Pharmacology And Toxicology Answer Key Red Pacop

Pharmacology & Toxicology RED PACOP 1. Pharmacodynamics is A. The science that examines the interrelationship of the physicochemical properties of the drug and the route of administration on the rate and extent of systemic circulation B. The science of the kinetics of drug absorption, distribution and elimination C. The part of pharmacology, which deals with what a drug does to the body D. The science, which deals with the physicochemical properties of the drug that allow it to be designed into dosage forms E. A and B 2. Which of the following types of drugs binds to a receptor and produce an effect similar to that of endogenous ligands? A. Inverse agonist B. Agonist C. Partial agonist D. Competitive antagonist E. Noncompetitive antagonist 3. Drugs ‘x’ binds to drug ‘y’ as a result of which an inactive complex is formed. This type of antagonism is called A. Competitive antagonism B. Non-competitive antagonism C. Physiologic antagonism D. Neutralizing antagonism E. Partial antagonism 4. Epinephrine and acetylcholine act on the sympathatetic and parasympathetic autonomic nervous system, respsectively, and their effects are opposite to each other. This type of antagonism is called A. competitive antagonism B. non competitive antagonism C. physiologic antagonism D. neutralizing antagonism 5. Which of the following is not true about competitive antagonism? A. It involves selective binding of the antagonist to a particular type of receptor in such a way as to prevent the binding of the antagonist

B. Both the agonist and antagonist have similar chemical structure C. It is reversible D. The antagonist does not have the ability to activate the receptor E. None of the above 6. The relative measure f the safety and effectiveness of a drug is the ratio of TD50 to ED50. The pharmacological term used to indicate this ratio is known as A. Pharmacological efficacy B. Pharmacological toxicity ratio C. Therapeutic index D. Median effective ratio E. Competitive antagonism 7. A physician may prescribed carbidopa along with levodopa to increase the halflife levodopa and the duration of its antiparkinsonian effect. This way of enhancing of drug effect is known as A. Potentiation B. Synergism C. Addition D. Partial antagonism E. Competitive antagonism 8. Which of the following is the main organ of metabolism? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Intestines D. Pancreas E. Heart 9. Chloramphenicol is known for which of the following adverse side-effects? A. Blue baby syndrome B. Gray baby syndrome C. Red man syndrome D. A and B E. B and C 10. Co-amoxiclav: amoxicillin/clavulanic acid : co-trimoxazole _____ A. Trimethoprim/mebendazole B. Triamterene/mebendazole C. Triamterene/sulfamethoxazole D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole E. None of the above

11. Which of the following drugs does not belong to the group? A. Omeprazole B. Lansoprazole C. Aripiprazole D. Ranitidine E. All of the above 12. Which of the following anti-TB drugs can cause red-green color blindness A. Rifamcin B. Isoniazid C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol E. Streptomycin 13. Which of the following drugs is the least considered as prodrug? A. Captopril B. Enalapril C. Ramipril D. Accupril E. None of the above 14. (Enervon®) tablet contains the following EXCEPT: A. Nicotinamide B. Calcium C. Ascorbic acid D. Magnesium E. None of the above 15. The sympathetic division of the ANS stems from_____ A. Craniosacral B. Thoracolumbar C. Craniolumbar D. Thoracosacral E. None of the above 16. Which of the following prevents the storage of the acetylcholine to terminal vesicles? A. Vesamicol B. Reserpine C. Botulinun toxin D. Hemicholinuim E. None of the above 17. The following are phase II reactions EXCEPT: A. Acetylation B. Methylation

C. Hydrolysis D. Sulfonation E. None of the above 18. Monoamine oxidase is an A. Enzyme B. Hormone C. Inhibitor D. Drug E. Cosmetic 19. Gon went to his farm to spray pesticide on his crops. Hour later he started to experience diarrhea, vomiting, bronchoconstriction and tachycardia. He was immediately sent to the hospital for treatment. Which of drugs should be given to Gon? A. Serine B. Edrophonium C. Atropine D. Prazosin E. Methycephaline 20. Aside from the answer in #19, what other drug can be given to Gon? A. DOM B. DAM C. DEM D. DIM E. DUM 21. Cookie was diagnosed to have HPN and was prescribed beta-blockers for her treatment. She has a history of asthma. Which of the ff. beta-blockers should be given to cookie? A. Propanolol B. Timolol C. Levobunolol D. Metoprolol E. None of the above 22. Andrea is going perform in the 2011 spring music festival. Hours before her performance she started to experience “stage fright”. Which of the ff. drugs can be given to manage her condition? A. Lasartan B. Enalapril C. Propanolol D. Prazosin E. Paracetamol

23. The hydraulic equation is A. CO=PVR x BP B. PVR=CO x CO C. BP=CO x PVR D. All of the above E. None of the above 24. Which of the ff. are substrates of kininase II/peptidyl dipeptidase? A. Angiotensin I B. Bradikinin C. Angiotensin II D. A and B E. A and C 25. Lanoxin acts on which of the following. A. Na/K ATPase pump B. Na/H ATPase pump C. H/K ATPase pump D. Na/Ca ATPase pump E. None of the above 26. Anti-arrhythmic drugs under class 4 acts on A. Na channels B. Ca channels C. K channels D. B blockers E. None of the above 27. Which of the following are loop diuretics? I. Ethacrynic acid II. Furosemide III. Bumetimide IV. Indapamide A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. I, II and III E. II, III and IV 28. Andrei works as a pilot in an airline company. Which of the following antihistamines can he take? A. Fexofenadine B. Bromoheniramine C. Promethazine D. Chlorpheniramine E. All of the above 29. 5HT3 antgonist are used for: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Diarrhea

C. Headache D. All of the above E. None of the above 30. Montelukast is a/an A. Leukotriene pathway inhibitor B. Mast cell stabilizer C. Anti – IgE monoclonal antibodies D. All of the above E. None of the above 31. DOC for typical absence seizure A. Lamotrigin B. Phenytoin C. Ethosuximide D. Carbamazepine E. All of the above 32. Flumazenil is A. Barbiturate antagonist B. Benzodiazepine antagonist C. Barbiturates antagonist D. Benzodiazepine agonist E. None of the above 33. Arrange the correct order of the stages of anesthesia I. Stage of excitement II. Stage of medullary depression III. Stage of surgical anesthesia IV. Stage of analgesia A. I,IV,II,III B. IV,I,II,III C. IV,I,III,II D. I,IV,III,II E. None of the above 34. Dissociative anesthetic state characterized by catatonia, amnesia, and analgesia can be produced by which drug? A. Etomidate B. Ketamine C. Propofol D. Thiopental E. Seconal 35. Neuroleptanesthesia is produce by which drug combination? A. Fentanyl, droperidol and NO B. Propofol, fentanyl and halothane C. Fentanyl, etomidate and halothane D. All of the above E. None of the above

36. Which of the following does not belong to the group? A. Lidocaine B. Mepivacaine C. Prilocaine D. Benzocaine E. Arecholine

