Key word: SPICY
2. TURGEON: Refusal by the patient to have blood
Ang Turn Around Time (TAT)..
drawn. The response to this problem is to politely
Pre-analytical, Analytical or Post-analytical
excuse yourself from the patient’s room, note the
variable?
refusal on the requisition, and notify the
-post ana
hematology supervisor. 3. McCALL: There are times when a phlebotomist is
CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE
not able to collect a specimen from a patient even
PROLONGED APTT OR PT..
before attempting venipuncture. Occasionally, a
Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN
patient will refuse to have blood drawn. Other
1. From Rodak
times, the patient may be unavailable because he or
a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor
she has gone to surgery or for another test, as in
deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin
radiology. Whatever the reason, if the specimen
deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the
cannot be obtained, notify the patient’s nurse or
fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less.
physician. You may be required to fill out a form
b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are
stating that the specimen was not obtained and the
associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in
reason why. The original form is placed in the
prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of
patient’s chart and the laboratory retains a
reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin;
copy.
and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or
The following are the most common and generally
less.
accepted reasons for inability to obtain a specimen:
(ANSWER from McCall, Chapter 8, no. 6 is B)
• Phlebotomist attempted but was unable to draw 2. From Brown
blood.
a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen
• Patient refused to have blood drawn.
concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of
• Patient was unavailable.
dysfibrinogenemia. b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in
KEY WORD: SPICY
fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or
HENRY vs. STRASINGER. Malaki na kayo..
lower will cause a prolonged APTT.
1. HENRY Urine sediment may be “telescoped,” that is, may
KEY WORD: SPICY
display all types of cells and casts in lupus
HEMATOLOGY AND PHLEBOTOMY BOOKS
nephritis or with a hypersensitivity reaction.
RODAK, TURGEON OR McCALL TAYO?
Telescoped Sediment. This term is used to describe
1. RODAK: The patient has the right to refuse to
the simultaneous occurrence of elements of
give a blood specimen. If gentle urging does not
glomerulonephritis and those of nephrotic syndrome
persuade the patient to allow blood to be drawn, the
in the same urine specimen. A telescoped sediment
phlebotomist should alert the nurse, who will either
might therefore include red cells, red cell casts,
talk to the patient or notify the physician. The
cellular casts, broad waxy casts, lipid droplets,
phlebotomist must not try to force an uncooperative
oval fat bodies, and fatty casts. Such sediment may
patient to have blood drawn; it can be unsafe for
be found in collagen vascular disease (notably lupus
the phlebotomist and for the patient. In addition,
nephritis) and subacute bacterial endocarditis.
forcing a patient of legal age and sound mind to
2. STRASINGER
have blood drawn against his or her wishes can
An abundance of granular, waxy, and broad casts,
result in charges of assault and battery or unlawful
often referred to as a telescoped urine sediment.
restraint. KEY WORD: SPICY
CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE PROLONGED APTT OR PT..
Tests for fecal occult blood are in general use as a
Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN
screening test for which of the following?
1. From Rodak
A. Breast cancer
a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor
B. Colorectal cancer
deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin
C. Enteric infection of the colon
deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the
D. Malabsorption syndrome
fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less. b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are
In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the
associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in
blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after
prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of
carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal
reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin;
level after:
and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or
A. 30 minutes
less.
B. 45 minutes
2. From Brown
C. 60 minutes
a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen
D. 120 minutes
concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of dysfibrinogenemia. b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or lower will cause a prolonged APTT. KEY WORD: SPICY From Rodak: 1. PRP: centrifuged at 50 g for 30 minutes 2. PPP: centrifuged at 1500 x g for 15 minutes in a swinging bucket centrifuge
Pyuria: A. Protein in urine B. Glucose in urine C. WBCs in urine D. Casts in urine "Suicide sac" within the cell: A. Mitochondria B. Golgi bodies C. Lysosome D. Nucleus
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Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?
On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:41 PM, Armeena Rosa
A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
Garcia <
[email protected]> wrote:
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
KEY WORD PEANUT
D. Acute monocytic leukemia
What is the most abundant amino acid in the body,
Which genera are positive for phenylalanine
being involved in more metabolic processes than any
deaminase?
other amino acid?
A. Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella
A. Alanine
B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus
B. Glutamine
C. Klebsiella and Enterobacter
C. Serine
D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella
D. Tyrosine
Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to:
C. Tyrosine
A. All testing done to the patient to save time
D. Histidine
B. All lab testing done in the central lab C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s
Of the total serum calcium, free ionized calcium
bedside
normally represents approximately what percent?
D. Satellite lab testing
A. 10 B. 40
Which order of events should be followed at the
C. 50
conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order
D. 90
to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens? A. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove
Of the total serum osmolality, sodium, chloride, and
lab coat
bicarbonate ions normally contribute approximately
B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat,
what percent?
wash hands
A. 8
C. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove
B. 45
lab coat
C. 75
D. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat,
D. 92
disinfect area Which of the following characterizes Crigler-Najjar In addition to performing hemoglobin
syndrome?
electrophoresis, a solubility test may be performed
A. Inability to transport bilirubin from the
to detect the presence of what hemoglobin?
sinusoidal membrane to the microsomal region
A. A,
B. Deficiency of the enzyme system required for
B. C
conjugation of bilirubin
C. F D. S
C. Inability to transport bilirubin glucuronides to the bile canaliculi D. Severe liver cell damage accompanied by necrosis
Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead screening?
What condition is characterized by an elevation of
A. Whole blood
total bilirubin primarily due to an increase in the
B. Hair
conjugated bilirubin fraction?
C. Serum
A. Hemolyticjaundice
D. Urine
B. Neonatal jaundice C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Select the most appropriate single screening test
D. Obstructive jaundice
for thyroid disease. A. Free thyroxine index
Which of the following reagent systems contains the
B. Total T3 assay
components sulfanilic acid, hydrochloric acid, and
C. Total T4
sodium nitrite?
D. TSH assay
A. Jaffe B. Zimmerman
Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid:
C. Diazo
A. Phenylalanine
D. Lowry
B. Methionine
What term is used to describe the accumulation of
During chemotherapy for leukemia, which of the
bilirubin in the skin?
following analytes would most likely be elevated in
A. Jaundice
the blood?
B. Hemolysis
A. Uric acid
C. Cholestasis
B. Urea
D. Kernicterus
C. Creatinine D. Ammonia
If elevated, which laboratory test would support a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?
Which of the following red cell precursors is the
A. Homocysteine
last stage to undergo mitosis?
B. Troponin
A. Pronormoblast
C. Albumin cobalt binding
B. Basophilic normoblast
D. B-type natriuretic peptide
C. Polychromatophilic normoblast D. Orthochromatophilic normoblast
Which of the following enzymes does not belong to the class of enzymes known as the hydrolases?
The most mature cell that can undergo mitosis is
A. Alkaline phosphatase
the:
B. Aldolase
A. Myeloblast
C. Amylase
B. Promyelocyte
D. Lipase
C. Myelocyte D. Metamyelocyte
To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase belong?
Paragonimus westermani infection is acquired by:
A. Isomerases
A. Drinking contaminated water
B. Ligases
B. Eating infected crustacea
C. Oxidoreductases
C. Eating infected fish
D. Transferases
D. Eating infected water chestnuts
Which test may be performed to assess the average
In which of the following sets of nematodes can each
plasma glucose level that an individual maintained
organism cause a pneumonia-like syndrome in a person
during a previous 2- to 3-month period?
exposed to heavy infection with any of the three
A. Plasma glucose
parasites?
B. Two-hour postprandial glucose
A. Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura, or
C. Oral glucose tolerance
Onchocerca volvulus
D. Glycated hemoglobin
B. Enterobius vermicularis, Dracunculus medinensis, or Trichuris trichiura
What does hydrolysis of sucrose yield?
C. Strongyloides stercoralis, Wuchereria bancrofti,
A. Glucose only
or Angiostrongylus costaricensis
B. Galactose and glucose
D. Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, or
C. Maltose and glucose
Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Fructose and glucose In the collection and transport of stool specimens for parasites, which parasitic stage is most
affected by the length of time from collection to
Which one of the following anaerobes is inhibited by
examination?
sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?
A. Cysts
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Trophozoites
B. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
C. Oocysts
C. Propionibacterium acnes
D. Helminth larvae
D. Veillonella parvula
Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted
The mycobacteria that produce a deep yellow or
on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results
orange pigment both in the dark and light are:
in infection with:
A. Photochromogens
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Scotochromogens
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Nonchromogens
C. Heterophyes heterophyes
D. Rapid growers
D. Paragonimus westermani The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of Which of the following can cause toxic shock
the following?
syndrome?
A. Chickenpox
A. C. difficile and C. perfringens
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. M. pneumoniae and M. tuberculosis
C. Burkitt lymphoma
C. N. gonorrhoeae and E. coli
D. Smallpox
D. S. aureus and S. pyogenes The examination of sputum may be necessary to All the following antimicrobial agents work by
diagnose infection with:
inhibiting cell wall synthes is except:
A. Paragonimus westermani
A. cephalosporins
B. Trichinella spiralis
B. chloramphenicol
C. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. penicillin
D. Fasciola hepatica
D. vancomycin Examination of 24-hour unpreserved urine specimen is What components may not be prepared if whole blood
sometimes helpful in the recovery of:
is spun at 1-6C?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites
A. Packed red cells
B. Schistosoma haematobium eggs
B. Leukocyte-poor red cells
C. Enterobius vermicularis eggs
C. Platelets
D. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae
D. FFP Gram stain from a gum lesion showed what appeared to One of these disease-causing organisms is killed by
be amoebae. A trichrome smear showed amoebae with a
refrigeration of stored blood. Which one is it?
single nucleus and partially digested PMNs. The
A. Cytomegalovirus
correct identification is:
B. Hepatitis B virus
A. Trichomonas tenax
C. Plasmodium vivax
B. Entamoeba histolytica/E. dispar
D. Treponema spirochete
C. Entamoeba gingivalis D. Entamoeba polecki
Parasitic organisms that are most often transmitted
D. Dracunculus medinensis
sexually include: A. Entamoeba gingivalis
Which of the following is the vector for Babesia?
B. Dientamoeba fragilis
A. Fleas
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Lice
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Ticks D. Mosquitoes
Charcot–Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be formed
Hematuria is a typical sign of human infection
from the breakdown products of:
caused by
A. Neutrophils
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Eosinophils
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Monocytes
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Lymphocytes
D. Schistosoma haematobium
Which of the following pairs of helminths cannot be
Which of the following nematode parasites is
reliably differentiated by the appearance of their
acquired from eating inadequately cooked, infected
eggs?
pork?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides and Necator americanus
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Hymenolepis nana and H. diminuta
B. Taenia saginata
C. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Taenia solium
D. Diphyllobothrium latum and Fasciola hepatica
D. Trichinella spiralis
A 15-um pear-shaped flagellate with a visible
Which species of Plasmodium can have exoerythrocytic
parabasal body and "falling leaf" motility in a
stages capable of causing relapses months or years
direct saline mount of a diarrheal stool specimen is
after initial infection?
most probably
A. P. falciparum
A. Balantidium coli
B. P. ovale
B. Chilomastix mesnili
C. P. malariae
C. Giardia lamblia
D. P. cynomolgi
D. Trichomonas hominis Which of the following is the largest intestinal Which stage of Taenia saginata is usually infective
protozoa infecting humans?
for humans?
A. Balantidium coli
A. Cysticercus larva
B. Dientamoeba fragilis
B. Embryonated egg
C. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Filariform larva
D. Giardia lamblia
D. Rhabditiform larva Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective for Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is caused
humans?
by
A. Proglottid
A. Tiypanosoma brucei
B. Filariform larva
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Rhabditiform larva
C. Leishmania braziliensis
D. Embryonated ovum
C. S. mansoni A free-living ameba that causes primary amebic
D. S. mekongi
meningoencephalitis is A. Dientamoeba fragilis B. Entamoeba coli
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C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Naegleria fowleri
On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:40 PM, Armeena Rosa Garcia <
[email protected]> wrote:
Which species of Plasmodium may readily be
POPCORN
identified when crescent-shaped gametocytes are found in stained blood films? A. P. falciparum B. P. malariae C. P. ovale D. P. vivax
It can be used in the treatment of burn patients to replace colloid pressure: A. Whole blood B. Packed red blood cells C. Cryoprecipitate D. Albumin
For which of the following diseases is close contact with an infected human host the most important mechanism of transmission? A. Schistosomiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Trichinosis D. Trichomoniasis
This parasitic infection may result in vitamin B12 deficiency, and individuals with pernicious anemia are predisposed to more
45 seconds reading time: A. Glucose B. Ketone C. Specific gravity D. pH Normally, measurable amounts of this substance DO NOT appear in the urine: A. Ketones
severe symptoms.
B. Protein
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Urobilinogen
B. Echinococcus granidosus C. Hymenolepis diminuta D. Taenia saginata
D. All of these Second most prevalent CSF protein: A. Albumin
Elephantiasis is a complication associated with
B. Prealbumin
which of the following?
C. Transferrin
A. Cysticercosis
D. IgG
B. Guinea worm C. Hydatid cyst disease
Assay for uric acid that requires the use of mercury
D. Filariae
vapor lamp and quartz cuvet: A. Colorimetric
Which Schistosoma species has a large terminal
B. Enzymatic: UV
spine?
C. Enzymatic: H2O2
A. S. haematobium
D. None of these
B. S. japonicum
This is used to determine whether there is a
between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or
statistically significant difference between the
loops of intestine.
standard deviations of two groups of data.
A. Anastomosis
A. Mean
B. Network
B. Median
C. Matrix
C. f-test
D. Reticulum
D. t-test Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC), which is __________ in Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units.
color, is a common chromogen for peroxidases which
A. 0.4
should be made fresh immediately before use.
B. 4
A. Red
C. 40
B. Brown
D. 400
C. Orange D. Pink
How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC count is below 1.0 x 10 9th/L?
Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to
A. 50
differentiate:
B. 100
A. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
C. 150
B. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.
D. 200
C. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp. D. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
In an automated instrument, this parameter is calculated rather than directly measured:
Characteristically, species from the genus
A. RBC count
Enterococcus are:
B. WBC count
A. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl
C. Hemoglobin
B. Bile esculin positive
D. Hematocrit
C. Relatively sensitive to penicillin D. Sodium hippurate negative
The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic environment.
Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not
A. Anti-S
in serum, except:
B. Anti-U
A. Multiple myeloma
C. Anti-N
B. Encephalitis
D. Anti-M
C. Neurosyphilis D. Guillain-Barre disease
He invented the Cambridge microtome: A. Minot
When encountering a patient with a fistula, the
B. Adams
phlebotomist should:
C. Trefall
A. Apply the tourniquet below the fistula
D. Queckett
B. Use the other arm C. Collect the blood from the fistula
It is a surgical connection between two structures. It usually means a connection that is created
D. Attach a syringe to the T-tube connector
Physician approval is required when collecting blood
C. Dce
from:
D. DCe
A. Patients with diabetes B. Lower arm veins
The presence of distinct "drumstick" appendage on
C. Foot and leg veins
the nucleus of a mature neutrophil indicates:
D. Pediatric patients
A. Reaction to a toxic material B. Reaction to bacteria in the blood or tissues
Sperm motility grading: "no forward progression"
C. A genetic defect in nuclear maturation
A. 0
D. The presence of a second X chromosome (female
B. 1
sex)
C. 2 D. 3
High levels of ketones are usually accompanied by marked:
Positive control for Simmons Citrate test:
A. Albuminuria
A. E. coli
B. Glycosuria
B. K. pneumoniae
C. Cylindruria
C. P. aeruginosa
D. Pyuria
D. S. aureus Decreased production of erythropoietin by the Positive for the cyanide nitroprusside test:
damaged kidney:
A. Uric acid crystals
A. Anemia of chronic disease
B. Cystine
B. Anemia of renal insufficiency
C. Tyrosine
C. Anemia in liver disease
D. Leucine
D. Anemia in endocrine disease
In galactosuria:
It reflects decreased marrow production due to
A. Positive copper reduction and reagent strip
smaller tissue oxygen requirement and subsequent
glucose
reduced erythropoietin production:
B. Negative copper reduction and reagent strip
A. Anemia of chronic disorders
glucose
B. Anemia of renal insufficiency
C. Positive copper reduction, negative reagent strip
C. Anemia in endocrine disease
glucose
D. Anemia in liver disease
D. Negative copper reduction, positive reagent strip glucose
The crystal associated with ethylene oxide poisoning has which characteristic appearance:
Centrifugation time for microhematocrit:
A. Envelope, pyramidal
A. 3 minutes
B. Dumbbell
B. 5 minutes
C. Coffin lid
C. 10 minutes
D. Hexagonal
D. 30 minutes A laboratory worker splashes concentrated HCl in his Common among Asians:
eyes. The best safety measure is to:
A. dce
A. Wash the eye with dilute NaOH and call physician
B. dCe
STAT
B. Wash the eye with distilled water and call a
B. Immune because of natural infection
physician STAT
C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
C. Wash the eye with dilute acetic acid and call a
D. Chronically infected
physician STAT D. Call the physician and wait for his advice.
For albumin assay, absorbance at 630 nm is less likely to be affected by bilirubin or hemoglbin in
Media that contain factors (e.g., carbohydrates)
the sample. Which dye gives a much greater
that give colonies of particular organisms
absorbance change at 630 nm than it would at 500
distinctive characteristics are called:
nm?
A. Enrichment media.
A. HABA (Hydroxyazobenzene-benzoic acid)
B. Differential media.
B. BCG (Bromcresol green)
C. Supportive media. D. Selective media.
Minor lipoproteins: A. LpX and HDL
Colorless dumbbell crystals in an alkaline urine:
B. HDL and LDL
A. Calcium phosphate
C. VLDL and chylomicrons
B. Calcium carbonate
D. IDL and Lp(a)
C. Triple phosphate D. Ammonium biurate
Dilution for WBC count in automated cell counters: A. 1: 10,000
Absence of Philadelphia chromosome in patients with
B. 1: 100
CML:
C. 1: 50,000
A. Better prognosis of the disease
D. 1: 500
B. Poor prognosis of the disease C. It varies
Disorders involving the macrophages and monocytes,
D. No effect
except: A. Gaucher
Effect of decreased temperature to fluorescence:
B. Pelger-Huet
A. No effect
C. Niemann-Pick
B. Variable
D. Alder-Reilly
C. Decreased fluorescence D. Increased fluorescence
In automated cell counters based on electrical impedance, these parameters are directly measured:
Mistaken as Blastomyces in sputum:
A. WBC and RBC
A. Eosinophil
B. WBC, RBC, and hemoglobin
B. Lymphocyte
C. WBC and hemoglobin
C. Myelin globules
D. RBC only
D. Pigmented cells A component of acetest tablet: What could be the possible interpretation?
A. Copper sulfate
HBsAg: negative
B. Sodium hydroxide
Anti-HBc: positive
C. Lactose
Anti-HBs: positive
D. Sodium carbonate
A. Recovering from acute HBV infection
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 All are components of CLINITEST tablet, except: A. Copper sulfate
Not included in the Code of Ethics:
B. Sodium hydroxide
A. Reliability
C. Lactose
B. Integrity
D. Sodium carbonate
C. Honesty D. Humility
Hyperproteinemic or hyperlipidemic specimen: A. Hyponatremia
WBC casts without bacteria:
B. Hypernatremia
A. Cystitis
C. Pseudohyponatremia
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Pseudohypernatremia
C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Acute interstitial nephritis
Common among Ashkenazi Jews: A. Parahemophilia
DONOR CRITERIA FOR PLASMAPHERESIS
B. Hemophilia A
Frequent plasma donors have a total serum protein of
C. Hemophilia B
at least ___ g/dL:
D. Hemophilia C
A. 2 g/dL B. 3 g/dL
A result of 4.5 Ehrlich unit is equivalent to:
C. 6 g/dL
A. 0.45 mg/dL
D. 10 g/dL
B. 4.5 mg/dL C. 45
mg/dL
D. 450 mg/dL
Rouleaux formation can be observed in all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Reverse ABO typing
To evaluate urine color and clarity:
B. Autologous control
A. Check the urine with a white background
C. AHG phase
B. Check the urine with a newsprint
D. None of these
C. Check the urine with a black background D. Check the urine with a polarizing light
A unit containing 405 mL blood should weigh: (answer, and give us the factor)
What is the the most widely used sedimentation
A. 405 grams
technique?
B. 416 grams
Zeibig: Formalin–ethyl acetate sedimentation
C. 429 grams
procedure.
D. 583 grams
Diluents for synovial fluid cell count:
Enzyme with moderate specificity for the heart,
1. Normal saline (0.9%) with methylene blue
skeletal muscles, brain:
2. Hyptonic saline (0.3%)
CK
3. Saline with saponin 4. Acetic acid
Enzyme with moderate specificity for the liver,
A. 1 and 3
heart, skeletal muscles:
B. 2 and 4
AST
C. 1, 2 and 3
Calculation of the anion gap is useful for What is the substrate used in the classic Cherry-
control for:
Crandall method for lipase determination?
A. Calcium
Olive oil
B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium,
quality
potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)* Alcohol level: Decreased inhibitions, loss of
C. Phosphorus
critical judgment, memory impairment, diminished
D. Magnesium
reaction time: A. 0.09 – 0.25
All are variables needed in the Cockroft and Gault
B. 0.18 – 0.30
formula except:
C. 0.27 – 0.40
A. Age
D. 0.35 – 0.50
B. Body weight in kilograms C. Serum creatinine D. Urine creatinine
Decreased aldosterone: A. High serum sodium and potassium B. Low serum sodium and potassium
Proportional systematic error
C. Low serum sodium, high serum potassium
A. t test
D. High serum sodium, low serum potassium
B. f test C. Y intercept D. Slope
A major advantage of POCT is: A. Faster turnaround time B. Lower cost
When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud's dextrose
C. Ease of use
agar, which of the following should not be in the
D. Both A and B
medium? A. Trimethoprim
The National Cholesterol Education has established cutoffs LDL cholesterol coronary cutoff
Program (NCEP)
for total cholesterol and
to define persons at high risk for
B. Cycloheximide C. Vancomycin D. Aminoglycoside
heart disease later in life. What is the
for a desirable LDL cholesterol
Broad-spectrum antibiotics act against:
concentration?
1. Gram-negative bacteria
A.
<130 mg/dL
2. Gram-positive bacteria
B.
<160 mg/dL
3. Bacterial and non-bacterial organisms
C.
<200 mg/dL
A. 1 and 2
D.
>130 mg/dL
B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3
Ninety percent (90%) of the carbon dioxide
D. 1, 2 and 3
present in the blood is in the form of:
A. Bicarbonate ions*
CYTOKINES are produced by many cell populations
B. Carbonate
(endothelial cells, fibroblasts, epithelial cells,
C. Dissolved CO2.
and others), they are MAINLY THE PRODUCTS OF:
D. Carbonic acid
A. B cells B. Macrophages C. B cells and macrophages
D. T cells and macrophages
A. Acetamide B. Citrate
Susceptibility to Autoimmune Diseases is usually
C. Urea
linked to:
D. Ammonia
A. HLA Class I alleles B. HLA Class II alleles
Effect of overanticoagulation on Hemoglobin
C. HLA Class III alleles
(Cyanmethb method) determination:
D. NOTA
A. Increased B. Decreased
All of the following are metallic mordants, except:
C. No effect
A. Iron
D. Variable
B. Iodine
Decreased ESR at hematocrit but NOT Hb
C. Alum D. Copper
Roundworn that inhabits the small intestines and usually demonstrated as rhabditiform larva in
Macrocytes sediment ____ than microcytes
stool:
A. Faster
A. A. lumbricoides
B. Slower C. Same D. No effect
B. N. americanus C. T. spiralis D. S. stercoralis
Cortisol level in PM is ______ than in AM
Reagent used in APT test:
(morning).
A. Sulfuric acid
A. Higher
B. Hydrochloric acid
B. Lower
C. Potassium hydroxide
C. Same
D. Sodium hydroxide
D. Variable PEAK 8 am to 9 am
Possible problem if sperm clumping was observed:
TROUGH (low) 10 pm to 11 pm
A. Sperm vitality B. Lack of support medium
Urine microscopic examination reveals 4+ bacteria,
C. Male antisperm antibodies
but nitrite reagent pad is negative. Culture reveals
D. Female antisperm antibodies
growth of E.coli. What is the most probable reason for the negative nitirite result?
The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:
A. E. coli lacks the reductase enzyme
a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic
B. Number of bacteria not enough to produce a (+)
b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen
nitrite
c. After addition of salicylic acid
C. Further reduction of nitrite to nitrogen
d. After the specimen cools to room temperature
D. Improperly preserved urine sample Which of the following locations is not a site of In the acetamide test, the production of _____
extramedullary hematopoiesis?
results in an alkaline pH,
A. Bone marrow
causing the medium to change color from green to
B. Liver
royal blue.
C. Spleen
A. Sodium cyanide
D. Thymus
B. Mercuric iodide C. Ammonium molybdate
Laboratory professionals are at special risk for
D. Neocuproine
disease transmission. The majority of cases of laboratory-related infections are associated with:
Colorless dumbbell and spherical crystals in an
A. Contamination of abraded skin
alkaline urine:
B. Puncture of wounds
A. Ammonium biurate
C. Ingestion of infectious material
B. Calcium carbonate
D. Infectious areosols
C. Triple phosphate
E. Bite of a laboratory test animal
D. Amorphous phosphate
Association with AIDS is most characteristic of:
All laboratory procedures and policies must be
A. M. avium-intracellulare
reviewed and documented at least:
B. M. marinum
a. Monthly or when authorized changes are made
C. M. bovis
b. Annually or when authorized changes are made
D. M. xenopi
c. Whenever the personnel make changes in procedure d. Quarterly or when authorized changes are made
Anemia characterized by accumulation of iron in the mitochondria of the eythroid precursors due to a
Indirect cost or overhead:
defect in HEME synthesis:
1. Reagents, consumables
A. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Technologists' time, MT labor cost
B. Sideroblastic anemia
3. QC necessary to ensure test accuracy
C. Aplastic anemia
4. Maintenance and repairs to equipment
D. Pure red cell aplasia
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4
The blood bank reports that samples of banked blood
C. 1, 2 and 4
stored at refrigerator temperature have become
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
contaminated with a nonfermentative gram-negative bacillus. The organisms known to be implicated in
KEY WORD: CALBREATH
such cases are:
Which of the following characterize iron-deficiency
A. Pseudomonas fluorescens and Pseudomonas putida
anemia?
B. Alcaligenes faecalis and Alcalignes odorans
A. Decreased serum iron and decreased TIBC
C. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus spp anitratus and
B. Decreased serum iron and increased TIBC *
lwoffi
C. Increased serum iron and decreased TIBC
D. Pseudomonas cepacia and Pseudomonas stutzeri
D. Increased serum iron and increased TIBC
First morning urine, except:
KEY WORD: CALBREATH
A. Pregnancy test
The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) test is
B. Evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria
performed to assess the blood level of:
C. Nitrate determination
A. Ferritin
D. Urobilinogen determination
B. Hemopexin C. Iron
A chemical that confirms phosphate stones:
D. Transferrin
C. Potassium KEY WORD: CALBREATH
D. Sodium
Which protein is produced in decreased amount in Wilson's disease?
Decreased neutral α-glucosidase in seminal fluid
A. Albumin
indicates disorder involving the:
B. Ceruloplasmin
A. Testes
C. Haptoglobin
B. Epididymis
D. Hemopexin
C. Bulbourethral gland D. Urethra
KEY WORD: CALBREATH Which electrolyte plays a major role in the regulation of water balance in the body? A. Chloride
Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad
B. Phosphorus C. Potassium
On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:40 PM, Armeena Rosa
D. Sodium
Garcia <
[email protected]> wrote:
KEY WORD: CALBREATH The androgen that is the most biologically active is: A. Androstenedione B. Androsterone C. Dehydroepiandrosterone D. Testosterone
KEYWORD: HASHBROWNS (continuation) 1051. The chief extracellular anions are chloride and bicarbonate, and there is a RECIPROCAL relationship between them: A DECREASE IN THE AMOUNT OF ONE PRODUCES AN INCREASE IN THE AMOUNT OF THE OTHER. 1052. Serum calcium and phosphorus generally maintain a reciprocal relationship.
