health-care provider, must be

a. AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3)

proven in a malpractice suit.

b. AG = (Na + K) – (Cl + HCO3)

983. SERUM or PLASMA is the specimen of choice for

----------------------------------

the determination of circulating concentrations of

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS

most drugs. THERAPEUTIC DRUGS, BISHOP

962. Uric acid is alkali soluble

984. Analysis for the presence of ABUSED SUBSTANCES

963. Amorphous urates - soluble in alkali and heat

has focused primarily on the use of URINE as the

964. CaOx - soluble in dilute HCl

test sample of choice. The urine specimen represents

965. Amorphous phosphates - soluble in dilute acetic

the net load of the drug over a long period, whereas

acid

the blood sample provides only a quick picture of

966. Calcium phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic

the drug level at a specific time. DRUGS OF ABUSE,

acid

CALBREATH

967. Triple phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic

985. CHAIN OF CUSTODY

acid

Processing steps for such specimens—initial

968. Ammonium biurate - soluble in acetic acid with

collection, transportation, storage, and analytical

heat

testing— must be documented by careful record

969. Calcium carbonate - forms gas from acetic acid

keeping. Documentation ensures that there has been no tampering with the specimen by any interested

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS

parties, that the specimen has been collected from

970. Cystine is soluble in ammonia, dilute HCl

the appropriate person, and that the results

971. Cholesterol is soluble in chloroform

reported are accurate.

972. Leucine is soluble in hot alkali or alcohol

Each step of the COLLECTION, HANDLING, PROCESSING,

973. Tyrosine is soluble in alkali or heat

TESTING, AND REPORTING PROCESSES must be documented;

974. Bilirubin is soluble in acetic acid, HCl, NaOH,

this is called the chain of custody.

ether and chloroform

986. RICE BODIES are fragments of degenerating

975. Sulfonamides soluble in acetone

proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted

976. Radiographic dye soluble in 10% NaOH

synovium.

987. OCHRONOTIC SHARDS, ground pepper appearance

b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen (H)

from pigmented cartilage fragments may be the result

ions

of a metabolic disorder (i.e., ochronosis).

1004. A MOHR PIPET does not have graduations to the

988. PROBLEMS: RBCs appear gray, WBCs are too dark,

tip. It is a self-draining pipet, but the tip should

eosinophil granules are gray, not orange. CAUSES:

not be allowed to touch the vessel while the pipet

Stain or buffer too alkaline (most common),

is draining.

inadequate rinsing, prolonged staining, heparinized

1005. A SEROLOGIC PIPET has graduation marks to the

blood sample.

tip and is generally a blowout pipet.

989. PROBLEMS: RBCs are too pale or are RED, WBCs

1006. A MICROPIPET is a pipet with a total holding

are barely visible. CAUSES: Stain or buffer too

volume of less than 1 mL; it may be designed as

acidic (most common), underbuffering (too short),

either a Mohr or a serologic pipet.

over-rinsing.

1007. GLUCOSE MEASUREMENTS

990. HBeAg indicates HIGH INFECTIVITY.

a. Reference method, enzymatic: HEXOKINASE

991. CORDOCENTESIS, or percutaneous umbilical blood

b. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used:

sampling (PUBS).

Ortho-toluidine, condensation

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES

c.

992. Formaldehyde – for Addis count

Wu, Nelson Somogyi

993. Conc, HCl – for epinephrine, norepinephrine,

1008. SCREENING FOR BIRTH DEFECTS

catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid

a. Triple test: AFP, HCG and ESTRIOL

994. Glacial acetic acid pH 4.5 – for aldosterone

b. QUAD screen: AFP, HCG, ESTRIOL and INHIBIN-A

995. Sodium carbonate – for porphyrins and

1009. Regulation of aldosterone secretion via the

urobilinogen (to ensure alkalinity)

renin/angiotensin system is achieved as follows.

996. Glacial acetic acid pH 2.0 – for serotonin

Decreased blood volume or blood pressure induces the

997. Conc. HCl – for steroids, ammonia, urea, total

release of kidney renin, which induces the

nitrogen

production of angiotensin I and II. Angiotensin II

998. Chloroform – for aldosterone

affects release of aldosterone from the adrenal

999. Sulfuric acid – preserves calcium and other

gland, which ultimately causes the kidney distal

inorganic constituents

tubule to RETAIN SODIUM, thereby raising blood

1000. Sodium fluoride or benzoic acid – ideal for

volume and blood pressure.

glucose analysis, prevents glycolysis

1010. THREE (3%) PERCENT HYDROGEN PEROXIDE: In a 3%

1001. REAGENT LOG should be kept to indicate DATE IN

solution, hydrogen peroxide is a harmless but very

USE and EXPIRATION DATE of the reagent. This log

weak antiseptic whose primary clinical use is in the

should also note the lot numbers of controls. After

cleansing of wounds.

the reagent has been checked, this is indicated on

1011. ANAEROBES usually cannot grow in the presence

the label, and the solution can be used for

of O2, and the atmosphere in anaerobe jars, bags, or

laboratory testing.

chambers is composed of 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5%

1002. ACID

to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitrogen (N2), and 0% O2

a. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen (H)

1012. Aerosol-induced sputum are collected by

ions

allowing the patient to breathe aerosolized

b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl (OH)

droplets, using an ultrasonic nebulizer containing

ions

NaCl or until a strong cough reflex is initiated.