42. Which of the ff. vitamin can be used to lower cholesterol levels? A. Retinol B. Thiamine C. Riboflavin D. Niacin E. Panthothenic acid

37. What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia? A. Succinylcholine B. Gabapentin C. Rocuronium D. Dantrolene E. Arecholine

43. Which of the given is considered the DMAD”s of 1st choice to treat rheumatoid arthritis? A. Cyclophosphamide B. Methotrexate C. Azathioprine D. Mycophenolate mofetil E. Cyclodextrins

38. Which of the following antiviral drug can be used for Parkinsonism? A. Abacavir B. Dinanosine C. Efavirenz D. Amantadine E. NOTA

44. Isoniazid can cause laboratory data except? A. Lactic acidosis B. Anemia C. Hypoglycaemia D. Leukocytes E. NOTA

39. Jet a five year old boy is having a problem with bed wetting. What drug can be prescribed for his condition? A. Citalopram B. Furosemine C. Sertraline D. Amitriptyline E. Amilorine

45. DOC for chronic gout A. Colchicines B. Probenecid C. Febuxostat D. Serine E. Allopurinol

40. It is the dextrorotatory stereoisomer of methylated derivative of levorphanol which is used as antitussive? A. Codeine B. Dextromethorphan C. Dolophine D. Revex E. Morphine 41. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are advised to be given during night time with the EXEPTION of _______ which can be given anytime of the day. A. Simvastatin B. Lovastatin C. Atorvastatin D. Flivastatin E. NOTA

the

following

46. A peptide hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary that participates in labor and delivery and elicits milk injection in lactating women. A. Prolactin B. Oxcytocin C. Insulin D. Somatostatin E. Simvastatin 47. Which of the following betablockers is most widely used in the therapy of thyrotoxicosis? A. Betaxolol B. Bisoprolol C. Metoprolol D. Propranolol E. Linalool

48. Marie is pregnant and was diagnosed with thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following thionamodes shoul be given to her? A. PTU B. Methimazole C. Carbimazide D. Mebendazole E. All of the above 49. Soluble “peakles”, ultra long acting analog A. Glargine B. NPH C. Insulin lispro D. All of the above 50. Safest sulfonylurea diabetics A. Tolbutamide B. Chlorpropamide C. Tolazamide D. Nateglinide E. None of the above

for

the

elderly

51. Synthetic analog of amylin that modulate postprandial glucose levels and is approved for preprandial use in individuals with type I and type II DM A. Sitagliptin B. Pramlintide C. Exenatide D. All of the above E. None of the above 52. Useful for reversing the cardiac effects of an overdose of B-blocking agents because ability to increase cAMP production in the heart A. Amylin B. Exenatide C. Sitagliptin D. Glucagon E. All of the above 53. Vitamin D is I. Has vitamin D2 as a natural form II. A secosteroid III. Produced in the skin from 7dehydrocholoesterol A. I only B. III only C. II and III only D. A and II only

E. I and III only 54. Calcitonon A. Lower serum calcuim and phosphate B. Increase serum calcium and phosphate C. Increase serum phosphate only D. Both A and B E. Neither A nor B 55. What is the oral form of penicillin? A. Pen G B. Pen V C. Pen C D. None of the above E. All of the above 56. What is the 1st generation PARENTERAL cephalosporin still in general use? A. Cefalexin B. Cephadrine C. Cefadoxole D. Cefazolin E. All of the above 57. Vancomycin is from A. Streptococcus orientalis B. Streptomyces orientalis C. Streptococcus orchidaceus D. Streptomyces orchidaceus E. None of the above 58. Which of the following is derived from erythromycin by addition of methyl group and has an improved acid stability and oral absorption A. Azithromycin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Streptomycin E. None of the above 59. Concurrent use of aminoglycoside with loop diuretics may result to: A. Ototoxicity B. Neprhrotoxicity C. Hypertension D. Both A and B E. None of the above 60. The most ototoxic aminoglycosides are: A. Neomycin and kanamycin B. Streptomycin and gentamicin

C. Neomycin and gentamicin D. All of the above E. None of the above 61. Trimethoprim acts on A. Dihydropteroate synthase B. Dihydrofolate reductase C. DNA gyrase D. A and B E. A and C 62. This anti-fungal drugs absorption is improved when taken with fatty foods: A. Ketoconazole B. 5-flucytosine C. Nystatin D. Griseofulvin E. All of the above 63. This drug is the treatment of choice for giardiasis, trichomoniasis and amoebiasis. A. Iodoquinol B. Diloxanide furoate C. Metronidazole D. paramomycin E. none of the above 64. Prussian blue is used to chelate A. Thallium B. Cesium C. Cyanide D. A and B E. B and C 65. Treatment for iron poisoning A. Deferoxamine B. Methylene blue C. Ferroin D. Penicillamine E. None of the above 66. Antidote for acetaminophen overdose A. NAC B. Atropine C. Bicarbonate D. Fomepizole E. All of the above 67. Acetylated morphine A. Codeine B. Heroin C. Methadone D. Naloxone

68. Methylated morphine A. Codeine B. Heroin C. Methadone D. Naloxone E. all of the above 69. Which of the following H2- antagonist has the highest bioavailability? A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Famotidine D. Nizatidine E. None of the above 70. Which is the most potent H2- antagonist? A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Famotidine D. Nizatidine E. All of the above 71. Plasil® is A. Metoclopramide B. Chlopropamide C. Enalapril D. Furosemide E. All of the above 72. Silymarin is for the A. Liver B. Kidney C. Brain D. All of the above E. None of the above 73. Ginkgo should not be given with A. Aspirin B. Vancomycin C. Caffeine D. Juice E. All of the above 74. Royal jelly is used as A. Diet aid B. Analgesic C. Tonic D. Digestive aid E. All of the above 75. What is the mechanism of action of a chloramphenicol?

A. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor B. Protein synthesis inhibitor C. DNA gyrase inhibitor D. Antimetabolite E. None of the above 76. Mr. Jones is admitted to General Hospital with pneumonia due to gram-negative bacteria. The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. The CL and Vd of tobramycin in Mr. Joses are 80 ml/min and 40 L. respectively. What maintenance dosage must be administered intravenously every 6 hours to eventually obtain average steady-state plasma concentrations of 4 mg/L? A. 0.32 mg B. 115 mg C. 160 mg D. 230 mg E. None of the above 77. If you wish to give Mr. Jones (of question 101) a loading dose to achieve the therapeutic plasma concentration of 4 mg/L immediately, how much should you give? A. 0.1 mg B. 10 mg C. 115.2 mg D. 160 mg E. None of the above 78. Biotransformation (metabolism) usually results in a product that is A. More likely to distribute intracellularly B. Less lipid-soluble than the the original drug C. More likely to be reabsorbed by kidney tubules D. More lipid-soluble than the original drug E. All of the above