KEY WORD: CALBREATH The physiologically active from of calcium is: A. Complexed B. Ionized
a. Primary hyperparathyroidism or some cases of malignancy: INCREASED CALCIUM, DECREASED PHOSPHATE b. BUT if calcium increase is due to renal failure, phosphate values also rise; both calcium and
C. Lipid-bound
phosphate values are elevated in cases of multiple
D. Protein-bound
myeloma and vitamin D overdose, as well as in cases of cancers that metastasize to bone.
KEY WORD: CALBREATH
1053. Parathyroid effect on serum calcium: (1) Bone,
Which trace metal accumulates in Wilson's disease?
(2) Kidney and (3) Intestines
A. Cobalt
a. Bone: Resorption of calcium and phosphate
B. Copper
b. Kidney: Direct enhancement of calcium and
C. Nickel
magnesium tubular reabsorption; direct blockage of
D. Zinc
phosphate tubular reabsorption; increased vitamin D metabolite formation
KEY WORD: CALBREATH
c. Intestine: Stimulation of vitamin D metabolite
An integral part of the transmission of nerve
synthesis – leads to enhanced gastrointestinal
impulses:
uptake of calcium
A. Iron
1054. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
B. Phosphorus
a. This common disorder can present in many ways:
1057. Urine specimens with high specific gravity
infertility, hirsutism, chronic anovulation, glucose
greater than the refractometer or urinometer scale
intolerance, hyperlipidemia or dyslipidemia, and
can be diluted and retested.
hypertension.
a. Only the decimal portion of the observed SG is
b. Investigations for this disorder involve
multiplied by the dilution factor.
estimation of free testosterone, SHBG, FSH, LH,
b. For example, a specimen diluted 1:2 with a
fasting glucose, insulin, and lipid levels.
reading of 1.025 would have an actual specific
c. Ovarian ultrasound reveals multiple cysts in many
gravity of 1.050.
patients (about 30% of patients do not have ovarian
c. For example, a specimen diluted 1:5 with a
cysts).
reading of 1.008 would have an actual specific
d. Most patients with this disorder are overweight;
gravity of 1.040
however, patients with polycystic ovary syndrome
1058. Renal threshold for glucose is 160 to 180
(PCOS) of eastern Asian or South American descent
mg/dL.
are of normal weight.
1059. Positive result for ketone (sodium
1055. HIRSUTISM is abnormal, abundant, androgen-
nitroprusside) pad is PURPLE.
sensitive terminal hair growth in areas in which
1060. Major ketone body in urine is BHA.
terminal hair follicles are sparsely distributed or
1061. Ketone not detected with sodium nitroprusside
not normally found in women. Most commonly,
reagent pad is BHA.
hirsutism is idiopathic in etiology (60% of cases),
1062. Largest cell in the urine sediment is SQUAMOUS
with PCOS the next most common cause (35%).
EPITHELIAL CELL.
1056. ARTERIAL BLOOD GAS PATTERN
1063. Lead poisoning – elevated ALA, protoporphyrin
a. MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION: Low pO2 and metabolic
1064. Normal value for CSF protein is 15 to 45
acidosis.
mg/dL.
The drop in PO2 is caused by diminished circulation
1065. Gastric Acidity:
times – that is, the rate of oxygenation of venous
a. Parietal cells – produces HCl and intrinsic
blood is reduced. The acidosis is caused by low
factor
perfusion of oxygenated blood due to compromised
b. Chief cells – produces pepsinogen that is
cardiac output.
activated by HCl to pepsin
b. In PULMONARY EMPBOLISM: Low pO2 and metabolic
c. Specialized G cells – produces gastrin that
acidosis.
stimulates parietal cells to produce HCl.
The low pO2 is caused by direct blockage of blood
1066. Bile solubility test (+S. pneumoniae)
flow into the pulmonary circuit. The acidosis is
a. Positive: Colony disintegrates; an imprint of the
caused by low oxygen saturation in the lungs with
lysed colony may remain in the zone
subsequent diminished oxygen delivery to tissues.
b. Negative: Intact colonies
c. Both conditions, MI and PE, result in tissue
1067. Bile esculin test (+Group D)
hypoxia.
a. Positive: Growth and blackening of the agar slant b. Negative: no blackening. no growth 1068. Group A / S. pyogenes - Large zone of beta hemolysis on BAP 1069. Group B / S. agalactiae – Narrow zone of beta hemolysis on BAP 1070. DCIS and LCIS Breast Cancer STAGE 0 a. DCIS – ductal carcinoma in situ b. LCIS – lobular carcinoma in situ
21. Microanatomical fixatives should never contain osmic acid/osmium tetroxide because it inhibits Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad
hematoxylin. 22. Nuclear fixatives should contain glacial acetic
On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:31 PM, Armeena Rosa Garcia <
[email protected]> wrote: HASHBROWNS
acid due to its affinity for nuclear chromatin. 23. Cytoplasmic fixatives (Flemming's without HAc, Regaud's, Orth's, Helly's and formalin with postchroming). They should never contain Glacial Acetic Acid because it destroys the mitochondria and Golgi
1.Double embedding: Infiltrated with CELLOIDIN then
bodies.
embedded with PARAFFIN.
24. Manual paraffin wax infiltration and embedding:
2. Flotation waterbath: 45 to 50 C
At least four (4) changes of wax are required at 15
3. To remove formalin pigments: Picric acid
minutes interval to ensure complete removal of the
4. To remove mercurial deposits: Iodine
clearing agent from tissue. The specimen is then
5. Explosive when dry: Picric acid
immersed in another fresh solution of melted
6. Function of alum in hematoxylin: Mordant
paraffin for approximately 3 hours to ensure
7. Primary importance of Frozen Sections: RAPID
complete embedding or casting of tissue.
DIAGNOSIS
25. Cambridge/Rocking microtome: invented by
8. Enzyme histochemistry: Frozen section
Paldwell Treffall.
9. Second best choice for routine cytologic
26. Bond between Best carmine and glycogen:
examination after Papanicolau: Phase contrast
Coulombic attraction/electrostatic bonds, hydrogen
microscopy
bonds
10. NOT SUITABLE for kidney structures: Bouin's
27. Routine H and E: Regressive staining, it
11. Cell death due to ischemia (loss of blood
involves a differentiation step
supply) is known as infarction, and is manifested by
28. Stains for the glomerular basement membrane:
caharacteristic histologic appearance: COAGULATION
PAS, Azocarmine stain
NECROSIS
29. Postmortem clotting: immediately after death,
12. Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea:
rubbery consistency
Clostridium difficile
30. Antemortem thrombi: friable, characterized by
13. Corynebacterium amycolatum: Most frequently
fibrin precipitation
recovered Corynebacterium species from human
31. Leadership: DIRECTING
clinical material. It is part of the normal skin
32. COMPONENTS OF FIBRIN GLUE: cryoprecipitate
microbiota.
(fibrinogen) and topical thrombin
14. Primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients: Candida
33. Donor deferral, measles (rubeola) vaccination: 2
albicans.
weeks
15. Doublewalled, wrinkled cyst form: Acanthamoeba
34. Donor deferral, German measles (Rubella)
castellanii
vaccination: 4 weeks
16. Intracellular form of blood and tissue
35. When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin stain,
flagellates: leishmanial form
GLITTER CELLS stain LIGHT BLUE as opposed to the
17. Normal stool pH: pH 7 to 8
VIOLET COLOR usually seen with NEUTROPHILS.
18. Stool pH associated with CHO disorders: pH 5.5
35. After episodes of hemoglobinuria, yellow-brown
or less
granules may be seen in renal tubular epithelial
19. Microhematocrit: 10,000 g for 5 minutes
cells and casts or free-floating in the urine
20. Standing plasma test: creamy layer
sediment. To confirm that these granules are
(chylomicrons); turbid (VLDL)
hemosiderin, the Prussian blue stain for iron is
used and stains the hemosiderin granules a blue
58. Hirsutism: male-pattern hair growth in women;
color. (RTE cells with HEMOSIDERIN).
most common cause is PCOS (polycystic ovary
36. Second most prevalent protein in CSF: Prealbumin
syndrome, Marshall)
(transthyretin)
59. Primary male hypogonadism
37. MECONIUM, which is usually defined as a
Decreased testosterone
newborn’s first bowel movement, is formed in the
Increased LH and FSH
intestine from fetal intestinal secretions and
60. Secondary male hypogonadism
swallowed amniotic fluid. It is a dark green, mucus-
Decreased testosterone
like material. It may be present in the amniotic
Decreased LH and FSH
fluid as a result of fetal distress.
61. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient
38. Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an
has eaten or become physically active. This is a
arm with a cannula (temporary dialysis access
good time to draw blood specimens because the body
device) or fistula (a permanent surgical fusion of a
is at rest and food has not been ingested during the
vein and an artery).
night.
39. Adverse reaction of Aminoglycosides:
62. ACID: substance than can yield a hydrogen ion or
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
hydronium ion when dissolved in water
40. TETANY: neuromotor irritability accompanied by
63. BASE: substance than can yield hydroxyl ions
muscular twitching and eventual convulsions;
(OH-)
generally due to low calcium levels (hypocalcemia)
64. COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES: properties of osmotic
41. Reagent for the APT test: 1% NaOH
pressure, freezing point, boiling point and vapor
42. APT test: fetal blood, pink solution
pressure
43. APT test: maternal blood, yellow-brown
65. t-test: compare accuracy, mean (TAM)
supernatant
66. f-test: compare precision, SD (SPF)
44. Florence test: test for choline
67. Random error: 1:2SD, 1:3SD, R:4S (ODD NUMBERS)
Iodine, KI/ dark brown rhombic crystals
68. Systematic error: 2:2SD, 4:1SD, 10:x (EVEN
45. Barbiero's test: test for spermine
NUMBERS)
Picric acid, TCA/ yellow leafshaped crystals,
69. ZERO-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is dependent
needles
on enzyme concentration only
46. Blondheim's test: test to differentiate
70. FIRST-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is directly
hemoglobin from myoglobin, ammonium sulfate will
proportional to substrate concentration
precipitate hemoglobin
71. Arteriosclerosis: thickening or hardening of the
47. Nanometer is also millimicron
walls of arteries
48. Embedding medium for EM is Plastic
72. Atherosclerosis: accumulation of lipid in the
49. Best vital stain is neutral red
veins and arteries
50. Vital stain for mitochondria is Janus Green
73. Azotemia: elevated urea in blood
51. Ferning: Early pregnancy
74. Addison’s disease: deficiency of adrenocortical
52. Pap's consists of 3 stains: Harris hematoxylin,
hormones
OG 6 and EA
75. Conn’s syndrome: aldosterone-secreting adrenal
53. Total renal BLOOD flow is 1200 mL/min
adenoma
54. Total renal PLASMA flow is 600 to 700 mL/min
76. Cushing’s syndrome: excessive production of
55. Most potent estrogen is Estradiol
glucocorticoids (cortisol) by adrenal cortex
56. Most important androgen in terms of potency and
77. Phaeochromocytoma: tumors of the adrenal medulla
amount secreted is testosterone (Marshall)
or symphatetic ganglia that produce and release
57. Conn syndrome: primary aldosteronism
large quantities of catecholamines 78. Amenorrhea: cessation of menstruation
79. Cirrhosis: Greek work YELLOW; irreversible
identification marker in paternity testing and
scarring process by which normal liver architecture
criminal investigation (Harmening)
is transformed into abnormal nodular architecture
96. AMORPH: gene that does not appear to produce a
80. Gilbert’s syndrome: hereditary disorder in which
detectable antigen; a silent gene
there is DECREASED BILIRUBIN TRANSPORT into the
97. ANASTOMOSIS: connection between two blood
hepatocytes.
vessels, either direct or through connecting
81. Crigler-Najjar syndrome: hereditary DEFICIENCY
channels
of the UDPG-TRANSFERASE ENZYME
98. ANTI-A1 LECTIN: DOLICHOS BIFLORUS
82. Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with
99. ANTI-B LECTIN: BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA
increased plasma conjugated bilirubin, inborn error
100. ANTI-H LECTIN: ULEX EUROPAEUS
of metabolism
101. ANTI-M LECTIN: IBERIS AMARA
83. Rotor syndrome, possibly of viral origin, where
102. ANTI-N LECTIN: VICIA GRAMINEA
there is also a block in the excretion of conjugated
103. DOSAGE: phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts
bilirubin but without liver pigmentation
more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a
84. Wilson’s disease is a defect of copper transport
double dose (homozygous inheritance of the
from the liver resulting in overload of copper in
appropriate gene) than with a red blood cell
liver and brain
carrying a single dose (heterozygous inheritance) of
85. Menkes disease is an X-linked recessive disorder
an antigen
in which defective transport of copper from mucosal
104. EPITOPE: portion of the antigen molecule that
cells results in copper deficiency.
is directly involved in the interaction with the
86. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: chronic autoimmune
antibody; the ANTIGENIC DETERMINANT
thyroiditis; it is the most common cause of primary
105. PRIVATE ANTIGEN: antigenic characteristic of
hypothyroidism
the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an
87. Graves’ disease: diffuse toxic goiter
individual or a related family of individuals and
88. Kwashiorkor: acute protein calories malnutrition
therefore is not commonly found on all cells
89. Marasmus: caused by caloric insufficiency
(usually less than 1% of the population)
without protein insufficiency so that the serum
106. PUBLIC ANTIGEN: antigen characteristic of the
albumin level remains normal; there is considerable
red blood cell membrane found commonly among
loss of body weight
individuals, usually more than 98% of the population
90. Leydig cells: cells of the testicles that
107. Apoptosis: programmed cell death
produce testosterone
108. Ecchymosis: small hemorrhagic spot, LARGER THAN
91. CD34: cell membrane marker of stem cells
PETECHIA, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a
92. GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing
rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also
hemoglobin degradation products such as
known as bruise
methemoglobin: ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS
109. Koilonychia: fingernails are thin, flattened
93. ADSORPTION: Providing an antibody with its
and concave; associated with iron deficiency anemia
corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so
110. Leptocyte: thin, flat red cell with hemoglobin
that the antibody will attach to the antigen,
at periphery and increased central pallor;
thereby removing the antibody from the serum
hypochromic cell
94. ELUTION: process whereby cells that are coated
111. Reed-Sternberg cell: presence is definitive
with antibody are treated in such a manner as to
histologic diagnosis of HODGKIN’S DISEASE
disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody
112. Alder-Reilly anomaly: leukocytes of the
95. ACID PHOSPHATASE (ACP) and ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE
myelocytic series, and sometimes all leukocytes
(ALP): red blood cell enzyme used as an
contain coarse azurophilic mucopolysccharide granules
113. Auer rod: needle-shaped or round inclusion in
167. Studies have shown that although everyone who
the cytoplasm of myeloblasts and promyelocytes;
eats ASPARAGUS produces a urine odor, ONLY certain
composed of condensed primary granules
genetically predisposed people can smell the odor.