1003. BASE

1013. ASCARIS EGGS: In the soil, it takes about two

a. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl (OH)

to three weeks for eggs to develop into the

ions

infective stage (embryonation) under favorable

Obsolete chemical blood glucose methods: Folin-

conditions with suitable temperature, moisture and

humidity. The embryonated eggs can survive in moist

c. Accidental intermediate host: MAN

shaded soil for a few months to about two years in

d. APOLLON: Found in the IH: HYDATID CYST

tropical and subtropical areas, but for much longer

1019. Increased casts in ATHLETIC PSEUDONEPHRITIS

in temperate regions. (Belizario)

and in some diuretic therapies.

1014. The mode of transmission of Fasciola hepatica

1020. All types of casts may occur in the broad

and F. gigantica is by ingestion of metacercaria

form. However, considering the accompanying urinary

encysted on edible aquatic plants or by drinking

stasis, the most commonly seen broad casts are (1)

water with floating metacercariae.

granular and (2) waxy.

1015. FASCIOLA GIGANTICA is the dominant species in

1021. Bile-stained broad, waxy casts are seen as the

the PHILIPPINES, affecting CATTLES and water

result of the tubular necrosis caused by VIRAL

buffaloes. There are only few human cases reported

HEPATITIS.

locally.

1022. CHRONIC RENAL FAILURE OR ENDSTAGE RENAL

1016. Human infection with F. hepatica also called

DISEASE:

the sheep liver fluke is now considered a global

a. Marked decrease in the glomerular filtration rate

zoonosis. In countries like Bolivia, Ecuador,

(less than 25 mL/min)

Islamic Republic of Iran and Yemen, human

b. Steadily rising serum BUN and creatinine values

fascioliasis usually parallel the prevalence of

(azotemia)

infection in SHEEP and other ruminants like GOATS,

c. Electrolyte imbalance

CATTLE, BUFFALOES and HORSES.

d. Lack of renal concentrating ability producing an

1017. Diphyllobothrium latum egg: OVA are usually

isosthenuric (SG 1.010) urine

yellowish brown, with a moderately thick shell and

e. Proteinuria and renal glycosuria

an inconspicuous operculum. Opposite the operculum

f. Abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY, and (3)

is a small knob-like thickening (aboperculum).

BROAD casts, often referred to as a TELESCOPED URINE

1018. LIFE CYCLE OF ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS: The

SEDIMENT

adult E. granulosus resides in the small bowel of

1023. SMOOTH AND RAPID WEDGE SMEAR: Keep the

the definitive hosts, dogs or other canids. Gravid

spreader slide at a 30 to 40 degree angle and the

proglottids release eggs that are passed in the

edge of the slide firmly against the horizontal

feces. After ingestion by a suitable intermediate

slide, push the spreader slide rapidly over the

host (under natural conditions: sheep, goat, swine,

entire length of the slide. (push spreader slide

cattle, horses, camel), the egg hatches in the small

RAPIDLY). The tail of the film should be

bowel and releases an oncosphere that penetrates the

SMOOTH.

intestinal wall and migrates through the circulatory

1024. RBC indices are used to define the size and

system into various organs, especially the liver and

hemoglobin content of RBCs. They consists of MCV,

lungs. In these organs, the oncosphere develops into

MCH and MCHC. The indices are commonly used as an

a cyst that enlarges gradually, producing

aid in diagnosing and differentiating anemias.

protoscolices and daughter cysts that fill the cyst

(Brown)

interior. The definitive host becomes infected by

1025. The MCH is much less valuable to the clinician

ingesting the cyst-containing organs of the infected

than the MCV and MCHC.

intermediate host. After ingestion, the

1026. Although CYTOKINES are produced by many cell

protoscolices evaginate, attach to the intestinal

populations (endothelial cells, fibroblasts,

mucosa, and develop into adult stages. (CDC)

epithelial cells, and others), they are MAINLY THE

a. Definitive host: DOGS (infective stage to DH,

PRODUCTS OF HELPER T CELLS (TH) AND MACROPHAGES.

hydatid cyst)

(Henry)

b. Intermediate host: SHEEP (Infective stage to IH,

1027. CROHN’S DISEASE: inflammatory bowel disease.

eggs)

Immune reaction against intestinal bacteria.

Barbara Brown

1028. POLARIZING MICROSCOPY: Polarized light is

1031. ALLELE - one of two or more different genes

obtained by using TWO POLARIZING FILTERS. The light

that may occupy a specific locus on a chromosome.

emerging from one filter vibrates in one plane, and

1032. ANTITHETICAL - referring to antigens that are

a second filter placed at a 90-degree angle blocks

the product of allelic genes (e.g., Kell [K] and

all incoming light, except that rotated by the

Cellano [k]).

birefringent substance.

