-post Ana

Key word: SPICY

2. TURGEON: Refusal by the patient to have blood

Ang Turn Around Time (TAT)..

drawn. The response to this problem is to politely

Pre-analytical, Analytical or Post-analytical

excuse yourself from the patient’s room, note the

variable?

refusal on the requisition, and notify the

-post ana

hematology supervisor. 3. McCALL: There are times when a phlebotomist is

CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE

not able to collect a specimen from a patient even

PROLONGED APTT OR PT..

before attempting venipuncture. Occasionally, a

Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN

patient will refuse to have blood drawn. Other

1. From Rodak

times, the patient may be unavailable because he or

a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor

she has gone to surgery or for another test, as in

deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin

radiology. Whatever the reason, if the specimen

deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the

cannot be obtained, notify the patient’s nurse or

fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less.

physician. You may be required to fill out a form

b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are

stating that the specimen was not obtained and the

associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in

reason why. The original form is placed in the

prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of

patient’s chart and the laboratory retains a

reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin;

copy.

and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or

The following are the most common and generally

less.

accepted reasons for inability to obtain a specimen:

(ANSWER from McCall, Chapter 8, no. 6 is B)

• Phlebotomist attempted but was unable to draw 2. From Brown

blood.

a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen

• Patient refused to have blood drawn.

concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of

• Patient was unavailable.

dysfibrinogenemia. b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in

KEY WORD: SPICY

fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or

HENRY vs. STRASINGER. Malaki na kayo..

lower will cause a prolonged APTT.

1. HENRY Urine sediment may be “telescoped,” that is, may

KEY WORD: SPICY

display all types of cells and casts in lupus

HEMATOLOGY AND PHLEBOTOMY BOOKS

nephritis or with a hypersensitivity reaction.

RODAK, TURGEON OR McCALL TAYO?

Telescoped Sediment. This term is used to describe

1. RODAK: The patient has the right to refuse to

the simultaneous occurrence of elements of

give a blood specimen. If gentle urging does not

glomerulonephritis and those of nephrotic syndrome

persuade the patient to allow blood to be drawn, the

in the same urine specimen. A telescoped sediment

phlebotomist should alert the nurse, who will either

might therefore include red cells, red cell casts,

talk to the patient or notify the physician. The

cellular casts, broad waxy casts, lipid droplets,

phlebotomist must not try to force an uncooperative

oval fat bodies, and fatty casts. Such sediment may

patient to have blood drawn; it can be unsafe for

be found in collagen vascular disease (notably lupus

the phlebotomist and for the patient. In addition,

nephritis) and subacute bacterial endocarditis.

forcing a patient of legal age and sound mind to

2. STRASINGER

have blood drawn against his or her wishes can

An abundance of granular, waxy, and broad casts,

result in charges of assault and battery or unlawful

often referred to as a telescoped urine sediment.

restraint. KEY WORD: SPICY

CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE PROLONGED APTT OR PT..

Tests for fecal occult blood are in general use as a

Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN

screening test for which of the following?

1. From Rodak

A. Breast cancer

a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor

B. Colorectal cancer

deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin

C. Enteric infection of the colon

deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the

D. Malabsorption syndrome

fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less. b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are

In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the

associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in

blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after

prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of

carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal

reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin;

level after:

and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or

A. 30 minutes

less.

B. 45 minutes

2. From Brown

C. 60 minutes

a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen

D. 120 minutes

concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of dysfibrinogenemia. b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or lower will cause a prolonged APTT. KEY WORD: SPICY From Rodak: 1. PRP: centrifuged at 50 g for 30 minutes 2. PPP: centrifuged at 1500 x g for 15 minutes in a swinging bucket centrifuge

Pyuria: A. Protein in urine B. Glucose in urine C. WBCs in urine D. Casts in urine "Suicide sac" within the cell: A. Mitochondria B. Golgi bodies C. Lysosome D. Nucleus

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Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?

On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:41 PM, Armeena Rosa

A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation

Garcia <[email protected]> wrote:

B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

KEY WORD PEANUT

D. Acute monocytic leukemia

What is the most abundant amino acid in the body,

Which genera are positive for phenylalanine

being involved in more metabolic processes than any

deaminase?

other amino acid?

A. Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella

A. Alanine

B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus

B. Glutamine

C. Klebsiella and Enterobacter

C. Serine

D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella

D. Tyrosine

Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to:

C. Tyrosine

A. All testing done to the patient to save time

D. Histidine

B. All lab testing done in the central lab C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s

Of the total serum calcium, free ionized calcium

bedside

normally represents approximately what percent?

D. Satellite lab testing

A. 10 B. 40

Which order of events should be followed at the

C. 50

conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order

D. 90

to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens? A. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove

Of the total serum osmolality, sodium, chloride, and

lab coat

bicarbonate ions normally contribute approximately

B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat,

what percent?

wash hands

A. 8

C. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove

B. 45

lab coat

C. 75

D. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat,

D. 92

disinfect area Which of the following characterizes Crigler-Najjar In addition to performing hemoglobin

syndrome?

electrophoresis, a solubility test may be performed

A. Inability to transport bilirubin from the

to detect the presence of what hemoglobin?

sinusoidal membrane to the microsomal region

A. A,

B. Deficiency of the enzyme system required for

B. C

conjugation of bilirubin

C. F D. S

C. Inability to transport bilirubin glucuronides to the bile canaliculi D. Severe liver cell damage accompanied by necrosis

Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead screening?

What condition is characterized by an elevation of

A. Whole blood

total bilirubin primarily due to an increase in the

B. Hair

conjugated bilirubin fraction?

C. Serum

A. Hemolyticjaundice

D. Urine

B. Neonatal jaundice C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Select the most appropriate single screening test

D. Obstructive jaundice

for thyroid disease. A. Free thyroxine index

Which of the following reagent systems contains the

B. Total T3 assay

components sulfanilic acid, hydrochloric acid, and

C. Total T4

sodium nitrite?

D. TSH assay

A. Jaffe B. Zimmerman

Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid:

C. Diazo

A. Phenylalanine

D. Lowry

B. Methionine

What term is used to describe the accumulation of

During chemotherapy for leukemia, which of the

bilirubin in the skin?

following analytes would most likely be elevated in

A. Jaundice

the blood?

B. Hemolysis

A. Uric acid

C. Cholestasis

B. Urea

D. Kernicterus

C. Creatinine D. Ammonia

If elevated, which laboratory test would support a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?

Which of the following red cell precursors is the

A. Homocysteine

last stage to undergo mitosis?

B. Troponin

A. Pronormoblast

C. Albumin cobalt binding

B. Basophilic normoblast

D. B-type natriuretic peptide

C. Polychromatophilic normoblast D. Orthochromatophilic normoblast

Which of the following enzymes does not belong to the class of enzymes known as the hydrolases?

The most mature cell that can undergo mitosis is

A. Alkaline phosphatase

the:

B. Aldolase

A. Myeloblast

C. Amylase

B. Promyelocyte

D. Lipase

C. Myelocyte D. Metamyelocyte

To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase belong?

Paragonimus westermani infection is acquired by:

A. Isomerases

A. Drinking contaminated water

B. Ligases

B. Eating infected crustacea

C. Oxidoreductases

C. Eating infected fish

D. Transferases

D. Eating infected water chestnuts

Which test may be performed to assess the average

In which of the following sets of nematodes can each

plasma glucose level that an individual maintained

organism cause a pneumonia-like syndrome in a person

during a previous 2- to 3-month period?

exposed to heavy infection with any of the three

A. Plasma glucose

parasites?

B. Two-hour postprandial glucose

A. Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura, or

C. Oral glucose tolerance

Onchocerca volvulus

D. Glycated hemoglobin

B. Enterobius vermicularis, Dracunculus medinensis, or Trichuris trichiura

What does hydrolysis of sucrose yield?

C. Strongyloides stercoralis, Wuchereria bancrofti,

A. Glucose only

or Angiostrongylus costaricensis

B. Galactose and glucose

D. Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, or

C. Maltose and glucose

Strongyloides stercoralis

D. Fructose and glucose In the collection and transport of stool specimens for parasites, which parasitic stage is most

affected by the length of time from collection to

Which one of the following anaerobes is inhibited by

examination?

sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?