114. Chediak-Higashi anomaly: congenital, autosomal
168. CABBAGE urine odor: METHIONINE MALABSORPTION.
recessive disorder, characterized by partial
169. The heme portion of MYOGLOBIN IS TOXIC TO RENAL
albinism, photophobia and the presence of abnormally
TUBULES and high concentrations can cause acute
large blue granules in leukocytes
renal failure.
115. May-Hegglin anomaly: autosomal dominant
170. CASTS have tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES OF
inherited blood cell disorder characterized by
THE COVERSLIP.
thrombocytopenia and granules containing cytoplasmic
171. ETHYLENE GLYCOL (anti-freeze) poisoning:
inclusions similar to Dohle bodies
MONOHYDRATE CAOX
116. Sezary syndrome: cutaneous T CELL LYMPHOMA
172. TRIPLE PHOSPHATE: coffin-lid or FEATHERY
characterized by exfoliative erythroderma,
APPEARANCE (as they disintegrate)
peripheral lymphadenopathy and Sezary cells present
173. MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER provides a method for
in the skin, lymph nodes and peripheral blood
counting UNDILUTED seminal fluid. Sperms are
117. Gaucher’s disease: rare disorder of fat
immobilized by heating part of the specimen prior to
metabolism caused by deficiency of
charging the chamber.
glucocerebrosidase
174. COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA)
118. Bernard-Soulier syndrome: mutations to platelet
provides OBJECTIVE determination of both SPERM
GP IB or GP IX, defect of platelet adhesion
VELOCITY and TRAJECTORY (DIRECTION OF MOTION).
119. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia: mutations to
175. A maximum of 30 mL AMNIOTIC FLUID is collected
platelet GP IIb or IIIa; defect of fibrinogen-
in sterile syringes. The first 2 to 3 mL collected
dependent platelet aggregation
can be contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid
120. Lactoferrin: protein produced by the neutrophis
and cells and are discarded.
and stored in the secondary granules that is able
176. OSMOTIC DIARRHEA: increased RETENTION of water
bind iron
and solutes in the large intestine associated with
161. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL
MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION.
162. DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate buffer system
177. SECRETORY DIARRHEA: increased SECRETION of
is CARBON DIOXIDE.
water and electrolytes into the large intestine
163. TURNAROUND TIME (TAT): time from ordering a
caused by BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS.
test through analysis in the laboratory to the
178. Plasmapheresis donor, total protein at least 6
charting of the report.
g/dL.
164. Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a
179. Packed red blood cells LEAK POTASSIUM into the
description of their particular hazard, such as
plasma or additive solution of the blood component
POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC.
during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of
165. Information contained in the Material Safety
packed red blood cells may put patient populations
Data Sheets (MSDS) includes the following: physical
such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic,
and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion
or renal dysfunction at risk of developing
potential, reactivity potential, health hazards and
hyperkalemia. The transient hyperkalemia related to
methods for safe handling.
massive transfusion appear to be related to the
166. Urinometer is placed with a SPINNING MOTION.
patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels,
The scale reading is then taken at the BOTTOM OF THE
and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells.
URINE MENISCUS.
180. Significant Antibody titer in HDN: HARMENING 4th edition: significant is 32
5th edition: significant is 16 to 32
197. Platelets on top of the red cell should not be
6th edition: critical titer is 16 — with Christian
confused with RBC inclusion body. There is generally
Cammayo and Shy Valbuena.
a nonstaining halo surrounding the platelet when it
181. BENCHMARKING: individual facility COMPARE ITS
is positioned on top of the RBC.
RESULTS WITH THOSE OF ITS PEERS
198. ESR: bubbles and fibrin clots, invalid results
182. MEAN: average value
199. HYGROMETERS: measure HUMIDITY
183. MODE: most frequently occurring value
200. ALCOHOL FIXATIVE CONCENTRATIONS; 70% to 100%
184. MEDIAN: middle value within range
because less concentrated solutions will produce
185. CONSTANT systematic error - y-intercept
lysis of cells.
186. PROPORTIONAL systematic error - SLOPE
201. Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s
187. Fungi (dermatophyte) produces macroconidia that
solution are commonly used fixatives for nucleic
are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with
acids.
smooth walls: EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM
202. MICROWAVE: physical agent similar in mechanism
188. In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors
to vacuum oven (heat) and agitation to increase
with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered
movement of molecules and accelerate fixation. It is
UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through
also used to accelerate staining, decalcification,
surgery).
immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy.
189. Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction: either
* The processing time depends on the thickness and
Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response
density of the specimen. Reagents used for microwave
(%RR)
processing include ethanol, isopropanol and
190. ASCHOFF BODIES are nodules found in the hearts
proprietary mixtures of alcohol, and paraffin.
of individuals with RHEUMATIC FEVER.
Graded concentration of solutions is not required.
191. MERCURY: must NOT GO through drain disposal
Clearing agents are not necessary because the
192. FORMALDEHYDE WASTES: can be recycled by
temperature of the final paraffin step facilitates
distillation or by drain disposal, can be detoxified
evaporation of the alcohols from the tissue. Xylene
by commercial product, or can be disposed of by
and formalin are not used in this process, which
licensed waste hauler.
eliminates toxic fumes and carcinogens.
193. BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK:
* Disadvantages of the system include the fact that
represent the second X chromosome in females and may
the process is labor intensive because the solutions
be seen in 2 to 3% of neutrophils in FEMALES. The
are manually manipulated, temperatures must be
number of Barr bodies in a cell is one less than the
maintained between 70 and 85°C, and the size of
number of X chromosomes present in a cell.
tissue sample is critical (2 mm). Also the cost of
194. DOHLE BODIES: rough endoplasmic reticulum
laboratory-grade microwaves may be prohibitive, and
containing RNA and may represent localized failure
proper use of the microwave oven requires careful
of the cytoplasm to mature. They are found in
calibration and monitoring.
infections, poisoning, burns and following
203. LAST ALCOHOL BATH FOR DEHYDRATION SHOULD BE
chemotherapy.
PURE ETHANOL. A blue discoloration of COPPER SULFATE
195. CHEDIAK-HIGASHI: granulocytes usually contain
crystals will indicate FULL SATURATION WITH WATER.
several very large, reddish-purple or greenish-gray
Alcohol is then discarded and changed with fresh
staining granules in the cytoplasm; in the monocytes
solution.
and lymphocytes they stain bluish purple and may be
204. Skeletal muscle contains bundles of very long,
present singly, or there may be several in one cell.
multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their
These granules represent ABNORMAL LYSOSOMES.
contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under
196. Sickling of the RBCs is maximal at 37C and
voluntary control. STRIATED, VOLUNTARY
decreases as the temperature lowers.
205. Cardiac muscle also has cross-striations and is
219. Longest expiration date: FROZEN RBCs
composed of elongated, often branched cells bound to
220. Component of choice for vWD: CRYOPRECIPITATE
one another at structures called intercalated discs
221. Transfusion of BUFFY COAT IS BEST INDICATED
that are unique to cardiac muscle. Contraction is
for: NEWBORNS with severe infections
involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic. STRIATED,
222. Test performed on blood that will be transfused
INVOLUNTARY
to an acidotic or hypoxic infant: HEMOGLOBIN S
206. Smooth muscle consists of collections of
223. CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation
fusiform cells that lack striations and have slow,
between T cells and sheep RBCs: CD2
involuntary contractions. NONSTRIATED, INVOLUNTARY
224. Joining (J) chain: IgM and secretory IgA
207. CASEOUS NECROSIS: cell death produced by the
225. Ig that helps initiate the classical complement
Tubercle Bacillus. In gross state, the necrotic
pathway: IgM and IgG
tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE.
226. Primary immune response: IgM
208. Three (3) major changes that are observed in
227. Highest titer in secondary response: IgG
the NUCLEUS: PYKNOSIS, KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation
228. Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release
and fragmentation) and KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of
histamine: IgE
the nucleus).
229. Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test: REAGIN
209. Four (4) phases or stages of CELL DEGENERATION:
230. Test for HIV infection in infants who are born
CLOUDY SWELLING, FATTY DEGENERATION, CELL DEATH OR
to HIV-positive mothers: PCR
NECROSIS and CALCIFICATION.
231. Best indicator of early acute HBV infection:
210. BM aspiration is performed by a physician and
HBsAg
may be obtained by:
232. First antibody detected in serum after
* Needle biopsy: most frequently performed method
infection with HBV: anti-HBc
* Surgical biopsy
233. Blood products are tested for which virus
* Percutaneous (entering through the skin) TREPINE
before being transfused to newborns: CMV
(small object used to remove circular section of
234. Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies: chronic
tissue) biopsy (core of bone with accompanying
active hepatitis
marrow is obtained)
235. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): urinary bladder cancer
ISBB
HEMATOLOGY
211. Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT
236. Last stage in the erythrocytic series capable
SERUM: anti-M
of mitosis: POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
212. Most common cause of transfusion reactions:
237. Last nucleated stage in the erythrocytic
CLERICAL ERRORS
series: ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
213. Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN: DISCARD THE
238. Appearance of primary/nonspecific granules:
UNIT
PROMYELOCYTE
214. Noticeable clots in RBC unit: DO NOT ISSUE THE
239. Appearance of secondary/specific granules:
UNIT, indication of contamination or bacterial
MYELOCYTE
growth
240. Last stage in the granulocytic series capable
215. FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of
of mitosis: MYELOCYTE
transfusion reaction: CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS
241. Youngest cell in the granulocytic series to
216. SAGM, ADSOL shelf life: 42 days
NORMALLY appear in peripheral blood: BAND
217. REJUVENATION or red blood cells may be
242. Preferable site for BM aspiration and biopsy in
performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire
adult: ILIAC CREST
218. Preparation of leukopoor RBCs: filtering,
243. Miller disc is an ocular device to facilitate
centrifugation and washing
counting of: RETICULOCYTES
244. Organ that removes erythrocyte inclusions
272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE
without destroying the cell: SPLEEN
TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI
245. Megaloblastic anemia: MACROCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC
273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,
246. Anemia in sickle cell disease: NORMOCYTIC,
BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER
NORMOCHROMIC
274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES
247. Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia:
ESPECIALLY SKIN
MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC
275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,
248. AUTOSPLENECTOMY occurs in SICKLE CELL ANEMIA
MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-
249. PCH: Anti-P, DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY
containing tissues
250. Major leukocyte in aplastic anemia: LYMPHOCYTES
276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative
251. BITE CELLS in G6PD deficiency
process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia
252. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: schistocytes
and other bacteria
and nucleated RBCs
277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES
253. ANTIBIOTIC implicated in aplastic anemia:
278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary
CHLORAMPHENICOL
biopsies
254. Type of anemia in acute leukemia: NORMOCYTIC,
279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY
NORMOCHROMIC
structures, lipid and mucus
255. Hodgkin’s disease: REED-STERNBERG CELLS
280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.
256. Myelofibrosis: TEARDROP RBCs
SEVENTEEN
257. DIC is most often associated with M3: acute
281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND
promyelocytic leukemia
URGENT BIOPSIES
258. Peripheral smear of patient with MULTIPLE
282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides
MYELOMA: ROULEAUX
and nuclear proteins
259. Franklin’s disease: GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE
283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest
260. TRAP: Hairy cell leukemia
decalcifying agent
261. CD 10: Common ALL (CALLA)
284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens
262. PT and APTT result in patient with
tissues at the same time
polycythemia: BOTH PROLONGED
285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most
263. PRIMARY INHIBITOR OF FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM:
sensitive method for determining the extent of
ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN
decalcification
264. Lupus anticoagulant is directed against:
286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON
PHOSPHOLIPID
(PLASTIC MEDIUM)
265. ASPIRIN inhibits CYCLOOXYGENASE
287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING 288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately
HISTOPATH
6-10C lower than the mp of wax
266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID
289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS
DIAGNOSIS
290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains
267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS
291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA
268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES
292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS,
269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE
AZOCARMINE
OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR
293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE,
270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as
CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE
Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol
294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as
271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for
possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518
TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY
295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used
319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN
animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep,
320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:
horse, guinea pig and others
ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME
296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
HISTOPATH
297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:
266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID
CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE
DIAGNOSIS
298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does
267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS
not exceed: 150 mg
268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES
299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180
269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE
mg/dL
OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR
300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:
270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as
ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)
Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol
301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND
271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for
SAFRANIN
TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY
302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates
272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE
303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE
TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI
GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS
273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,
304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:
BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER
PYELONEPHRITIS
274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES
305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin
ESPECIALLY SKIN
hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large
275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,
amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID
MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-
306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells
containing tissues
307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy
276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative
Proteinuria >4 g/day)
process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia
308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:
and other bacteria
CALCIUM OXALATE
277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES
309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium
278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary
phosphate
biopsies
310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE
279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY
311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial
structures, lipid and mucus
endotoxin
280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.