A. Reversible inhibition acetylcholinesterase B. Spasm of accomodation C. Constipation D. Bronchoconstriction E. Weakness of skeletal muscle

of

81. Typical symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity include all of the following EXCEPT A. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea B. Salivation C. Miosis D. Paralysis of skeletal muscle E. Paralysis of accommodation 82. Atropine overdosage may cause all of the following EXCEPT A. Mental aberrations B. Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle C. Decrease in gastric secretion D. Papillary constriction E. Increase in cardiac rate 83. A college friend consults you regarding the suitability of the theraphy his doctor has prescribed for hypertension. He complains of postural and exercise hypotension (“dizziness”), some diarrhea, and problems with ejaculation during sex. Which of the following is most likely to produce these effects? A. Propranol B. Guanethedine C. Prazosin D. Hydralizine E. Captopril

79. Physostigimine and bethanechol in small doses have similar effects on all of the following EXCEPT A. Neuromuscular junction (skeletal muscle) B. Salivary glands C. Ureteral tone D. Sweat glands E. Gastric secretion

84. Captopril and Enalapril do all of the following EXCEPT A. Increase renin concentration in the blood B. Inhibit an enzyme C. Competitively inhibit angiotensin at its receptor D. Decrease the angiotensin II concentration in the blood E. Increase sodium and decrease potassium levels in the urine

80. Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may cause all of the following EXCEPT

85. The primary mechanism of action of digitalis involves

A. An increase of the action potential amplitude B. An increase in ATP synthesis C. A modification of the actin molecule D. An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels E. A block of sodium-calcium exchange 86. Which of the following is (are) frequently associated with increased gastrointestinal motility and diarrhea A. Timolol B. Prostaglandins E1 and E2 C. Corticosteroids D. Leukotriene B4 E. None of the above 87. The major action of cromolyn A. Smooth muscle relaxation release in the bronchi B. Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals C. Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes D. Block of mediator release from mast cells E. Block of cAMP synthesis in basophils 88. Each of the following is recognized as a central neurotransmitter EXCEPT A. Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. cAMP E. Acetylcholine 89. Which ONE of the following best describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines? A. Blockade of the excitatory actions of glutamic acid B. inhibition of GABA transaminase leading to increased levels of GABA C. Activation of glycine receptors in the spinal cord D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated increases in chloride conductance 90. Which of the following statements about carbidopa is accurate? A. It crosses the blood brain barrier B. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type A C. It is converted to the false transmitter, carbidopamine

D. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase E. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type B 91. This drug is a hydrazide derivative that binds irreversibly to monoamine oxidase types A and B, resulting in prolonged inhibition of amine metabolism. A. Amoxapine B. Amitriptyline C. Isocarboxazid D. Maprotiline E. Fluoxetine 92. This drug has analgesic efficacy equivalent to morphine. It is an antagonist at mu receptors. A. Dextromethorphan B. Nalbuphine C. Methadone D. Codeine E. Naltrexone 93. This antagonist drug has been proposed as a maintenance drug for addicts in treatment programs. A single oral dose will block the effects of injected heroin for up to 48 hours. A. Dextromethorphan B. Nalbuphine C. Methadone D. Codeine E. Naltrexone 94. This drug is free of analgesic and addictive properties and only rarely causes constipation. It is an effective antitussive. A. Dextromethorphan B. Nalbuphine C. Methadone D. Codeine E. Naltrexone 95. This drug is a full antagonist at opioid receptors. It has analgesic activity equivalent to that of morphine, but its actions are more prolonged. Withdrawal signs on abrupt discontinuance are milder than those with morphine. A. Dextromethorphan B. Nalbuphine C. Methadone D. Codeine E. Naltrexone

96. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin A. Is brought about by heparin B. Is brought about by warfarin C. Is brought about by anistreplase D. Is used preoperatively and during surgery in patients at risk of deep vein thromboses E. Can be reversed by administration of Vitamin K1 oxide 97. Aspirin should be used cautiously in a patient receiving heparin because aspirin A. Inhibits Vitamin K absorption B. Has antithrombin activity C. Inhibits heparin metabolism D. Inhibits platelet aggregation E. All of the above 98. Increased levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis? A. VLDL B. LDL C. IDL D. HDL E. Cholesterol 99. Which of the following causes a reduction in absorption of bile acids from the GIT A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors B. Colestipol C. Niacin D. Probucol E. All of the above 100. Drugs used in the treatment of gout include the following EXCEPT A. Indomethacin B. Allopurinol C. Colchicines D. Probenecid E. Aspirin 101. All of the following are hormones EXCEPT A. Bromocriptine B. Somatotropin C. Thyrotropin D. Vasopressin E. Somatomedin

102. Important drugs used in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis include all of the following EXCEPT A. PTU B. KI C. Thyroglobulin D. Radioactive iodine E. Methimazole 103. All of the following act by a similar mechanism EXCEPT A. Tolbutamide B. Tolazamide C. Chlorpropamide D. Glipizide E. Metformin 104. All of the following antimicrobial agents are inhibitors of protein synthesis EXCEPT A. Clindamycin B. Tetracycline C. Vancomycin D. Stretomycin E. Chloramphenicol 105. The mechanism of antibacterial action of cephalosporins involves A. Inhibition of peptide synthesis B. Interference with the synthesis of ergosterol C. Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes D. Inhibition of beta-lactamases E. Inhibiton of DNA gyrase 106. The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves A. Inhibition of the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol B. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyltRNA to bacterial ribosomes D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyltransferases E. None of the above 107. All of the following statements about aminoglycosides are accurate EXCEPT A. They exert synergistic effects with beta-lactam antibiotics against selected organisms B. They are bactericidal

C. Their antibacterial action involves binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit and subsequent inhibition of peptidyltransferase D. Clinical resistance occurs through plasmid-mediated formation of group transferase-inactivating enzymes E. Staphylococci resistant to methicillin are usually resistant to aminoglycosides 108. The primary reason for the use of drug combinations in the treatment of TB is to A. Prolong the plasma half-life of each drug B. Lower the incidence of adverse effects C. Enhance the activity against metabolically inactive mycobacteria D. Delay the emergence of resistance E. All of the above 109. Which ONE of the following anticancer drugs is cell cycle nonspecific? A. Vinblastine B. Etoposide C. Cytarabine D. Daunorubucin E. All of the above 110. Which of the following is not a protonpump inhibitor? A. Omeprazole B. Metronidazole C. Pantoprazole D. Lansoprazole E. None of the above 111. Filariasis, an infection which can lead to lymphatic obstructive disease, is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malay. Eradication of the microfilaria can be accomplished by the use of which of the following agents? A. Praziquantel B. Diethylcarbamazine C. Niclosamide D. Albendazole E. Metronidazole 112. Which of the following antineosplastic agents is considered as cell cycle phasespecific agent in terms of its action on cancer cells?