A. Cysts

A. Bacteroides fragilis

B. Trophozoites

B. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

C. Oocysts

C. Propionibacterium acnes

D. Helminth larvae

D. Veillonella parvula

Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted

The mycobacteria that produce a deep yellow or

on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results

orange pigment both in the dark and light are:

in infection with:

A. Photochromogens

A. Clonorchis sinensis

B. Scotochromogens

B. Fasciola hepatica

C. Nonchromogens

C. Heterophyes heterophyes

D. Rapid growers

D. Paragonimus westermani The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of Which of the following can cause toxic shock

the following?

syndrome?

A. Chickenpox

A. C. difficile and C. perfringens

B. Hodgkin lymphoma

B. M. pneumoniae and M. tuberculosis

C. Burkitt lymphoma

C. N. gonorrhoeae and E. coli

D. Smallpox

D. S. aureus and S. pyogenes The examination of sputum may be necessary to All the following antimicrobial agents work by

diagnose infection with:

inhibiting cell wall synthes is except:

A. Paragonimus westermani

A. cephalosporins

B. Trichinella spiralis

B. chloramphenicol

C. Wuchereria bancrofti

C. penicillin

D. Fasciola hepatica

D. vancomycin Examination of 24-hour unpreserved urine specimen is What components may not be prepared if whole blood

sometimes helpful in the recovery of:

is spun at 1-6C?

A. Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites

A. Packed red cells

B. Schistosoma haematobium eggs

B. Leukocyte-poor red cells

C. Enterobius vermicularis eggs

C. Platelets

D. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae

D. FFP Gram stain from a gum lesion showed what appeared to One of these disease-causing organisms is killed by

be amoebae. A trichrome smear showed amoebae with a

refrigeration of stored blood. Which one is it?

single nucleus and partially digested PMNs. The

A. Cytomegalovirus

correct identification is:

B. Hepatitis B virus

A. Trichomonas tenax

C. Plasmodium vivax

B. Entamoeba histolytica/E. dispar

D. Treponema spirochete

C. Entamoeba gingivalis D. Entamoeba polecki

Parasitic organisms that are most often transmitted

D. Dracunculus medinensis

sexually include: A. Entamoeba gingivalis

Which of the following is the vector for Babesia?

B. Dientamoeba fragilis

A. Fleas

C. Trichomonas vaginalis

B. Lice

D. Diphyllobothrium latum

C. Ticks D. Mosquitoes

Charcot–Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be formed

Hematuria is a typical sign of human infection

from the breakdown products of:

caused by

A. Neutrophils

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

B. Eosinophils

B. Trichinella spiralis

C. Monocytes

C. Trichomonas vaginalis

D. Lymphocytes

D. Schistosoma haematobium

Which of the following pairs of helminths cannot be

Which of the following nematode parasites is

reliably differentiated by the appearance of their

acquired from eating inadequately cooked, infected

eggs?

pork?

A. Ascaris lumbricoides and Necator americanus

A. Strongyloides stercoralis

B. Hymenolepis nana and H. diminuta

B. Taenia saginata

C. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale

C. Taenia solium

D. Diphyllobothrium latum and Fasciola hepatica

D. Trichinella spiralis

A 15-um pear-shaped flagellate with a visible

Which species of Plasmodium can have exoerythrocytic

parabasal body and "falling leaf" motility in a

stages capable of causing relapses months or years

direct saline mount of a diarrheal stool specimen is

after initial infection?

most probably

A. P. falciparum

A. Balantidium coli

B. P. ovale

B. Chilomastix mesnili

C. P. malariae

C. Giardia lamblia

D. P. cynomolgi

D. Trichomonas hominis Which of the following is the largest intestinal Which stage of Taenia saginata is usually infective

protozoa infecting humans?

for humans?