312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod
SEVENTEEN
mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE
281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND
313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate
URGENT BIOPSIES
314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate
282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides
315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the
and nuclear proteins
fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL
283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest
316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal
decalcifying agent
deficiency
284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens
317. Most common cause of male infertility:
tissues at the same time
VARICOCELE
285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most
318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s
sensitive method for determining the extent of
stain
decalcification
286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON
311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial
(PLASTIC MEDIUM)
endotoxin
287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING
312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod
288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately
mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE
6-10C lower than the mp of wax
313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate
289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS
314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate
290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains
315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the
291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA
fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL
292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS,
316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal
AZOCARMINE
deficiency
293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE,
317. Most common cause of male infertility:
CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE
VARICOCELE
294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as
318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s
possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518
stain
295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used
319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN
animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep,
320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:
horse, guinea pig and others
ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME
296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
CM: 4th Edition Strasinger
297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:
CEREBROSPINAL FLUID (CSF)
CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE
386. Approximately 20 mL of CSF is produced every
298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does
hour in the choroid plexuses and reabsorbed by the
not exceed: 150 mg
arachnoid villi
299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180
387.
mg/dL
6th edition: 90 to 150 mL
300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:
4th edition: 140 to 170 mL
ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)
388. Total volume in neonate: 10 to 60 mL
301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND
389. Normal adult CSF 0 to 5 WBCs/uL
SAFRANIN
390. Neonates 0 to 30 WBCs/uL
302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates
391. Reactive lymphocytes in CSF, viral infections
303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE
392. Moderately elevated WBC count (less than 50
GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS
WBCs/uL) with increased normal and reactive
304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:
lymphocytes and plasma cells may be indicative of MS
PYELONEPHRITIS
or other degenerating neurologic disorders
305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin
393. Increased eosinophils in CSF: parasitic
hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large
infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES
amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID
IMMITIS
306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells
394. CSF glucose is approximately 60 to 70 percent
307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy
that of plasma glucose
Proteinuria >4 g/day)
395. Normal CSF protein: 15 to 45 mg/dL
308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:
396. Normal concentration of glutamine in CSF: 8 to
CALCIUM OXALATE
18 mg/dL
CSF Total volume in adult:
309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium phosphate
SEMINAL FLUID
310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE
397. Liquefaction within 30 to 60 minutes
398. Volume 2 to 5 mL
419. Pleural fluid cholesterol greater than 60 mg/dL
399. pH 7.2 to 8
or a pleural fluid to serum cholesterol ratio
400. Sperm morphology: at least 200 sperms should be
greater than 0.3 provides a reliable information
evaluated
that the fluid is an exudate
401. Sperm viability, eosin-nigrosin stain, counting
420. Fluid to serum total bilirubin ratio of 0.6 or
number of dead cells in 100 sperms
more also indicates the presence of an exudate
402. Motility is evaluate in approximately 20 high-
421. Pleural fluid pH lower than 7.3 may indicate
power fields
the need for chest-tube drainage, in addition to
403. Sperm concentration 20 M to 160 M per mL
antibiotics in cases of pneumonia. The finding of pH
404. Sperm count ≥ 40 M per ejaculate*
as low as 6 indicates esophageal rupture that is
405. Most common dilution is 1:20 prepared using a
allowing the influx of gastric fluid
MECHANICAL (positive-displacement) rather than a Thoma pipette
PERITONEAL FLUID
406. Minimum motility of 50% with a rating of 2.0
422. RBC counts GREATER THAN 100,000/uL are
after 1 hour is considered normal
indicative of BLUNT TRAUMA INJURIES
407. Fructose ≥ 13 umol per ejaculate
423. Normal WBC counts are less than 500 cells/uL
408. Specimens for fructose should be tested within
and the count increases with bacterial peritonitis
2 hours or FROZEN to prevent fructolysis
and cirrhosis
409. RAPE, presence of sperm: (1) enhancing specimen
424. CA 125 antigen, source is from OVARIES,
with XYLENE and examining under PHASE MICROSCOPY (2)
FALLOPIAN TUBES or ENDOMETRIUM
ACP (3)
seminal glycoprotein p30 (prostatic
specific antigen [PSA]), which is present even in
FECALYSIS
the absence of sperm (4) ABO, DNA
425. Large intestine is capable of absorbing
410. Motile sperm can be detected for up to 24 hours
approximately 3,000 mL of water
after intercourse, whereas nonmotile sperm can
426. Most representative, for fecal fats; 3-day
persist for 3 days. As the sperm die off, only the
stool collection
heads remain and may be present for 7 days after
427. Muscle fibers: slide is examined for 5 minutes.
intercourse.
Only undigested fibers are counted, and the presence of more than 10 is reported as increased
SYNOVIAL FLUID
428. Bleeding in excess of 2.5 mL/150 gram of stool
411. Volume less than 3.5 mL
is considered pathologically significant
412. Normal: clear and pale yellow
429. Normal stool pH is between 7 and 8
413. Able to form 4 to 6 cm string
430. pH below 5.5 in cases of CARBOHYDRATE DISORDERS
414. Less than 2,000 RBCs/uL 415. Less than 200 WBCs/uL
BARBARA BROWN
416. Glucose less than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood
COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT
glucose
431. SCREENING PROCEDURE that is helpful in the diagnosis of many diseases, it is one indicator of
SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES
the body’s ability to fight disease, it is used to
417. Most reliable differentiation: Fluid-to-blood
MONITOR the effects of drug and radiation therapy,
ratios for protein and LD
and it may be employed as an INDICATOR OF PATIENT’S
418. WBC counts greater than 1,000/uL and RBC counts
PROGRESS in certain diseased states such as
greater than 100,000/uL are indicative of an exudate
infection or anemia.
PLEURAL FLUID
HEMATOCRIT
432. TRAPPED PLASMA: amount of plasma that still
diluting in order to ensure against platelet
remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has
DISINTEGRATION
been spun. Increased in macrocytic anemias,
447. 1% ammonium oxalate, the dilution is stable for
spherocytosis, thalassemia, hypochromic anemia and
8 hours
sickle cell anemia 433. When comparing spun hematocrit results obtained
ERTHROCYTE SEDIMENTATION RATE
on an electronic cell counter, the spun hematocrit
448. Macrocytes tend to settle more rapidly than
results vary from 1 to 3% HIGHER because of this
microcytes
trapped plasma (unless cell counter has been
449. Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis: falsely lower
calibrated).
ESR
434. Anticoagulated blood should be centrifuged
450. Agglutination: more rapid sedimentation rate
within 6 hours of collection when the blood is
451. In severe anemia: ESR IS MARKEDLY INCREASED
stored at room temperature. 435. Overanticoagulation: FALSELY LOW due to
SUGAR WATER TEST
shrinkage of cells
452. Citrated whole blood
436. Air bubbles denote poor technique but do not
453. In anemia, the hemolysis may be slightly
affect the results
increased in PNH negative specimens
437. Incomplete sealing of the microhematocrit
454. Use of defibrinated blood may cause positive
tubes: FALSELY LOW
results due to the hemolysis of traumatized RBCs
438. Inadequate centrifugation of the
455. Test should be performed WITHIN 2 HOURS of
microhematocrit tubes or allowing the tubes to stand
obtaining the specimen
longer than several minutes after centrifugation: FALSELY ELEVATED
SUCROSE HEMOLYSIS TEST
439. Hematocrit may be expressed in either of two
456. Citrated whole blood
ways (1) as percentage, e.g., 42% or (2) as a
457. Increased hemolysis (<10%) may be found in
decimal point, e.g., 0.42.
leukemia or myelosclerosis 458. PNH: 10% to 80% hemolysis
WHITE BLOOD CELLS COUNT 440. Count above 11 x 10 9th/L is termed
ACID SERUM TEST
LEUKOCYTOSIS
459. Whole blood defibrinated
441. Mix the Thoma pipet for approximately 3 minutes
460. When patient has received blood transfusions,
to ensure hemolysis and adequate mixing
less lysis occurs because of the presence of normal
442. Manual counts, no more than 10-cell variation
transfused red blood cells
between the four squares 461. Thyroxine (µg/dL to nmol/L) 12.9 PLATELET COUNT
462. X-axis: HORIZONTAL, ABSCISSA, INDEPENDENT
443. Prolonged BT and poor clot retraction are found
VARIABLES
when there is marked thrombocytopenia
463. Y-axis: VERTICAL, ORDINATE, DEPENDENT VARIABLES
444. EDTA: decreased platelet clumping but increased
464. UREA: Colorimetric: diacetyl [ inexpensive,
MPV
lacks specificity]
445. If concentration of EDTA exceeds 2mg/mL of
465. UREA: Enzymatic: NH3 formation [greater
whole blood, platelets may SWELL AND THEN FRAGMENT,
specificity, more expensive]
causing invalidly higher count
466. CREATININE: Colorimetric: end point [simple,
446. Using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid, the platelet
nonspecific]
count must be completed within 30 minutes of
467. CREATININE: Colorimetric: kinetic [rapid,
488. CLINITEST tablets contain copper sulfate,
increased specificity]
sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and sodium
468. CREATININE: Enzymatic [measure ammonia
hydroxide
colorimetrically or with ion-selective electrode]
489. ACETEST provides sodium nitroprusside, glycine,
469. URIC ACID: Colorimetric [problems with
disodium phosphate, and lactose in tablet form. The
turbidity, several common drugs interfere]
addition of lactose gives better color
470. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: UV [need special
differentiation. Acetest tablets are hygroscopic; if
instrumentation and optical cells]
the specimen is not completely absorbed within 30
471. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: H2O2 [interference by
seconds, a new tablet should be used.
reducing substances]
490. Bence Jones protein coagulates at temperatures
472. Constituents of a number of common foods,
between 40°C and 60°C and dissolves when the
including BANANAS, VANILLA, TEA AND COFFEE, may
temperature reaches 100°C.
react in the test for HMMA. HMMA is also VMA. 4-
491. Automated reagent strip readers: REFLECTANCE
Hydroxy-3-Methoxymandelic acid (HMMA)
PHOTOMETRY
473. Laboratory personnel should be aware of the
492. Casts have a tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES
MECHANICAL HAZARDS of equipment such as CENTRIFUGES,
OF THE COVER SLIP
AUTOCLAVES, and HOMOGENIZERS.
493. Squamous epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate,
474. Third Taenia: Taenia asiatica or the Taiwan
or many per LPF
Taenia
494. Transitional epithelial cells: Rare, few,
475. Fungal elements fluoresce green with acridine
moderate, or many per HPF
orange
495. RTE CELLS: AVERAGE NUMBER PER 10 HPFS
476. Reporting of normal urine crystals: reported as
496. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Acid-albumin and the CTAB
rare, few, moderate, or many per hpf
tests (+) thick, white turbidity
477. Abnormal crystals may be averaged and reported
497. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Metachromatic staining
per lpf
spot test: BLUE SPOT
478. Reagent for APT test: 1% NaOH
498. Very slight amount of OXYHEMOGLOBIN: PINK CSF
479. Infective stage of Leishmania to man:
499. Conversion of oxyhemoglobin to unconjugated
PROMASTIGOTE
bilirubin: YELLOW CSF
480. Infective stage of Trypanosoma to man:
500. Heavy hemolysis: ORANGE CSF
TRYPOMASTIGOTE
501. Red or brown seminal fluid: BLOOD
481. Infective stage of Plasmodia to man:
502. Normal appearance of gastric fluid: PALE GRAY
SPOROZOITES
with mucus
482. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis:
503. Amniotic fluid OD 450: When BILIRUBIN is
ANGIOSTRONGYLUS CANTONENSIS
present, a rise in OD is seen at 450 nm because this
483. When an accident involving electrical shock
is the wavelength of maximum bilirubin absorption.
occurs, the ELECTRICAL SOURCE MUST BE REMOVED
504. Rare: 0–10 bacteria/hpf
IMMEDIATELY.
505. Few: 10–50 bacteria/hpf
484. URINARY MEATUS: external urinary opening
506. Moderate: 50–200 bacteria/hpf
485. POLYURIA: greater than 2.5 L/day in adults
507. Many: >200 bacteria/hpf
486. OLIGURIA: less than 400 mL/day in adults
508. First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER
487. Yellow-orange specimen caused by the
509. Second layer of spun hematocrit: PLASMA
administration of phenazopyridine (brand name
510. Third layer of spun hematocrit: BUFFY COAT
Pyridium) or azo-gantrisin compounds to people who
511. Bottom layer of spun hematocrit: PACKED CELLS
have urinary tract infections [drug for UTI: orange
512. Patients with CML negative for the Philadelphia
and viscous urine]
chromosome: POOR PROGNOSIS
513. LEUKOCYTOSIS >11 x 10 9th/L
531. The standard screening method for HIV antibody
514. Forward light scatter: CELL SIZE
has been the ELISA, and the standard confirmatory
515. Side light scatter: CELL GRANULARITY
test is the Western blot.
516. KERATOCYTES: helmet cells/with horn-like
532. Aside from Western blot, other confirmatory
projections
tests, including indirect immunofluorescence assay
517. ANTI-dsDNA: most specific antibody for SLE
(IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line
518. Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): CHRONIC
immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests, have
ACTIVE HEPATITIS
also been developed.
519. Polymerase chain reaction: MOLECULAR
533. HBs ag: active infection
520. Restriction fragment length polymorphism:
534. HBe ag: active hepatitis B with HIGH DEGREE OF
MOLECULAR
INFECTIVITY
521. Enhanced by acidifying patient serum: anti-M
535. IgM anti-HBc: current or recent acute hepatitis
522. Wiener and coworkers gave a name to one such
B
agglutinin, calling its antigen I for
536. Total anti-HBc: current or past hepatitis B
“individuality.” The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST
537. Anti-HBe: recovery from hepatitis B
BLOOD SPECIMENS tested.
538. Anti-HBs: immunity to hepatitis B
523. For patients with history of FEBRILE
539. HBV DNA: acute, atypical, or occult hepatitis
NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSF REACTION: LEUKOPOOR RBCs
B; viral load may be used to monitor effectiveness
524. Irradiation of blood components: CESIUM
of therapy
525. CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD
540. ITIS: inflammation
SAMPLING (PUBS), results in a fetal blood specimen that can be used for rapid karyotyping or molecular
SEVEN BASE SI UNITS
studies.
541. Length: METER
526. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): URINARY
542. Mass: KILOGRAM
BLADDER CANCER
543. Time: SECONDS
527. CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE: Two separate black or
544. Quantity of mass: MOLE
gray bands, one at T and the other at C, are visible
545. Electric current: AMPERE
in the results window, indicating that the specimen
546. Thermodynamic temperature: KELVIN
contains detectable levels of hCG. Although the
547. Luminous intensity: CANDELA
intensity of the test band may vary with different
548. Main cause of TREND is DETERIORATION OF
specimens, the appearance of two distinct bands
REAGENTS
should be interpreted as a positive result.