A. B. C. D. E.

Dactinomycin Daunorubucin Vincristine Cisplastin Mechlorethamine

113. Which of the following is (are) important adjuvants in cancer chemotheraphy involving cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide to prevent urotoxicity? A. MESNA B. Acrolein C. Sodium 2-sulfanylthanesulfate D. A and B E. A and C 114. Which of the following is true about the drug Pritor®? A. It is of the same therapeutic class and indication as Hypace® and Diovan ® B. It is used to treat essential hypertension C. It is associated with tachycardia, bradycardia, hypotension, and edema D. A and B E. B and C 115. Which of the following is not present in Cluviscol® tablets? A. Vitamin D2 400 IU B. Calcium 120mg C. Ferrous fumarate 15mg D. Vitamin C 150mg E. Cobalt 3mg 116. Which of the following is true regarding N-acetylcysteine? A. Intravenously, it is indicated for the treatment of paracetamol poisoning B. It is used as a mucolytic agent C. It is marketed as Acetadote®, Fluimucil® and Hidonac® D. A and B only E. A, B and C 117. Which of the following is true regarding Cellcept®? A. It contains a prodrug that is converted to the active drug in the liver. B. It inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase C. It decreases B cell proliferation D. A and B only

E. A, B and C 118. Xalatan® can best be described as a(n) A. Cholinesterase inhibitor B. Osmotic diuretic C. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent D. Prodrug E. Prostaglandin agonist 119. As an antiarrythmic drug, Tonocard® is most similar in mechanism of action to which one of the following agents? A. Amiodarone B. Propranolol C. Flecainide D. Verapamil E. Mexiletine 120. Which of the following antiarrythmic drugs is (are) associated with an adverse effect of cinchonism? A. Acebutolol B. Moricizine C. Quinidine D. Lidocaine E. Disopyramide 121. Colestipol can be classified as a(n) A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. Vasopressor C. Potassium-sparing diuretic D. ACE inhibitor E. Bile acid sequestrant 122. Valium® appear to act as anxiolytic by A. Altering the Na ion influx into the CNS B. Potentiating the effects of GABA C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS D. Interfering with amine pump E. Inhibiting the action of MAO 123. Clavunalic acid in Timentin® A. Inhibits beta-lactamases B. Prevents the urinary excretion of ticarcillin C. Prevents first pass metabolism of ticarcillin D. Is a buffer E. Is an antiprotozoal agent 124. Propylthiouracil is used for the same indication as A. Fluororacil

B. Danazol C. Omeprazole D. Pramipexole E. Methimazole 125. Which of the following is an indication of Ergotamine? A. Partial seizures B. Arthritic pain C. Tachycardia D. Psoriasis E. Migraine headaches 126. At clinical doses, Disease Eldepryl® is a (n): A. MAO-A inhibitor B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT D. Anticholinergic E. All of the above

anti-Parkinson’s

127. Which hypoglycemic agent is most similar in pharmacological action in miglitol? A. Glipizide B. Lispro insulin C. Proglitazone D. Replaganide E. Acarbose 128. Statement 1: Simeco® contains 25mg of simethicone. Statement 2: It is used for the sympotomatic relief of hyperacidity and flatulence. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. All of the above 129. Statement 1: Ceporex®is a trade name for cefalexin. Statement 2: cefaclor belong to the same generation of cephalosporins as cephalexin. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

130. Statement 1: Somatotropin is secreted by the posterior pituitary. Statement 2: Alphahypophamine is secreted by the posterior pituitary. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above 131. Statement 1: Inhalation of cannabis may cause the decreased pulse rate, perceptual changes and vascular congestion of the eye. Statement 2: The active component in cannabis is 9-tetrahydocannabinol. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above 132. Statement 1: Warfarin therapy is monitored by INR. Statement 2: It is important to maintain the INR between 2 to 3. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above 133. Statement 1: Ridaura® is a goldcointaining DMARD. Statement 2: It is indicated in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and multiple sclerosis. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

134. Statement 1: Lescol® and Lipitor® inhibit the formation of mevalonate by the HMG-CoA reductase. Statement 2: Lescol® is contraindicated for use in patients who are pregnant A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above 135. Statement 1: Scopolamine is available in a transdermal form for the prevention of motion sickness. Statement 2: It acts by blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above 136. Statement 1: Haloperidol is not an antipsychotic while chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic used clinically. Statement 2: Haloperidol does not produced extrapyramidal effects in contrast to chlorpromazine. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above 137. Statement 1: The “first-dose” effect is characterized by marked hypotension on taking the first few doses of medication. Statement 2: This effect is seen with the use of doxazosin. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

E. None of the above 138. Statement 1: Dilantin® blocks voltagegated Ca ion channel in the neuron. Statement 2: Its use is associated with adverse effects such as gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism and ataxia. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above 139. Statement 1: Accutane® is a vitamin A derivative that is under pregnancy category X. Statement 2: It is used for the treatment of patients Psoriasis and alopecia. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above 140. Which of the following dopaminergic anti-parkinson’s agents I. Ropinerole II. Pergolide III. Procyclidine A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. I,II and III E. NOTA

is(are)

the

following

143. Which of the following is (are) used as an anti-fungal agent? I. Cycloserine II. Mafenide III. Terbinafine A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III only 144. Which of the following is (are) blockers of H1 receptors? I. Diphenhydramine II. Hydroxyzine III. Ranitidine A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III only 145. Which of the following is (are) false about milrinone lactate? A. It may be administered Orally or parenterally B. It produces positive inotropic action C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS D. It inhibits phosphodiesterase 3, thereby increasing cAMP levels E. Both A and D

141. Which of the following is protease inhibitors I. Cidofovir II. Acyclovir III. Nelfinavir A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III only 142. Which of aminopenicillins

A. B. C. D. E.

I. Bacampicillin II. Amoxicillin III. Ampicillin I only III only I and II only II and III only I, II and III only

are

146. The following statements about alteplase are true except: A. It is produce by recombinant DNA technology B. It is a tissue plasminogen activator C. It is administered parenterally D. It stimulate RBC production E. NOTA 147. The following statements about Zocor® are true except: A. Inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase.

B. It is an antiviral drug C. It is contraindicated to pregnant patient D. It requires to be taken at right E. NOTA 148. Which of the following is (are) true about dobutamine? A. It is clinically use as an antidepressant and antihypertensive agent. B. It is only given parentally C. It is stumulate beta-1 receptor D. A and B E. B and C 149. Which of the following is true about fentanyl? A. It is available as a transdermal system B. It may be use as a cough suppressant C. It is use as local anesthetic D. Both A and C E. Both A and B 150. reserpine, an alkaloid from rauwolfia can lower the blood pressure and depress the CNS. What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic pathway is inhibited by reserpine to bring about these effect? A. DOPA decarboxylase B. Storage of catecholamines in the presynaptic vesicle C. Release of norepinephrine from presynaptic terminals D. MAO enzyme E. Uptake- 1 mechanism 151. Which of the following areas of toxicology focuses on the primarily on the medico legal aspects of the harmful effects of chemical in the human and animals A. Environmental toxicology B. Clinical toxicology C. Forensic toxicology D. Developmental toxicology E. Reproductive toxicology 152. A type of antagonism that occurs when two chemicals counterbalance each other by producing opposite effect on the same physiological function. A. receptor antagonism B. functional antagonism C. chemical antagonism