1033. Amorph - gene that does not appear to produce

1029. TISSUE BLOCK, FIXATION

a detectable antigen; a silent gene, such as Jk, Lu,

Electron microscopy: 1 to 2 sq. mm.

O.

Light microscopy: 2 sq.cm (2 cm x 1 cm) x 0.4 cm

1034. Recessive - type of gene that, in the presence

(thickness or thinness)

of its dominant allele, does not express itself;

1030. RA 10912: Continuing Professional Development

expression occurs when it is inherited in the

Act of 2016

homozygous state.

a. It lapsed into law without P’Noy’s signature on

1035. Dominant - trait or characteristic that will

July 21, 2016

be expressed in the offspring even though it is

b. Under President Aquino, Senator Trillanes

carried on only one of the homologous chromosomes.

c. MANDATORY for the renewal of the PRC cards of all

1036. Codominant - pair of genes in which neither is

registered and licensed professionals under PRC

dominant over the other—that is, they are both

d. 45 units for 3 years for Registered Medical

expressed.

Technologists (RMTs)

1037. Phenotype - OUTWARD EXPRESSION OF GENES (e.g.,

e. 30 units for 3 years for Registered Laboratory

a blood type). On blood cells, serologically

TECHNICIANS (RLTs)

demonstrable antigens constitute the phenotype,

f. Under this law, OFWs are NOT exempted. They can

except those sugar sites that are determined by

earn CPD units abroad provided that you have

transferases.

supporting documents to prove it. The CPD council

1038. Genotype - individual’s actual genetic makeup.

for your profession will dictate the equivalency of

1039. Adsorption - providing an antibody with its

such seminars. (PRC Resolution No. 2016-990 series

corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so

of 2016)

that the antibody will attach to the antigen,

g. PRC amended few provisions in the Resolution

thereby removing the antibody from the serum; often

No. 2013-774 Series of 2013 or the Revised

used interchangeably with absorption.

Guidelines on the Continuing Professional

1040. Elution - process whereby cells that are

Development (CPD) program for all Registered and

coated with antibody are treated in such a manner as

Licensed professionals through Resolution No. 2016-

to DISRUPT THE BONDS BETWEEN THE ANTIGEN AND

990 series of 2016.

ANTIBODY.

PS.

1041. Bombay Phenotype - occurring in individuals

1. ALL TYPES of casts can be a broad cast.

who possess normal A or B genes but are unable to

2. Most common type of broad casts are GRANULAR and

express them because they lack the gene necessary

WAXY casts.

for production of H antigen, the required precursor

3. But if asked about TELESCOPED SEDIMENTS:

for A and B. These persons often have a potent anti-

abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY and (3) BROAD

H in their serum, which reacts with all cells except

casts.

other Bombays. Also known as Oh.

4. Wedge smear should be SMOOTH and RAPID.

1042. The PARABOMBAY phenotypes are those rare

5. Cytotoxicity testing is under HLA testing;

phenotypes in which the RBCs are completely devoid

therefore anticoagulant is ACD or heparin. — with

of H antigens or have small amounts of H antigen

Kelly Kinyoun and 49 others.

present.54 RBCs of these individuals express weak

forms of A and B antigens, which are primarily detected by adsorption and elution studies. 1043. Ficoll-Hypaque - density-gradient medium used to separate and harvest specific white blood cells, most commonly lymphocytes. 1044. LISS contains glycine or glucose in addition to saline. 1045. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is a common drug used to treat hypertensi on; frequently the cause of a positive direct Coombs’ test result. 1046. RETICULOCYTE or the NEOCYTE (young RBCs). 1047. ICTERUS - condition characterized by yellowish skin, whites of the eyes, mucous membranes, and body fluids caused by increased circulating bilirubin resulting from excessive hemolysis or from liver damage due to hepatitis. Synonym is jaundice. 1048. KERNICTERUS - form of icterus neonatorum occurring in infants, developing at 2 to 8 days of life; prognosis poor if untreated. This condition is due to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin. 1049. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE - can result from a deficiency of an enzyme that transfers glucuronate groups onto bilirubin or from liver immaturity; can result in jaundice that occurs in some infants during the first few days of life; also called NEONATAL JAUNDICE. 1050. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE of the newborn is a result of a deficiency in the enzyme glucuronyl transferase, one of the last liver functions to be activated in prenatal life since bilirubin processing is handled by the mother of the fetus. a. Kernicterus often results in cell damage and death in the newborn, and this condition will continue until glucuronyl transferase is produced. b. Infants with this type of jaundice are usually treated with ultraviolet radiation to destroy the bilirubin as it passes through the capillaries of the skin. In extreme cases, some infants require an exchange transfusion. c. Because this condition is so serious, bilirubin levels are carefully and frequently monitored so the dangerously high levels of unconjugated bilirubin (approximately 20 mg/dL) can be detected and treated.