549. Main cause of SHIFT is IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF
528. CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE: If no band appears at
THE INSTRUMENT
T and a black or gray band is visible at the C
550. POCT: near-patient testing, decentralized
position, the test can be considered negative,
testing, bedside testing and alternate-site testing
indicating that a detectable level of hCG is not
551. POCT: usually by nonlaboratorian personnel
present.
(nurses, respiratory therapists, etc)
529. CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: If no band appears at C
552. Absorbance (A) = abc = 2-log%T
or incomplete or beaded bands appear at the T or C
553. The bacteriological examination of water
position, the test is invalid. The test should be
consists of (1) total plate counts (2) detecting the
repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device.
presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation
530. CARD PREGNANCY: If the test band appears VERY
of MPN (MOST PROBABLE NUMBER)
FAINT, it is recommended that a new sample be
554. Water analysis, presumptive test: FORMATION OF
collected 48 hours later and tested again using
GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH
another Card Pregnancy Test device.
555. Water analysis, confirmed test: FORMATION OF
623. One control value exceeds +2s and another
GAS IN BGBL BROTH or TYPICAL COLIFORM COLONIES ON
exceeds -2s: R4s
EMB/ENDO AGAR
624. 2 consecutive ctrl values exceed the same mean
556. Water analysis, completed test: FORMATION OF
+2s or -2s: 2:2s
ACID AND GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH and the
625. Fixed-angle centrifuge advantages over the
DEMONSTRATION OF GRAM NEGATIVE NONSPOREFORMING
horizontal centrifuge: Lesser air friction, smaller
BACILLI
increase in sample temperature, quicker
557. Herpesviruses: cardinal feature of the group is
sedimentation of small particles, and operated over
LATENCY
higher speed
558. Reoviruses: derivation of the word:
626. Used to determine whether there is
R(respiratory), E(enteric), O(orphan)
statistically significant difference between the SD
559. ASCHOFF BODIES: rheumatic fever
of 2 groups of data: f-test
560. CREOLA BODIES: cluster of columnar cells,
627. Used to determine whether there is
bronchial asthma
statistically significant difference between the
561. ELEMENTARY BODIES: infectious particles of
means of 2 groups of data: t-test
Chlamydia
628. Sample of known quantity with several
562. SCLEROTIC BODIES: dark brown-black organisms,
analytes.: Control
chromoblastomycosis
629. Anticoagulant for cardiopulmonary bypass:
563. ASTEROID BODIES: concentric radiating
Heparin
eosinophilic material (ag-ab reaction),
630. Basal state collection: Early morning blood
sporotrichosis
collection
564. NEGRI BODIES: rabies
631. Uses 2 monochromators, affected by quenching:
565. GUARNIERI BODIES: poxvirus
Fluorometry
566. OWL’S EYE INCLUSION BODIES: cytomegalovirus
632. Uses 2 photodetectors, for the sample beam and
567. PSAMMOMA BODIES: elements with concentric
reference beam: Double – beam in space
striations of collagen-like materials, benign
633. Obsolete blood glucose methodologies: Folin-
conditions, ovarian or thyroid carcinoma
Wu, Nelson Somogyi
568. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES
634. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used:
569. Hand, foot and mouth disease: COXSACKIEVIRUS
Ortho-toluidine, condensation method
570. In CYSTIC FIBROSIS of the pancreas, the
635. Test for chylomicrons, creamy layer on top:
increase IN NEUTRAL FATS confer the greasy “BUTTER-
Standing plasma test
STOOL” appearance.
636. Apolipoprotein component of VLDL: Apo-B100 637. Transports exogenous triglycerides:
616. Iron conversion factor from conventional to SI
Chylomicrons
(µmol/L): 0.179
638. Transports endogenous triglycerides: VLDL
617. Bilirubin conversion factor from conventional
639. Highest cholesterol content: LDL
to SI (µmol/L): 17.1
640. One step method for cholesterol determination:
618. Thyroxine conversion factor to SI (µg/dl to
Liebermann - Burchardt
mmol/L): 12.9
641. Cholesterol esterase: Used in enzymatic method
619. Specimen collection & processing: Pre-
of cholesterol determination
analytical QA
642. CV of HDLc (NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable
620. Long term accuracy of analytical methods:
Measurement Error):≤ 4%
External QC
643. Assay for Uric acid that uses mercury arc vapor
621. Abrupt change: Shift
lamp: Enzymatic: UV
622. Gradual change: Trend
644. Greater specificity and more expensive BUN
668. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl
assay: Enzymatic: ammonia formation
ions: Acid
645. Simple, Nonspecific test for Creatinine
669. Comparing patient’s results with previous
determination : Colorimetric: end point
results: Delta check
646. Categories of Azotemia: Pre-renal, Renal, Post-
670. POCT is most often performed by nurses,
renal
perfusionists (who operate heart-lung machine during
647. Test used to assess the ability to conjugate
open heart surgery), respiratory therapists and
bilirubin and secrete bile: Total and Direct
physician themselves.
Bilirubin assay 648. Gamma spike/ Monoclonal gammopathy: Multiple
671. Expressed in Ehrlich units (mg/dl):Urobilinogen
myeloma
672. Used to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin:
649. Beta-gamma bridging: Hepatic cirrhosis
Blondheim’s test
650. Reaction rate is directly proportional to
673. Degree of Hazard 1:Slight hazard
substrate concentration: First-order kinetics
674. Degree of Hazard 2:Moderate hazard
651. Enzyme specific for both pancreas and salivary
675. Degree of Hazard 3:Serious hazard
glands: Amylase
676. Degree of Hazard 4:Extreme hazard
652. Clinically significant if decreased:
677. Handwashing: Clean between fingers 15 sec (or
Cholinesterase
20 sec , 6th ed), downward
653. Substrate used in Bowers-McComb method for ALP
678. When skin or eye contact occurs, the best first
activity measurement: p-nitrophenylphosphate
aid is to immediately: Flush the area with water for
654. Chief counterion of sodium: Chloride
at least 15 minutes and then seek medical attention
655. Driving force of bicarbonate buffer system:
679. Preservative of choice for urine cytology
CARBON DIOXIDE
studies: Saccomano’s fixative
656. Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship:
680. Urine specimen for Urobilinogen: Afternoon
Reciprocal
sample (2-4pm)
657. Confirmatory test for Acromegaly: Glucose
681. Storage conditions for reagent strip: Cool, dry
suppression test
place
658. Increased in Hypothyroidism (primary): TSH
682. Reagent incorporated in Ketone pad: Sodium
659. T3 uptake levels in Hypothyroidism : Decreased
nitroprusside
660. Begins with patient identification and
683. Hoesch Test: Ehrlich’s reagent in 6M HCl
continues until testing is completed and the results
684. Speckled pattern on blood parameter: Hematuria
are reported : Chain of custody
685. Principle of Automated Reagent Strip Reader:
661. Requires whole blood EDTA sample: Cyclosporine
Reflectance photometry
and Tacrolimus tests
686. Soluble in dilute acetic acid: Red blood cells,
662. Method of choice for measuring antidepressants:
amorphous phosphates, carbonates
HPLC
687. Soluble in ether: Lipids, chyle, lymphatic
663. Gold standard for drug testing: GC-MS
fluid
664. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase: Organophosphates
688. Appear microscopically as yellow brown-granules
& Carbamates
and produce a characteristic pink sediment (brick
665. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen
dust), uroerythrin: AMORPHOUS URATES
ions: Acid
689. Cause a white precipitate following specimen
666. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl
refrigeration :Amorphous phosphates
ions: Base
690. Tubular injury: 2 or more RTE cells per HPF
667. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen
691. Telescoped sediment: Elements of
ions: Base
glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome
692. Glitter cells: Neutrophils seen in hypotonic
714. Microviscosity test for fetal lung maturity:
urine
measured by FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION
693. Formation of casts:
715. Green amniotic fluid: MECONIUM
Hyaline→cellular→granular→waxy
716. Dark red-brown color of amniotic fluid: FETAL
694. Hyaline cast consists entirely of: Uromodulin
DEATH
695. Crystals seen in liver disease: Bilirubin,
717. Normal Gastric fluid appearance: PALE GRAY WITH
tyrosine, leucine
MUCUS
696. Forms of Struvite: Coffin-lid, Feather-like,
718. Noninvasive test to determine gastric acidity:
Fern-leaf, Prism, Colorless sheets, Flakes
DIAGNEX TUBELESS TEST
697. Ethylene glycol poisoning: Monohydrate Calcium
719. Collagen-like material with concentric
Oxalate (oval, dumbbell)
striations seen in ovarian and thyroid carcinomas:
698. Most frequent parasite encountered in urine:
PSAMMOMA BODIES
Trichomonas vaginalis
721. Laminar flow: Biosafety Cabinet class II
699. Fecal contaminant in urine: Pinworm ova
722. HEPA filter: Removes org > 0.3 um (bacteria,
700. Diluent for CSF WBC Count: 3% Glacial HAc with
fungi)
methylene blue
723. Blood culture collection: 2-3 samples (Max 3-4)
701. Precipitation test for CSF total protein: TCA
at least 1 hour apart in 24 hours
and SSA
724. Grade A milk: <75,000 bacteria per mL when raw,
702. Positive for pellicle clot formation:
and <15,000 bacteria once pasteurized
Tubercular meningitis
725. Enteric agar: XLD, EMB, HEA
703. Oligoclonal bonding in CSF bonding but not in
726. Rickettsial stains: Gimenez, Macchiavello
serum →
727. Concentration of Hydrogen Peroxide as
Multiple sclerosis, encephalitis, Guillain-
Barre syndrome and neurosyphilis
disinfectant: 3% H2O2
704. Semen fructose test is not tested within 2
728. MIO medium: Motility Indole Ornithine
hours: Specimen must be FROZEN
729. Quaternary ammonium compounds are inactivated
705. Reagent used in Florence test which detects
by: Organic substances
choline: Potassium iodide, Iodine
730. Fite-Faraco stain: Hematoxylin as counterstain
706. Used to assess sperm cell velocity and
instead of methylene, AFB
trajectory: Computer-assisted semen analysis (CASA)
731. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate: Anti-phagocytic,
707. Normal volume of synovial fluid: less than 3.5
anti-complement
ml
732. Bromthymol blue as indicator: HEA, TCBS,
708. Normal synovial fluid glucose:<10mg/dl lower
Simmon’s citrate agar
than blood glucose
733. Nasopharyngeal swabs: H. influenzae, N.
709. Cells seen in synovial fluid which resembles
meningitidis, B. pertussis
polished rice macroscopically: Rice bodies
734. Inhibits gram-positive bacteria: Crystal violet
710. Type of effusion caused by congestive heart
and sodium desoxycholate (bile salt)
failure: Transudate
735. Inhibits gram-negative bacteria: Sodium azide,
711. Sputum: Not a normal body fluid,
phenylethyl alcohol
tracheobronchial secretions
736. Detects gram-negative endotoxin: Limulus lysate
712. Important diagnostic test for Pneumocystic
test
carinii in immunocompromised patients:
737. Protein A: Staphylococcus aureus,
Bronchoalveolar lavage
coagglutination
713. Tests for Neural Tube defects: AFP,
738. Slime layer production: Staphylococcus
acetylcholinesterase
epidermidis 739. Protein M: Streptococcus pyogenes
740. Colonies with ground glass appearance:
768. Trophozoite with ingested WBC: Entamoeba
Legionella (Mahon)
gingivalis
741. Increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
769. Gay bowel syndrome: Giardiasis
to aminoglycosides: Increased calcium and magnesium
770. Cercaria minus a tail: Schistosomule
742. Smallest free-living organism: Mycoplasma
771. Infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum:
743. Benchmarking: Comparison with peers
Plerocercoid larva
744. Histoplasma crossreacts with: Blastomyces,
772. Resembles Diphyllobothrium latum adult:
Aspergillus and Coccidioides
Spirometra
745. Aman medium stain: Lactophenol cotton blue
773. Passing of proglottids of Taenia: Irritated by
746. Czapek’s medium: Isolation of Aspergillus
ALCOHOL
747. African histoplasmosis: Histoplasma duboisii
774. Taenia spp. eggs: Hexacanth embryo with thick
748. Test for Candida albicans that uses serum: Germ
radial striations
tube test
775. Cercarial dermatitis: Schistosomes
749. Chlamydospore production of Candida albicans:
776. Length of needle in routine phlebotomy: 1.0 –
Cornmeal agar
1.5 inches
750. Candidiasis infection affecting the oral
777. Angle of draw in venipuncture: 15 to 30 ° angle
cavity: Thrush
(15 degree angle)
751. General isolation media for fungi: Saboraud’s
778. The distance of drop of blood from the edge of
dextrose agar
the slide: 1 cm
752. Major biologic hazard to laboratory personnel:
779. Blood production outside the bone marrow:
Coccidioides immitis
EXTRAmedullary hematopoiesis
753. Sensitive fungal (fluorescent) dye that binds
780. Hematopoietic stem cell marker: CD 34
to cell wall: Calcofluor white
781. Common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen: CD
754. Chromoblastomycosis: Sclerotic bodies
10
755. Rose gardener’s disease: Sporotrichosis
782. Test for Hemoglobin S which uses black line:
756. Eosinophilic material due to antigen-antibody
Dithionate solubility test
reaction in cases of sporotrichosis: Asteroid body
783. Starry sky pattern under low power imparted by
757. Largest DNA virus: Poxvirus
numerous macrophages with apoptotic debris:
758. Smallest DNA virus: Parvovirus
Burkitt’s lymphoma
759. Largest RNA virus: Paramyxovirus
784. Granules (tertiary granules) present in
760. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus
Neutrophil: Alkaline phosphatase
(Picornaviridae)
785. Euglobulin clot lysis time: Screening test for
761. Cross reactive antigen in all human
fibrinolysis
adenoviruses: Hexon
786. Screening test for PNH: Sugar water screening
762. Gastroenteritis in children during winter
test
months: Rotavirus
787. Derived from RBC Histogram: MCV, RDW
763. Nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults:
788. Derived from Platelet Histogram: MPV, PDW
Norovirus
789. In cyanmethemoglobin method, all hemoglobin are
764. Toxic to HSV: Calcium alginate
measured, except: Sulfhemoglobin
765. Isolation medium for Cytomegalovirus: Human
790. Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia: Mauve
fibroblast cells
lavender
766. True amoeba: GENUS Entamoeba
791. Patient with PNH received blood transfusion:
767. Trophozoite with ingested red blood cell:
Less lysis due to the presence of normal RBCs
Entamoeba histolytica
transfused
792. Positive instrumental errors: Bubbles in the
814. General purpose fixative: 10% neutral buffered
sample, extraneous electrical pulsesand aperture
formalin
plugs (most common)
815. Protein fixation: Neutral buffered formol
793. Negative instrumental error: Excessive lysing
saline or formaldehyde vapor
of RBCs
816. Fixatives for nucleic acids: Ethanol, methanol
794. Instrumental error that is either a positive or
and Carnoy’s solution
negative error: Improper setting of aperture current
817. Amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times
or threshold
the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently, the
795. Purplish red pinpoint hemorrhagic spots:
maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be 20
Petechiae
times the tissue volume.