D. dispositional antagonism E. none of the above 153. When a chemical A and B administered simultaneously, their combine effects are far greater than the sum of their effects when given alone. The chemical interaction between chemicals A and B can be described as which of the following? A. Potentiative B. Additive C. Antagonistic D. functionally antagonistic E. synergistic 154. A type of antagonism that occurs when the absorption, biotransformation, distribution, or excretion of chemical is altered so that the concentration and duration at the target of diminished. A. receptor antagonism B. functional antagonism C. chemical antagonism D. dispositional antagonism E. none of the above 155. A type of dose response relationship which describe the response of an individual or organism to varying doses of chemical. A. individual dose-response relationship B. quantal dose-response relationship C. graded dose-response relationship D. both A and B E. both A and C 156. A type of dose response relationship which characterized the distribution of response to different doses in a population of individual organism. A. individual dose-response relationship B. quantal dose-response relationship C. graded dose-response relationship D. both A and B E. both A and C 157. A dose U- shaped dose response curved which result with some xenobiotics that imparts beneficial or stimulatory effects at low doses but adverse effects at higher doses. A. hormesis B. threshold C. individual dose response curve D. graded response curve

E. none of the above 158. It is defined as the ratio of the dose required to produce a toxic effect and the dose need to illicit desire therapeutic response. A. ED50 B. threshold C. therapeutic index D. LD50 E. none of the above 159. Areas of toxicology that focuses on the impact of chemical pollutants in the environment on biological organism, specilly studying the impacts of chemicals on nonhuman organism A. forensic toxicology B. clinical toxicology C. developmental toxicology D. reproductive toxicology E. environmental toxicology 160. The dose required to result in a response in 50 percent of population. A. median dose B. ceiling dose C. potency D. LD50 E. ED50 161. Place the following mechanism of toxin delivery in order from most effective to least effective. 1: intravenous 2:subcutaneous 3: oral 4: inhalation 5: dermal A. 1,5,2,4,3 B. 4,1,2,3,5 C. 1,4,2,3,5 D. 4,2,1,5,3 E. 1,4,3,2,5 162. It is the primary rout of exposure of benzene in industrial setting. A. inhalation B. subcutaneous C. oral D. dermal E. intravenous 163. Toxic substance present in paints, lacquer, thinners, cleaning agent and glues. A. benzene B. ethanol C. toluene

D. chloroform E. carbon tetrachloride 164. It is use primarily in the production of the refrigerant chlorodifluoromethane. A. toluene B. carbon tetrachloride C. ethanol D. benzene E. chloroform 165. Metabolite of phosgene which damage membranes and other intracellular structures leading to necrosis and tumor formation. A. tetrachloroethylene B. phosgene C. methylene chloride D. ethylbenzene E. none of the above 166. Enzyme catalyses oxidation of ethanol to acetaldehyde A. aldehyde dehydrogenase B. catalase C. alcohol dehydrogenase D. both A and C E. none of the above 167. Ingestion of these substance may cause visual disturbance ranging from mild photophobia and blurred vision to markedly reduced acuity and complete blindness A. Ethanol B. Chloroform C. Ethylene glycol D. Methanol E. Carbon tetrachloride 168. Which of the following is NOT an important enzyme in ethanol metabolism? A. Alcohol dehydrogenase B. Formaldehyde decarboxylase C. CYP2E1 D. Catalase E. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase 169. Which of the following statements regarding benzene is false? A. High level exposure to benzene could result in acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

B. Gasoline vapour emissions and autoexhauted are the two main contributors to benzene inhalation. C. Benzene is used as an ingredient in unleaded poisoning. D. Benzene metabolites covalently bind DNA, RNA and protein and interfere with their normal functioning E. Reactive oxygen species can be delivered from benzene 170. Which of the following is NOT associated with glycol ether toxicity? A. Hematotoxicity B. Craniofacial malformation C. Seminiferous tubule atrophy D. Irreversible spermatotoxicity E. Cleft lip 171. A major constituent of antifreeze, hydraulic fluids and drying agents. A. Methanol B. Glycol ethers C. Propylene glycol D. Ethylene glycol E. Ethanol 172. It is also known as quick silver. A. Ag B. Hg C. Mg D. Sb E. As 173. Contact dermatitis is the most common adverse effect of which of the following metals? A. Nickel B. Copper C. Arsenic D. Lead E. Cadmium 174. Wilson’s disease is an autosomal genetic disorder caused by which of the following metals? A. Aluminium B. Copper C. Arsenic D. Cadmium E. Lead 175. Essential chemicals EXCEPT?

A. B. C. D. E.

Iron Copper Zinc Both A & B only All of the above

176. Metals related to medicinal therapy A. Aluminium B. Lithium C. Platinum D. Both A & B only E. All of the above 177. The following pesticides are correctly matched EXCEPT: A. Rodenticides –rats B. Molluscides –snails C. Pediculocides – lice D. Fungicides –molds E. Ascaricies –insects 178. Insecticidesm first developed from the extracts from the flower heads of chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium A. DDT B. Rotenoids C. Pyrethrins D. Aldrin E. Endrin 179. Which of the following drugs may induce visual system abnormalities such as decreased vision, flickering scotomas and altered color vision. A. Digoxin B. Metoprolol C. Colchicine D. Rifampicin E. Lidocaine 180. A drug that is used to ameliorate nausea and vomiting in pregnancy but results to malformations of Amelia and various degree of phocomelia. A. Diethylstilbestrol B. Thalidomine C. Ethanol D. Nicotine E. Retinoids 181. The main target for lead toxicity especially in developing fetus and young children.

A. B. C. D. E.

Bone marrow Kidneys Gastrointestinal tract Reproductive organs Central nervous system

182. Minamata Disease is caused by A. Lead B. Cadmium C. Mercury D. Silver E. arsenic 183. In japan, Itai-itai disease is caused by consumption of rice contaminated by A. Lead B. Cadmium C. Mercury D. Silver E. Arsenic 184. Chronic exposure to this metal result to hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis of the palm and soles. A. Lead B. Cadmium C. Mercury D. Silver E. Arsenic 185. It is also known as dimercaprol A. Succimer B. Unithol C. Deferoxamine D. BAL E. Penicillamine 186. It is mixture of copper and arsenic salt that is used to control insects in 1800’s A. Bordeaux B. Rotenone C. DDT D. Paris green E. Pyrethrin 187. A natural compound derived from Urginea maritime and is effective in controlling rodents. A. Pyretrin B. Red squill C. Paris Green D. Bordeaux mixture E. Rotenone

188. It is the antidote for warfarin toxicity. A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin E D. Pyridoxime E. Thiamine 189. Toxins found in peanuts A. Saxitoxin B. Cigutoxin C. Scrombroid D. Aflatoxin E. Tetrodotoxin 190. Toxins found in several species of Alexandrium dinoflagellates A. Saxitoxin B. Cigutoxin C. Scrombroid D. Aflatoxin E. Tetrodotoxin 191. Toxin produced by puffer fish. A. Saxitoxin B. Tetrodotoxin C. Scromboid D. Aflatoxin E. ciguatoxin 192. The most prevalent polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon found in cigarette smoke. A. scromboid B. Benzopyrene C. Ciguatoxin D. Anthracene E. Nicotine 193. This naturally occurring furan is produced by the mold Fusarium solani that infects sweet potatoes. A. Ciguatoxin B. Monocratolin C. Ipomeanol D. Anthracene E. Benzopyrene 194. Exposure to this vitamin can cause malformation of the face, limbs, heart, CNS and skeleton of the developing fetus. A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin K E. Vitamin B complex 195. The following drugs and chemicals are associated with the development of aplastic anemia EXCEPT A. Tetracycline B. Chloramphenicol C. Carbamazepine D. Indomethacin E. Nitric oxide 196. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy with unfractionated heparin. A. aPTT B. Creatine kinase C. AST D. PT E. ALT 197. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy with warfarin. A. Aptt B. Creatine kinase C. AST D. PT E. ALT 198. The following are clotting factors inhibited by warfarin and its analogs EXCEPT A. III B. X C. IX D. VII E. II 199. Which of the following type of anemia is properly paired with its cause? A. Megaloblastic anemia- lead poisoning B. Aplastic anemia-ethanol C. Sideroblastic anemia-vitamin B12 deficiency D. Megaloblastic anemia-folate supplementation E. Iron deficiency anemia-blood loss 200. The inability to synthesize the porphyrin ring of haemoglobin will most likely to result in which of the following? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Inability to synthesize thymidine, C. Improper RBC mitosis D. Bone marroe hyperplasia

E. Accumulation of iron within erythroblast 201. the normal erythrocyte has metabolic mechanism for reducing heme iron to ferrous state. Failure of these control mechanism may lead to which of the following? A. Aplastic anemia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Methemoglobinemia D. Iron deficiency anemia E. Sideroblastic anemia 202. This type of anemia is characterized by peripheral blood pancytopenia, reticulocytopenia, and bone marrow hypoplasia. A. Aplastic anemia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Sideroblastic anemia E. Methemoglobinemia 203. It is used to treat APAP toxicity; its primary action is to enhance hepatocyte synthesis of glutathione. A. Vitamin K B. Fomepizole C. Disulfiram D. N-acetylcysteine E. None of the above 204. Which of the following metals is NOT nephrotoxic? A. Cadmium B. Lead C. Mercury D. Platinum E. None of the above 205. Shaver’s disease is caused by A. Ammonia B. Cadmium oxide C. Hydrogen fluoride D. Bauxite fumes E. Kaolin 206. Chemotherapeutic agent that causes pulmonary fibrosis. A. Vincristine B. Doxorubicin C. Bleomycin D. Vinblastine E. Azathioprine

207. Mycotoxin found in claviceps purpurea. A. Aflatoxin B. Saxitoxin C. Ciquatoxin D. Ergot E. Tetrodotoxin 208. The most toxic type of aflatoxin. A. B1 B. B2 C. G1 D. G2 E. None of the above 209. Neurotoxin found in improperly canned foods. A. Aflatoxin B. Ciguatoxin C. Saxitoxin D. Tetrodotoxin E. Botulinum toxin 210. A growth promoter in animals that is no longer use because of the discovery that tumor of genital organ have developed in the offspring of mothers who had taken this during pregnancy in large dose for medical purposes. A. Diethylstilbestrol B. Testosterone C. Progesterone D. Estradiol. E. Somatotropin 211. The following side effects may be experience upon exposure to an organophosphate and carbamate insecticides EXCEPT A. Diarrhea B. Bronchoconstriction C. Involuntary urination D. Mydriasis E. Salivation 212. Metabolite of tetrafluoroethylene that is the penultimate nephrotoxicant. A. Cysteine B. Phosgene C. Cysteine-S-conjugate D. Glutathione E. Diglutathione conjugate of hydroquinone

213. Metabolite of bromobenzene that is approximately thousand fold more potent than bromobenzene in producing nephrotoxicity. A. Cystein B. Phosgene C. Cysteine-S-conjufate D. Glutathione E. Diglutathione conjugate of hydroquinone 214. It is the toxic metabolite of methanol that mediates the metabolic acidosis as well as retinal toxicity. A. Formic acid B. Acetaldehyde C. Acetic acid D. Phosgene E. Chloroquine 215. Anti-tubercular agent that may cause optic neuropathy A. Rifampicin B. Isoniazid C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol E. Streptomycin 216. A deficiency of which of the following vitamins can result in degeneration of optic nerve fibers? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B3 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B 12 E. Vitamin E 217. High exposure to this metal cause “black foot disease” which is circulatory disorder reflecting endothelial cell damage. A. Lead B. Cadmium C. Arsenic D. Mercury E. Silver 218. Which of the following drugs/chemical may cause hyperpigmentation of the skin? A. Phenolic germicides B. BHT C. Hydroquinone D. Mercaptoamines E. Amiodarone

219. Which of the following drugs/chemical may cause hypopigmentation of the skin? A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Bleomycin D. Hydroquinone E. Minocycline 220. An organic compounds that is approximately 49% elemental mercury by weight and has been widely used as preservative since 1930’s in contact lens solution, biologics, and vaccine particularly those in multi-dose container. A. Thimerosal B. Merthiolate C. Mercurothiolate D. Sodium ethylmercuriethiosalisylate E. all of the above 221. Which of the following drugs is/are often associated with phototoxic reaction? A. Tetracycline B. Sulphonamides C. Sulfonylureas D. Phenothiazine E. All of the above 222. Dicumarol is fungal metabolite that causes which of the following? A. Prothrombin deficiency B. Epileptiform seizure C. Acute renal failure D. Photosensitivity E. Parasympathetic overactivation 223. The compound found in red pepper is A. Anthracenones B. Capsaicin C. Hyoscyamine D. Atropine E. Scopolamine 224. Alkaloid found in Datura stramonium A. Capsaisin B. Antracenones C. Red squill D. Scopolamine E. All of the above 225. Which of the following is NOT commonly caused by tick envenomation? A. Cat scratch disease

B. C. D. E.

Ehrlichiosis Lyme disease Rocky mountain spotted fever Q-fever

226. Neurotoxin found in black widow spiders. A. Serotoxin B. Loxosceles C. Latrotoxin D. Rotenone E. Saxitoxine 227. A species of which of the following animals produces a venom that contains 60% formic acid? A. Snakes B. Lizards C. Ants D. Scorpions E. spiders 228. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Lepidoptera envenomation? A. Decreased plasminogen levels B. Increased risk of haemorrhaging C. Decreased partial thromboplastin time D. Increased in prothrombin time E. Decreased fibrinogen levels 229. Food Poisoning with which of the following bacteria occurs when meat has been contaminated with intestinal contents of slaughters and then roasted and inadequately stored. A. C. perfringerns B. R. Ricketsii C. S. Aureus D. C. botulinum E. E. coli 230. This includes the chemical, biochemical, and molecular events that lead to deleterious effects on development. A. Mutagenesis B. Teratogenesis C. Carcinogenesis D. Behavioral toxicology E. None of the above 231. it is highly irritating and oxidizing gas that is formed by photochemical action of UV light on nitrogen dioxide smog. A. Nitrogen oxide