796. Blood escapes into SMALL areas of skin and
818. Recommended ratio of fluid to tissue volume for
mucous membrane: Purpura
DECALCIFICATION is 20 to 1
797. Blood escapes into LARGE areas of skin, mucous
819. Amount of dehydrating agent should not be less
membrane, and other tissues: Ecchymosis
than 10 times the volume of tissue
798. Primary hemostasis: Vasoconstriction
820. Dehydration: Low grade to high grade alcohol
799. Outer surface of platelet: Glycocalyx
821. Absence of water: WHITE anhydrous copper
800. Contains microtubules that maintains platelet
sulfate
shape: Sol-gel zone
822. Presence of water: BLUE anhydrous copper
801. Platelet estimate of 100,000 to 149,000/µL:
sulfate
Slight decrease
823. Clearing: Dealcoholization
802. Platelet estimate of 150,000 to 199,000/µL: Low
824. Most rapid embedding technique: Vacuum
normal
embedding
803. Labile factors: Factors V and VIII
825. Automated tissue processor: Fix, dehydrate,
804. Prematurely activates at cold temperature:
clear, and infiltrate
Factors VII FXI
826. Histochemical demonstration of ENZYMES: FROZEN
805. Vitamin K-dependent factors: Factors II, VII,
SECTION
IX, X
827. ACRIDINE ORANGE is the most commonly used
806. Normal value for TEMPLATE bleeding time:6 – 10
fluorochrome to demonstrate DNA and RNA in fresh or
minutes
fixed tissues.
807. Christmas factor: Factor IX
828. Von Kossa’s silver nitrate method: Calcium
808. Rosenthal syndrome: Factor XI deficiency
salts = black
809. Platelet estimate of 401,000 to
829. Red chromogen for peroxidases:
599,000/µl:
Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC)
Slight increase
810. Platelet estimate of 600,000 to 800,000/µL:
830. Brown chromogen for peroxidases:
Moderate increase
Diaminobenzidine (DAB)
811. A surgical connection between to structures, it
831. Administrative investigation:2 members of board
usually means a connection that is created between
+ 1 legal officer
tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops
832. Policies and guidelines for Med Tech Education:
of intestines: ANASTOMOSIS
CMO no. 14 s. 2006
812. Polyclonal antibodies used in
833. Accreditation of clinical lab for training MT
immunohistochemical techniques are frequently
interns: CMO no. 6 s. 2008
derived from: RABBIT
834. STAT, STATIM: Immediately
813. Most rapid of the common freezing agents:
835. Biodegradable wastes: Green bag
LIQUID NITROGEN
836. Urine for routine urinalysis: 10 to 15 ml urine (50 ml-container capacity)
837. Urine for drug testing: 30 to 45 ml (60 ml-
855. Floating beta lipoprotein: β-VLDL
container capacity)
856. Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein: Lp (a)
838. Urine for cytology: at least 50 ml urine
857. Triglycerides, LDLc:
(Gregorios)
858. Formula for LDLc: Total cholesterol – HDL –
839. Venipucture: 15 to 30 degree angle
VLDL
840. Arterial puncture: 45 to 60 degree angle (90
859. Friedewald VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.175
degrees for femoral artery)
860. De Long VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.825
841. Before blood is collected from the radial
861. Friedewald VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/5
artery in the wrist, one should do a MODIFIED ALLEN
862. De Long VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/6.5
TEST to determine whether the ulnar artery can
863. ONE-STEP direct method for cholesterol:
provide collateral circulation to the hand after the
LIEBERMANN-BURCHARDT (L-B)
radial artery puncture.
864. One-step method for cholesterol: Colorimetry
842. Central Venous Assess (CVA) collection:
(Pearson, Stern and MacGavack)
eliminates multiple phlebotomies and surgical
865. Two-step method for cholesterol: C + Extraction
situations. Five (5) ml of blood must be drawn and
(Bloors)
discarded to eliminate contaminants. CVA is not
866. Three-step method for cholesterol: C+ E +
recommended for bacteriology (organisms can
Saponification (Abell-Kendall)
contaminate specimen)
867. Four-step method for cholesterol: C + E + S +
843. Order of draw from CATHETER LINES: First 3 to 5
Precipitation (Schoenheimer, Sperry, Parekh and
ml blood is discarded THEN, blood culture,
Jung)
anticoagulated tubes and clot tubes.
868. CDC reference method for cholesterol: Abell,
844. Donor bleeding: 45 degree angle to the skin,
Levy and Brodie method
make a quick clean puncture; once in the skin,
869. Modification of the ABELL-KENDALL method
reduce the angle of the needle to about 10 to 20
continues as the REFERENCE METHOD for cholesterol
degrees
used by the CDC (Henry)
845. Anaerobic and require ICE slurry (immediate
870. TANGIER’S DISEASE: HDL is abnormal and
cooling): Lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas (if not
significantly reduced
analyzed within 30 min = ↓ pH, and po2), iCa+2
871. Activated at cold temperature: Factors VII and
(heparinized whole blood if not analyzed within 30
XI (seven, eleven)
min)
872. Labile factors, decrease on storage: Factors V
846. C-Peptide test: evaluates hypoglycemia and
and VIII (five, eight)
continuous assessment of beta cell function
873. Wintrobe tube: 11.5 cm long, 3 mm bore
847. Increased C-peptide: Insulinoma, type 2 DM,
874. Westergren tube: 30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore
ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs
875. Capillary tube: 7 to 7.5 cm (70-75 mm) long, 1
848. Decreased C-peptide: Type 1 DM
mm bore (1.2 mm)
849. Colorimetric method for Triglycerides: van
876. Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2,000 to 2,300 g
Handel and
for 30 minutes
Zilversmith
FASTING 12 to 14 hours
850. CDC reference method: Modified van Handel and
877. Microhematocrit: Centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000
Zilversmith
g for 5 minutes (five minutes)
851. Fluorometric method for Triglycerides: Hantzch
878. Normocytic, normochromic: Acute blood loss,
condensation
hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia
852. Largest and least dense: CHYLOMICRONS
879. Microcytic, hypochromic: Anemia of chronic
853. Smallest but the most dense: HDL
disease, thalassemia, IDA and sideroblastic anemia
854. Found in obstructive jaundice and LCAT
880. Macrocytic, normochromic: MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA
deficiency: Lipoprotein X
881. Poikilocytosis: DECREASED ESR
882. Correction for WBC count, Adult: 5 or more
904. Bernardo T. Tabaosares "Celebration of the
nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential
Practice" (1971-1973)
883. Correction for WBC count, Neonate: 10 or more
905. Angelina R. Jose "Career Advocacy" (1973)
nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential
906. Venerable C.V. Chua (Venerable OCA)
884. Increased EDTA: Decreased hematocrit, decreased
"Educational Enhancement" (1977-1981)
ESR
907. Carmencita P. Acedera "Image Building" (1982-
885. Hemoglobinopathies: QUALITATIVE defect in
1991)
hemoglobin
908. Marilyn R. Atienza "Proactivism" (1992-1996)
886. Thalassemia: QUANTITATIVE defect in hemoglobin
909. Norma N. Chang "International Leadership"
887. Responsible for clot retraction: THROMBOSTHENIN
(1997-2000)
888. Electromechanical detection of fibrin clot:
910. Agnes B. Medenilla "Organizational Dynamism"
FIBROMETER
(2001-2002, 2005-2006)
889. Photo-optical detection: Electra, COAG-A-MATE,
911. Shirley F. Cruzada "Interdisciplinary
Ortho-Koagulab
Networking" (2003-2004)
890. Complement-dependent cytotoxicity: INVERTED
912. Leila M. Florento "Beyond Expectations" (2007-
PHASE CONTRAST microscope
2012)
891. Stains for the BASEMENT MEMBRANE: PAS and
913. Romeo Joseph J. Ignacio "Soar Higher through
azocarmine
V.O.I.C.E." Visibility, Oneness, Integrity,
892. Fixatives for H & E: All fixatives can be used
Commitment and Excellence (2013 - 2015)
except those that contain osmic acid. Osmic acid
914. Ronaldo E. Puno (2015-present)
(like Flemming’s) inhibits hematoxylin
----------------------------------------------------
893. Manual H & E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING, it
--------
includes a differentiation step
915. FATHER OF PAMET: CRISANTO ALMARIO
894. Harris hematoxylin: Primary/Basic/Nuclear stain
916. PAMET was originally organized on SEPTEMBER 15,
895. Eosin: Secondary/Counterstain/Acid/Cytoplasmic
1963
stain
917. PAMET HYMN Music: Francis Jerota Pefanco
896. Stain of choice for cytology: ORIGINAL Pap’s
918. PAMET HYMN Lyrics: Hector Gentapanan Gayares,
stain
Jr.
897. Pap’s stain consists of 3 stains: Harris
919. Current PAMET President: Ronaldo E. Puno
hematoxylin, Orange green (OG6) and Eosin Azure (EA)
920. Current PASMETH President: Bernard U. Ebuen
898. Harris hematoxylin: stains the nucleus
921. Board of MT Head: Dr. Marietta Baccay
899. OG 6: stains the cytoplasm of mature cells
922. Board of MT Member: Marilyn Atienza
(superficial cells)
923. Board of MT Member: Marian Tantingco
900. EA 36/50/65: stains the cytoplasm of immature
924. PRC CHAIRPERSON: TEOFILO S. PILANDO, JR.
cells (parabasal, intermediate cells)
925. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL
--------------------------------------------
926. BIPHASIC MEDIUM/CASTANEDA BOTTLES: BRUCELLA
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS
927. CIN medium: Y. enterocolitica
901. FIRST PRESIDENT: Charlemagne T. Tamondong
928. CCFA: C. difficile
"Emergence of the Profession" (1963-1967)
929. BCYE medium: Legionella
902. Nardito D. Moraleta "Professional Recognition"
930. HBT medium: Gardnerella
(1967-1970)
931. ssDNA: Parvovirus
903. Felix E. Asprer "Legislative Agenda" (1970-
932. dsRNA: Reovirus
1971, 1973-1976)
933. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus (Picornaviridae)
934. Acid-resistant: Enterovirus 935. Acid-sensitive: Rhinovirus
960. OSMOLALITY
936. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES
a. Osmolality = 2Na + (Glucose/20) + (BUN/3)
937. Measles: RUBEOLA
b. Osmolality = 1.86Na + (Glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8) +
938. German measles: RUBELLA
9
939. Chickenpox: VARICELLA
961. Anion gap
940. Odor of bitter almonds: CYANIDE
a. AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3)
941. Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth:
b. AG = (Na + K) – (Cl + HCO3)
ARSERNIC
----------------------------------
942. Legally intoxicated: Blood alcohol greater than
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS
100 mg/dL (0.10%)
962. Uric acid is alkali soluble
943. Potentiometry: measurement of pH and pCO2
963. Amorphous urates - soluble in alkali and heat
944. Amperometry: measurement of pO2
964. CaOx - soluble in dilute HCl
945. High affinity to keratin: ARSENIC
965. Amorphous phosphates - soluble in dilute acetic
946. Visible region: 400 to 700 nm
acid
947. UV region <400 nm
966. Calcium phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic
948. Infrared region > 700 nm
acid
949. Cholesterol, acceptable CV ≤ 3%
967. Triple phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic
950. Triglyceride, acceptable CV ≤ 5%
acid
951. HDLc, LDLc acceptable CV ≤ 4%
968. Ammonium biurate - soluble in acetic acid with
952. OBESE BMI ≥ 30 kg/sq.m.
heat
953. Overweight BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/sq.m.
969. Calcium carbonate - forms gas from acetic acid
954. Underweight BMI < 18.5 kg/sq.m. 955. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS
has eaten or become physically active.
970. Cystine is soluble in ammonia, dilute HCl
956. STAT for the Latin word statim meaning
971. Cholesterol is soluble in chloroform
immediately. Tests that fall into this category
972. Leucine is soluble in hot alkali or alcohol
include:
973. Tyrosine is soluble in alkali or heat
a. Glucose in diabetic ketoacidosis
974. Bilirubin is soluble in acetic acid, HCl, NaOH,
b. Some drug levels such as theophylline
ether and chloroform
c. Amylase in suspected pancreatitis
975. Sulfonamides soluble in acetone
d. CK in suspected MI
976. Radiographic dye soluble in 10% NaOH
e. Hematocrit
977. Ampicillin crystals form bundles when
f. Blood gases
refrigerated
g. Potassium
------------------------------------978. F. tularensis is a very small, strictly
957. CRITICAL VALUES or PANIC VALUES: list of
aerobic, coccoid to pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-
analytes that truly do have the potential to be
negative bacillus that requires CYSTINE or CYSTEINE
lethal if unchecked for a short period.
for growth
958. SCHILLING TEST: Laboratory determination of
979. Legionella spp. may be isolated on BCYE agar
vitamin B12 absorption
supplemented with growth factors, including LCYSTINE, FERRIC SALT, AND Α-KETOGLUTARATE.