B. C. D. E.

Carbon monoxide Ozone Volatile organic compounds None of the above

232. It is known as the “bad ozone” that occurs from 0 to 10 miles above the earth’s surface. A. Tropospheric ozone B. stratospheric ozone C. Volatile organic hydrocarbons D. Either A and B E. None of the above 233. Follic acid supplementation should be provided to patient chronically using A. Phenytoin B. Propranolol C. Levodopa + carbidopa D. Sulindac E. Tetracycline 234. Dermopathy, an erythematous desquamation of the palms and soles also called as hand-foot syndrome is seen after extended infusion of which of the chemotherapeutic agents? A. Doxorubicin B. Cytarabin C. 5-FU D. Methotrexate E. None of the above 235. The drug used to antagonize the effects of opioid toxicity. A. Nubain B. Narcan C. Revex D. Depade E. Either A and B 236. which of the following is the effects of digoxin to atrial muscles at toxic dose? A. Extrasystoles B. Fibrillation C. Arrhythmia D. Tachycardia E. All of the above 237. Notorious plant poison found in Aconitum species A. Mandrake B. Monkshood

C. Aconite D. A and B E. B and C only 238. Notorious plant that can be found Conium maculatum A. Poison hemlock B. Henbane C. mandrake D. Aconite E. opium 239.Notorious plant poison that can be found in Veratrum Album A. Poison hemlock B. Henbane C. mandrake D. Aconite E. Hellebore 240. Commercial preparations of universal antidote is composed of A. 1 part tannic acid, 2 parts magnesium oxide. 1 part activated charcoal B. 2 parts tannic acid, 1 part magnesium oxide, 2 parts activated charcoal C. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium oxide, 1 part activated charcoal D. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium oxide, 2 parts activated charcoal E. None of the above 241. Tartar emetic had a long history of use of an emetic, as well as sedative, expectorant, cathartic and diaphoretic. The chemical name for tartar emetic is A. Potassium bipthalate B. Potassium antimony tartrate C. Potassium antimony bitartrate D. Potassium antimony bipthalate E. None of the above 242. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of the following is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis in ethylene glycol poisoning? A. Formic acid B. Glycolic acid C. Acetone D. Acetic acid E. all of the above

243. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of the following is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis in methanol poisoning? A. Formic acid B. Glycolic acid C. Acetone D. Acetic acid E. all of the above 244. The most prominent end organ effect of ethylene glycol is A. Nephrotoxicity B. Hepatotoxicity C. Hemorrhagic gastritis D. Visual impairment to total blindness E. None of the above 245. In the pathway of ethylene glycol metabolism which of the following substance/s enhances the formation non-toxic metabolites. A. Fomepizole B. Thiamine C. Pyridoxine D. A and B E. B and C only 246. Disulfiram therapy is indicated in the following alcohol toxicity EXCEPT A. Methanol B. Ethylalcohol C. Isopropanol D. Both A and B E. Both B and C 247. The following are advantages of using fomepizole over ethanol in the treatment of ethylene glycol toxicity EXCEPT A. Fomepizole does not cause CNS depression B. Fomepizole does not require serum concentration monitoring C. Fomepizole is readily available D. Fomepizole is low-cost E. Both C and D 248. An alkaloid found in Strychnos nux vomica A. Strychnine B. Aconite C. Nicotine D. Muscarine E. Carnitine

249.This drug is used together with atropine in the management of patient poisoned by organic phosphorous and carbamate pesticides. Its primary mechanism is to reactivate the enzyme cholinesterase A. 2-PAM B. Disulfiram C. Pralidoxime D. Both A and B E. Both A and C 250.Glycine acts as a post synaptic inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord and lower brainstem. Which of the following substance is classified as glycine antagonist? A. Ethanol B. Picrotoxin C. Clozapine D. Propofol E. D-serine 251. Which of the following is classified as glycine re-uptake inhibitor? A. Ethanol B. Picrotoxin C. Clozapine D. Propofol E. D-serine 252. Which of the following causes metabolic alkalosis? A. Administration of diuretics B. Administration of sodium bicarbonate C. Vomiting D. Magnesium deficiency E. All of the above 253. Which of the following substance causes hypercalcemia? A. Aminoglycosides B. Furosemide C. Ethanol D. Bisphosphonates E. Lithuim 254. Which of the following substance causes hypocalcemia? A. Vitamin A B. Tamoxifen C. Androgens D. Calcitonin E. Glucocorticoids

255. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a rare lifethreatening dermatologic emergency and medications are causally implicated in 80%90% of cases. Which of the following drugs causes toxic epidermal necrolysis? A. Allopurinol B. Acetaminophen C. Picrotoxin D. Nickel E. None of the above 256. CNS toxin found in Artemisia absinthuim A. Ephedra B. Nicotine C. atropine D. absinthe E. Scopolamine 257. CNS toxin found in Areca catechu A. Ephedra B. atropine C. absinthe D. Scopolamine E. Arecholine 258. It is extracted from the fruit of the evergreen Myristica fragrans and it is the main active ingredient in myristicin. A. Nutmeg B. Pine oil C. Wintergreen D. Clove E. Camphor 259. Toxic ingredient gangarizan A. Anthraquinones B. Coumarin C. Bufadienolides D. Arecholine E. Amygdalin

found

in

Bufo

260. Classic description of chronic intake of this antibiotic is the “gray baby syndrome” which is characterized by vomiting, anorexia, respiratory distress, abdominal distention, green stools and cyanosis. This is syndrome is caused by A. Tetracycline B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Sulfonamides E. Vancomycin

261. The following management/s is done to patient suspected of overdose of proguanil or pyrimethamine EXCEPT: A. Folate supplementation B. administration of methylene blue for methemoglobinemia C. administration of cimetidine to prevent the conversion to a toxic metabolite D. administration of multiple dose of charcoal to enhance it elimination E. All of the above 262. Whole bowel irrigation is the most effective process for evacuating the intestinal tract in poisoned patients. Which of the following conditions wherein whole bowel irrigation is contraindicated? A. GI perforation B. Volume depletion C. GI haemorrhage D. Compromised airway E. All of the above 263. Which of the following is true with dosage of syrup of ipecac? A. For children 1-12 years old the dose is 15ml B. For older children and adult the dose is 30ml C. For children 6-12 mos of age dose should be limited to a maximum single dose of 10ml D. If vomiting does not ensure after the first dose, the same dose may be repeated once in 20-30min. E. All of the above 264. Antibotic that causes aplastic anemia A. Tetracycline B. Erythromycin C. Vancomycin D. Chloramphenicol E. Amikacin 265. It is hygroscopic polysaccharide derived from the bean of the cyamopsis psorabides. It expands 10-20 fold in the stomach, forming a gelatinous mass that produces the senasation of satiety. A. Guar gum B. Chitosan C. Dinitrophenol D. Xenical