959. Hemostatic mechanisms comprise four (4) main
980. Bordetella spp. are strictly aerobic,
systems: the vascular system, platelets, coagulation
nonfermentative, catalase-positive, minute
system and fibrinolytic system.
coccobacilli requiring NICOTINIC ACID, CYSTEINE, and
990. HBeAg indicates HIGH INFECTIVITY.
usually METHIONINE, for growth.
991. CORDOCENTESIS, or percutaneous umbilical blood
981. MEDICAL MALPRACTICE is misconduct or lack of
sampling (PUBS).
skill by a health-care professional that results in
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES
injury to the patient.
992. Formaldehyde – for Addis count
982. NEGLIGENCE, which is defined as failure to give
993. Conc, HCl – for epinephrine, norepinephrine,
reasonable care by the health-care provider, must be
catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid
proven in a malpractice suit.
994. Glacial acetic acid pH 4.5 – for aldosterone
983. SERUM or PLASMA is the specimen of choice for
995. Sodium carbonate – for porphyrins and
the determination of circulating concentrations of
urobilinogen (to ensure alkalinity)
most drugs. THERAPEUTIC DRUGS, BISHOP
996. Glacial acetic acid pH 2.0 – for serotonin
984. Analysis for the presence of ABUSED SUBSTANCES
997. Conc. HCl – for steroids, ammonia, urea, total
has focused primarily on the use of URINE as the
nitrogen
test sample of choice. The urine specimen represents
998. Chloroform – for aldosterone
the net load of the drug over a long period, whereas
999. Sulfuric acid – preserves calcium and other
the blood sample provides only a quick picture of
inorganic constituents
the drug level at a specific time. DRUGS OF ABUSE,
1000. Sodium fluoride or benzoic acid – ideal for
CALBREATH
glucose analysis, prevents glycolysis
985. CHAIN OF CUSTODY
1001. REAGENT LOG should be kept to indicate DATE IN
Processing steps for such specimens—initial
USE and EXPIRATION DATE of the reagent. This log
collection, transportation, storage, and analytical
should also note the lot numbers of controls. After
testing— must be documented by careful record
the reagent has been checked, this is indicated on
keeping. Documentation ensures that there has been
the label, and the solution can be used for
no tampering with the specimen by any interested
laboratory testing.
parties, that the specimen has been collected from
1002. ACID
the appropriate person, and that the results
a. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen (H)
reported are accurate.
ions
Each step of the COLLECTION, HANDLING, PROCESSING,
b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl (OH)
TESTING, AND REPORTING PROCESSES must be documented;
ions
this is called the chain of custody.
1003. BASE
986. RICE BODIES are fragments of degenerating
a. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl (OH)
proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted
ions
synovium.
b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen (H)
987. OCHRONOTIC SHARDS, ground pepper appearance
ions
from pigmented cartilage fragments may be the result
1004. A MOHR PIPET does not have graduations to the
of a metabolic disorder (i.e., ochronosis).
tip. It is a self-draining pipet, but the tip should
988. PROBLEMS: RBCs appear gray, WBCs are too dark,
not be allowed to touch the vessel while the pipet
eosinophil granules are gray, not orange. CAUSES:
is draining.
Stain or buffer too alkaline (most common),
1005. A SEROLOGIC PIPET has graduation marks to the
inadequate rinsing, prolonged staining, heparinized
tip and is generally a blowout pipet.
blood sample.
1006. A MICROPIPET is a pipet with a total holding
989. PROBLEMS: RBCs are too pale or are RED, WBCs
volume of less than 1 mL; it may be designed as
are barely visible. CAUSES: Stain or buffer too
either a Mohr or a serologic pipet.
acidic (most common), underbuffering (too short),
1007. GLUCOSE MEASUREMENTS
over-rinsing.
a. Reference method, enzymatic: HEXOKINASE
b. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used:
1016. Human infection with F. hepatica also called
Ortho-toluidine, condensation
the sheep liver fluke is now considered a global
c.
zoonosis. In countries like Bolivia, Ecuador,
Obsolete chemical blood glucose methods: Folin-
Wu, Nelson Somogyi
Islamic Republic of Iran and Yemen, human
1008. SCREENING FOR BIRTH DEFECTS
fascioliasis usually parallel the prevalence of
a. Triple test: AFP, HCG and ESTRIOL
infection in SHEEP and other ruminants like GOATS,
b. QUAD screen: AFP, HCG, ESTRIOL and INHIBIN-A
CATTLE, BUFFALOES and HORSES.
1009. Regulation of aldosterone secretion via the
1017. Diphyllobothrium latum egg: OVA are usually
renin/angiotensin system is achieved as follows.
yellowish brown, with a moderately thick shell and
Decreased blood volume or blood pressure induces the
an inconspicuous operculum. Opposite the operculum
release of kidney renin, which induces the
is a small knob-like thickening (aboperculum).
production of angiotensin I and II. Angiotensin II
1018. LIFE CYCLE OF ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS: The
affects release of aldosterone from the adrenal
adult E. granulosus resides in the small bowel of
gland, which ultimately causes the kidney distal
the definitive hosts, dogs or other canids. Gravid
tubule to RETAIN SODIUM, thereby raising blood
proglottids release eggs that are passed in the
volume and blood pressure.
feces. After ingestion by a suitable intermediate
1010. THREE (3%) PERCENT HYDROGEN PEROXIDE: In a 3%
host (under natural conditions: sheep, goat, swine,
solution, hydrogen peroxide is a harmless but very
cattle, horses, camel), the egg hatches in the small
weak antiseptic whose primary clinical use is in the
bowel and releases an oncosphere that penetrates the
cleansing of wounds.
intestinal wall and migrates through the circulatory
1011. ANAEROBES usually cannot grow in the presence
system into various organs, especially the liver and
of O2, and the atmosphere in anaerobe jars, bags, or
lungs. In these organs, the oncosphere develops into
chambers is composed of 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5%
a cyst that enlarges gradually, producing
to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitrogen (N2), and 0% O2
protoscolices and daughter cysts that fill the cyst
1012. Aerosol-induced sputum are collected by
interior. The definitive host becomes infected by
allowing the patient to breathe aerosolized
ingesting the cyst-containing organs of the infected
droplets, using an ultrasonic nebulizer containing
intermediate host. After ingestion, the
NaCl or until a strong cough reflex is initiated.
protoscolices evaginate, attach to the intestinal
1013. ASCARIS EGGS: In the soil, it takes about two
mucosa, and develop into adult stages. (CDC)
to three weeks for eggs to develop into the
a. Definitive host: DOGS (infective stage to DH,
infective stage (embryonation) under favorable
hydatid cyst)
conditions with suitable temperature, moisture and
b. Intermediate host: SHEEP (Infective stage to IH,
humidity. The embryonated eggs can survive in moist
eggs)
shaded soil for a few months to about two years in
c. Accidental intermediate host: MAN
tropical and subtropical areas, but for much longer
d. APOLLON: Found in the IH: HYDATID CYST
in temperate regions. (Belizario)
1019. Increased casts in ATHLETIC PSEUDONEPHRITIS
1014. The mode of transmission of Fasciola hepatica
and in some diuretic therapies.
and F. gigantica is by ingestion of metacercaria
1020. All types of casts may occur in the broad
encysted on edible aquatic plants or by drinking
form. However, considering the accompanying urinary
water with floating metacercariae.
stasis, the most commonly seen broad casts are (1)
1015. FASCIOLA GIGANTICA is the dominant species in
granular and (2) waxy.
the PHILIPPINES, affecting CATTLES and water
1021. Bile-stained broad, waxy casts are seen as the
buffaloes. There are only few human cases reported
result of the tubular necrosis caused by VIRAL
locally.
HEPATITIS.
1022. CHRONIC RENAL FAILURE OR ENDSTAGE RENAL
1030. RA 10912: Continuing Professional Development
DISEASE:
Act of 2016
a. Marked decrease in the glomerular filtration rate
a. It lapsed into law without P’Noy’s signature on
(less than 25 mL/min)
July 21, 2016
b. Steadily rising serum BUN and creatinine values
b. Under President Aquino, Senator Trillanes
(azotemia)
c. MANDATORY for the renewal of the PRC cards of all
c. Electrolyte imbalance
registered and licensed professionals under PRC
d. Lack of renal concentrating ability producing an
d. 45 units for 3 years for Registered Medical
isosthenuric (SG 1.010) urine
Technologists (RMTs)
e. Proteinuria and renal glycosuria
e. 30 units for 3 years for Registered Laboratory
f. Abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY, and (3)
TECHNICIANS (RLTs)
BROAD casts, often referred to as a TELESCOPED URINE
f. Under this law, OFWs are NOT exempted. They can
SEDIMENT
earn CPD units abroad provided that you have
1023. SMOOTH AND RAPID WEDGE SMEAR: Keep the
supporting documents to prove it. The CPD council
spreader slide at a 30 to 40 degree angle and the
for your profession will dictate the equivalency of
edge of the slide firmly against the horizontal
such seminars. (PRC Resolution No. 2016-990 series
slide, push the spreader slide rapidly over the
of 2016)
entire length of the slide. (push spreader slide
g. PRC amended few provisions in the Resolution
RAPIDLY). The tail of the film should be
No. 2013-774 Series of 2013 or the Revised
SMOOTH.
Guidelines on the Continuing Professional
Barbara Brown
1024. RBC indices are used to define the size and
Development (CPD) program for all Registered and
hemoglobin content of RBCs. They consists of MCV,
Licensed professionals through Resolution No. 2016-
MCH and MCHC. The indices are commonly used as an
990 series of 2016.
aid in diagnosing and differentiating anemias.
PS.
(Brown)
1. ALL TYPES of casts can be a broad cast.
1025. The MCH is much less valuable to the clinician
2. Most common type of broad casts are GRANULAR and
than the MCV and MCHC.
WAXY casts.
1026. Although CYTOKINES are produced by many cell
3. But if asked about TELESCOPED SEDIMENTS:
populations (endothelial cells, fibroblasts,
abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY and (3) BROAD
epithelial cells, and others), they are MAINLY THE
casts.
PRODUCTS OF HELPER T CELLS (TH) AND MACROPHAGES.
4. Wedge smear should be SMOOTH and RAPID.
(Henry)
5. Cytotoxicity testing is under HLA testing;
1027. CROHN’S DISEASE: inflammatory bowel disease.
therefore anticoagulant is ACD or heparin. — with
Immune reaction against intestinal bacteria.
Kelly Kinyoun and 49 others.
1028. POLARIZING MICROSCOPY: Polarized light is
1031. ALLELE - one of two or more different genes
obtained by using TWO POLARIZING FILTERS. The light
that may occupy a specific locus on a chromosome.
emerging from one filter vibrates in one plane, and
1032. ANTITHETICAL - referring to antigens that are
a second filter placed at a 90-degree angle blocks
the product of allelic genes (e.g., Kell [K] and
all incoming light, except that rotated by the
Cellano [k]).
birefringent substance.
1033. Amorph - gene that does not appear to produce
1029. TISSUE BLOCK, FIXATION
a detectable antigen; a silent gene, such as Jk, Lu,
Electron microscopy: 1 to 2 sq. mm.
O.
Light microscopy: 2 sq.cm (2 cm x 1 cm) x 0.4 cm
1034. Recessive - type of gene that, in the presence
(thickness or thinness)
of its dominant allele, does not express itself;
expression occurs when it is inherited in the
1047. ICTERUS - condition characterized by yellowish
homozygous state.
skin, whites of the eyes, mucous membranes, and body
1035. Dominant - trait or characteristic that will
fluids caused by increased circulating bilirubin
be expressed in the offspring even though it is
resulting from excessive hemolysis or from liver
carried on only one of the homologous chromosomes.
damage due to hepatitis. Synonym is jaundice.
1036. Codominant - pair of genes in which neither is
1048. KERNICTERUS - form of icterus neonatorum
dominant over the other—that is, they are both
occurring in infants, developing at 2 to 8 days of
expressed.
life; prognosis poor if untreated. This condition is
1037. Phenotype - OUTWARD EXPRESSION OF GENES (e.g.,
due to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin.
a blood type). On blood cells, serologically
1049. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE - can result from a
demonstrable antigens constitute the phenotype,
deficiency of an enzyme that transfers glucuronate
except those sugar sites that are determined by
groups onto bilirubin or from liver immaturity; can
transferases.
result in jaundice that occurs in some infants
1038. Genotype - individual’s actual genetic makeup.
during the first few days of life; also called
1039. Adsorption - providing an antibody with its
NEONATAL JAUNDICE.
corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so
1050. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE of the newborn is a
that the antibody will attach to the antigen,
result of a deficiency in the enzyme glucuronyl
thereby removing the antibody from the serum; often
transferase, one of the last liver functions to be
used interchangeably with absorption.
activated in prenatal life since bilirubin
1040. Elution - process whereby cells that are
processing is handled by the mother of the fetus.
coated with antibody are treated in such a manner as
a. Kernicterus often results in cell damage and
to DISRUPT THE BONDS BETWEEN THE ANTIGEN AND
death in the newborn, and this condition will
ANTIBODY.
continue until glucuronyl transferase is produced.
1041. Bombay Phenotype - occurring in individuals
b. Infants with this type of jaundice are usually
who possess normal A or B genes but are unable to
treated with ultraviolet radiation to destroy the
express them because they lack the gene necessary
bilirubin as it passes through the capillaries of
for production of H antigen, the required precursor
the skin. In extreme cases, some infants require an
for A and B. These persons often have a potent anti-
exchange transfusion.
H in their serum, which reacts with all cells except
c. Because this condition is so serious, bilirubin
other Bombays. Also known as Oh.
levels are carefully and frequently monitored so the
1042. The PARABOMBAY phenotypes are those rare
dangerously high levels of unconjugated bilirubin
phenotypes in which the RBCs are completely devoid
(approximately 20 mg/dL) can be detected and
of H antigens or have small amounts of H antigen
treated.
present.54 RBCs of these individuals express weak forms of A and B antigens, which are primarily detected by adsorption and elution studies. 1043. Ficoll-Hypaque - density-gradient medium used to separate and harvest specific white blood cells, most commonly lymphocytes. 1044. LISS contains glycine or glucose in addition to saline. 1045. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is a common drug used to treat hypertensi on; frequently the cause of a positive direct Coombs’ test result. 1046. RETICULOCYTE or the NEOCYTE (young RBCs).