E. none of the above 266. Antidote for APAP toxicity A. Activated charcoal B. NAC C. PAM D. Oxime E. Ipecac 267.Which of the following causes a brownblack urine? A. Cascara B. Iron C. Metyldopa D. Senna E. All of the above 268. Which of the following drugs causes cataracts? A. Acetazolamide B. Amiodarone C. Chlorpromazine D. Corticosteroids E. Cisplatin 269. Which of the following antibiotics causes disulfiram like effects? A. Cefotetan B. Metronidazole C. Co-trimoxazole D. Moxalactam E. all of the above 270. Methamphetamine is also known as A. Crack B. Speed C. Yaba D. Go E. All of the above 271. Food interaction occur when pharmacologically active dietary monoamines such as tyramine is ingested by patients taking MAOIs. Which of the following foods has the highest tyramine effect? A. Yogurt B. Avocados C. Redwines D. Aged, mature cheese E. Smoked meats or fish 272. It is rapidly acting antidote used for reversing the anticoagulant effects of

unfractionated heparin and for some of the effects of LMWH. A. Vitamin K B. Protamine C. Hirudin D. Tissue plasminogen activator E. None of the above 273. It is polypeptide produced by the salivary glands of the medicinal leech, hirudo medicinalis that reversibly blocks thrombin without the need for antithrombin III. A. Hirudin B. Heparin C. Protamine D. Warfarin E. None of the above 274. Thimerosal is an organic compound that approximately contains 49% by weight of: A. Hg B. Ag C. S D. Al E. None of the above 275. This drug is known as “soda loading”. It buffers the lactic acidosis caused by exercise, thereby delaying fatigue and enhancing performance. A. Caffeine B. Calcuim hydroxide C. Diuretics D. Amphetamines E. Sodium bicarbonate 276. This is used in sports in which the athlete must achieve a certain weight to complete in discrete weight classes. It is used by body builders to give their skin a greater definition as this causes the skin to draw tightly around the muscles. A. Amphetamine B. Sodium carbonate C. Diuretics D. Caffeine E. None of the above 277. This vitamin reduces iron from ferric to the ferrous state, thereby increasing intestinal absorption of iron. A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D E. Vitamin E 278. it is cololess, oily liquid with a faint aromatic odor that Is commonly added to pharmaceutical products as a bacteriostatic agent. It causes “gasping syndrome” in infants which is the characteristized by hypotension bradycardia, gasping respiration seizures, cardiovascular collapsed and death. A. Chlorobutanol B. PEG C. Propylene glycol D. Ethylene glycol E. Benzyl alcohol 279. Patient taking rifampicin in combination with isoniazid develops what type of toxicity? A. Nephrotoxicity B. Ototoxicity C. Neurotoxicity D. Hepatotoxicity E. None of the above 280. Which of the following drugs causes “red man red neck syndrome”? A. Sulfonamides B. amphotericin B C. Vancomycin D. Erythromycin E. None of the above 281. An antimycobacterial agent that is classified as congener of INH and have the same mechanism of action with INH. A. Capreomycin B. Ethionamide C. Para-aminosalicylic acid D. Isoniazid E. Pyrazinamide 282. Pyridoxine is a water soluble vitamin that is used as antidote for which of the following poisoning? A. INH B. Ethylene glycol C. PZA D. A and B E. A and C 283. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about methemoglobinemia?

A. Methemoglobinemia occurs when the iron atom in haemomoglobin loses 2 electron to an oxidant B. Methemoglobinemia when ferrous state of iron is transformed into the ferric state. C. Methemoglobinemia is normally present in the body at high concentration D. Both A and B E. Both B and C 284. It is used in the treatment of aniline induced Methemoglobinemia A. Methylene blue B. Glucagon C. Oximes D. PAM E. EDTA 285. The following are example of chemical asphyxiants EXCEPT A. Carbon monoxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Hydrogen sulphide D. Oxides of nitrogen E. Hydrogen cyanide 286. Toxic combustion product that exert a space-occupying effect simply displacing oxygen. A. Chemical asphyxiants B. Simple asphyxiants C. irritant D. A and B E. All of the above 287. Q fever occurs naturally as a self limited febrile, zoonotic disease contracted from domestic livestock. Q fever I classified as biological warfare agent and is now known to caused by A. Coxiella burnetti B. Brucalla melitensis C. Baciilus anthracis D. Yersinia pestis E. None of the above 288. It is anti-muscarinic compound that was developed as an incapacitating chemical warfare agent. It is 25-fold more potent centrally than atropine. A. BZ

B. C. D. E.

QNB 3-quinuclidinyl benzilate A and B only All of the above

289. Vesicants are agents that cause blistering of skin and mucous membrane. Which of the following is classified as vesicants but does not cause vesiculation of the skin? A. Sulphur mustard B. Lewisite C. Phosgene oxime D. Cyanide E. None of the above 290. BAL should be administered through A. IV B. IM C. SQ D. Oral E. A and B only 291. What specific element is present in dimercaprol? A. Magnesium B. Sulfur C. Iron D. manganese E. None of the above 292. It is active substance in the Chinese plant Ma-huang has been used for the treatment of asthma. A. Khat B. Cathionone C. Methcathinone D. Ephedrine E. None of the above 293. An extrapyrimidal syndrome that occurs 3 months to years after taking an antipsychotic drug it is characterized by involuntary choreiform movements like buccolinguomasticatory movements A. Acute dystonia B. Akathisia C. Parkinsonism D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome E. Tardive dyskinesia

294. It is one of the extrapyrimadal syndromes characterized by restlessness and inability to sit still A. Acute dystonia B. Akathisia C. Parkinsonism D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome E. Tardive dyskinesia 295. It is one of the extrapyramidal syndromes characterized by sustained, involuntary muscle contraction, torticollis, including blephaospasm and oculogyric crisis. A. Acute dystonia B. Akathisia C. Parkinsonism D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome E. Tardive dyskinesia 296. It is hydantoin derivative and structurally similar to local anesthetics that is used for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia. A. Phenytoin B. Diazepam C. Dantrolene D. Phenobarbital E. Tensilon 297. It is the drug of choice for beta adrenergic antagonist poisoning A. Propranolol B. Atropine C. Glucagon D. Ethanol E. Valium 298. Ipecac is derived from rhizome and roots of plants found in Brazil belonging to the family Rubiaceae. Which of the following substance is/are responsible for the production of nausea and vomiting of ipecac syrup? A. Cephaelin B. Emetine C. Scopolamine D. A and B only E. B and C only 299. Contraindicated of syrup of ipecac A. The patient is younger than 6 month of age B. Ingestion of caustic poison

C. Ingestion of a foreign body such as a drug packet or sharp item D. The patient does not meet the criteria for gastric emptying E. All of the above 300. Gastric emptying may be indicated if A. Significant spontaneous emesis has occured B. The ingested poison has a high efficient antidote C. the patient presents many hours post ingestion D. The ingested poison is well adsorbed activated charcoal E. None of the above