A. Balantidium coli

A. Cysticercus larva

B. Dientamoeba fragilis

B. Embryonated egg

C. Entamoeba histolytica

C. Filariform larva

D. Giardia lamblia

D. Rhabditiform larva Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective for Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is caused

humans?

by

A. Proglottid

A. Tiypanosoma brucei

B. Filariform larva

B. Trypanosoma cruzi

C. Rhabditiform larva

C. Leishmania braziliensis

D. Embryonated ovum

C. S. mansoni A free-living ameba that causes primary amebic

D. S. mekongi

meningoencephalitis is A. Dientamoeba fragilis B. Entamoeba coli

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C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Naegleria fowleri

On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:40 PM, Armeena Rosa Garcia <[email protected]> wrote:

Which species of Plasmodium may readily be

POPCORN

identified when crescent-shaped gametocytes are found in stained blood films? A. P. falciparum B. P. malariae C. P. ovale D. P. vivax

It can be used in the treatment of burn patients to replace colloid pressure: A. Whole blood B. Packed red blood cells C. Cryoprecipitate D. Albumin

For which of the following diseases is close contact with an infected human host the most important mechanism of transmission? A. Schistosomiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Trichinosis D. Trichomoniasis

This parasitic infection may result in vitamin B12 deficiency, and individuals with pernicious anemia are predisposed to more

45 seconds reading time: A. Glucose B. Ketone C. Specific gravity D. pH Normally, measurable amounts of this substance DO NOT appear in the urine: A. Ketones

severe symptoms.

B. Protein

A. Diphyllobothrium latum

C. Urobilinogen

B. Echinococcus granidosus C. Hymenolepis diminuta D. Taenia saginata

D. All of these Second most prevalent CSF protein: A. Albumin

Elephantiasis is a complication associated with

B. Prealbumin

which of the following?

C. Transferrin

A. Cysticercosis

D. IgG

B. Guinea worm C. Hydatid cyst disease

Assay for uric acid that requires the use of mercury

D. Filariae

vapor lamp and quartz cuvet: A. Colorimetric

Which Schistosoma species has a large terminal

B. Enzymatic: UV

spine?

C. Enzymatic: H2O2

A. S. haematobium

D. None of these

B. S. japonicum

This is used to determine whether there is a

between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or

statistically significant difference between the

loops of intestine.

standard deviations of two groups of data.

A. Anastomosis

A. Mean

B. Network

B. Median

C. Matrix

C. f-test

D. Reticulum

D. t-test Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC), which is __________ in Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units.

color, is a common chromogen for peroxidases which

A. 0.4

should be made fresh immediately before use.

B. 4

A. Red

C. 40

B. Brown

D. 400

C. Orange D. Pink

How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC count is below 1.0 x 10 9th/L?

Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to

A. 50

differentiate:

B. 100

A. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

C. 150

B. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.

D. 200

C. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp. D. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

In an automated instrument, this parameter is calculated rather than directly measured:

Characteristically, species from the genus

A. RBC count

Enterococcus are:

B. WBC count

A. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl

C. Hemoglobin

B. Bile esculin positive

D. Hematocrit

C. Relatively sensitive to penicillin D. Sodium hippurate negative

The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic environment.

Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not

A. Anti-S

in serum, except:

B. Anti-U

A. Multiple myeloma

C. Anti-N

B. Encephalitis

D. Anti-M

C. Neurosyphilis D. Guillain-Barre disease

He invented the Cambridge microtome: A. Minot

When encountering a patient with a fistula, the

B. Adams

phlebotomist should:

C. Trefall

A. Apply the tourniquet below the fistula

D. Queckett

B. Use the other arm C. Collect the blood from the fistula

It is a surgical connection between two structures. It usually means a connection that is created

D. Attach a syringe to the T-tube connector

Physician approval is required when collecting blood

C. Dce

from:

D. DCe

A. Patients with diabetes B. Lower arm veins

The presence of distinct "drumstick" appendage on

C. Foot and leg veins

the nucleus of a mature neutrophil indicates:

D. Pediatric patients

A. Reaction to a toxic material B. Reaction to bacteria in the blood or tissues

Sperm motility grading: "no forward progression"

C. A genetic defect in nuclear maturation

A. 0

D. The presence of a second X chromosome (female

B. 1

sex)

C. 2 D. 3

High levels of ketones are usually accompanied by marked:

Positive control for Simmons Citrate test:

A. Albuminuria

A. E. coli

B. Glycosuria

B. K. pneumoniae

C. Cylindruria

C. P. aeruginosa

D. Pyuria

D. S. aureus Decreased production of erythropoietin by the Positive for the cyanide nitroprusside test:

damaged kidney:

A. Uric acid crystals

A. Anemia of chronic disease

B. Cystine

B. Anemia of renal insufficiency

C. Tyrosine

C. Anemia in liver disease

D. Leucine

D. Anemia in endocrine disease

In galactosuria:

It reflects decreased marrow production due to

A. Positive copper reduction and reagent strip

smaller tissue oxygen requirement and subsequent

glucose

reduced erythropoietin production:

B. Negative copper reduction and reagent strip

A. Anemia of chronic disorders

glucose

B. Anemia of renal insufficiency

C. Positive copper reduction, negative reagent strip

C. Anemia in endocrine disease

glucose

D. Anemia in liver disease

D. Negative copper reduction, positive reagent strip glucose

The crystal associated with ethylene oxide poisoning has which characteristic appearance:

Centrifugation time for microhematocrit:

A. Envelope, pyramidal

A. 3 minutes

B. Dumbbell

B. 5 minutes

C. Coffin lid

C. 10 minutes

D. Hexagonal

D. 30 minutes A laboratory worker splashes concentrated HCl in his Common among Asians:

eyes. The best safety measure is to:

A. dce

A. Wash the eye with dilute NaOH and call physician

B. dCe

STAT

B. Wash the eye with distilled water and call a

B. Immune because of natural infection

physician STAT

C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination

C. Wash the eye with dilute acetic acid and call a

D. Chronically infected

physician STAT D. Call the physician and wait for his advice.

For albumin assay, absorbance at 630 nm is less likely to be affected by bilirubin or hemoglbin in

Media that contain factors (e.g., carbohydrates)

the sample. Which dye gives a much greater

that give colonies of particular organisms

absorbance change at 630 nm than it would at 500

distinctive characteristics are called:

nm?

A. Enrichment media.

A. HABA (Hydroxyazobenzene-benzoic acid)

B. Differential media.

B. BCG (Bromcresol green)

C. Supportive media. D. Selective media.

Minor lipoproteins: A. LpX and HDL

Colorless dumbbell crystals in an alkaline urine:

B. HDL and LDL

A. Calcium phosphate

C. VLDL and chylomicrons

B. Calcium carbonate

D. IDL and Lp(a)

C. Triple phosphate D. Ammonium biurate

Dilution for WBC count in automated cell counters: A. 1: 10,000

Absence of Philadelphia chromosome in patients with

B. 1: 100

CML:

C. 1: 50,000

A. Better prognosis of the disease

D. 1: 500

B. Poor prognosis of the disease C. It varies

Disorders involving the macrophages and monocytes,

D. No effect

except: A. Gaucher

Effect of decreased temperature to fluorescence:

B. Pelger-Huet

A. No effect

C. Niemann-Pick

B. Variable

D. Alder-Reilly

C. Decreased fluorescence D. Increased fluorescence

In automated cell counters based on electrical impedance, these parameters are directly measured:

Mistaken as Blastomyces in sputum:

A. WBC and RBC

A. Eosinophil

B. WBC, RBC, and hemoglobin

B. Lymphocyte

C. WBC and hemoglobin

C. Myelin globules

D. RBC only

D. Pigmented cells A component of acetest tablet: What could be the possible interpretation?

A. Copper sulfate

HBsAg: negative

B. Sodium hydroxide

Anti-HBc: positive

C. Lactose

Anti-HBs: positive

D. Sodium carbonate

A. Recovering from acute HBV infection

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 All are components of CLINITEST tablet, except: A. Copper sulfate

Not included in the Code of Ethics:

B. Sodium hydroxide

A. Reliability

C. Lactose

B. Integrity

D. Sodium carbonate

C. Honesty D. Humility

Hyperproteinemic or hyperlipidemic specimen: A. Hyponatremia

WBC casts without bacteria:

B. Hypernatremia

A. Cystitis

C. Pseudohyponatremia

B. Acute glomerulonephritis

D. Pseudohypernatremia

C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Acute interstitial nephritis

Common among Ashkenazi Jews: A. Parahemophilia

DONOR CRITERIA FOR PLASMAPHERESIS

B. Hemophilia A

Frequent plasma donors have a total serum protein of

C. Hemophilia B

at least ___ g/dL:

D. Hemophilia C

A. 2 g/dL B. 3 g/dL

A result of 4.5 Ehrlich unit is equivalent to:

C. 6 g/dL

A. 0.45 mg/dL

D. 10 g/dL

B. 4.5 mg/dL C. 45

mg/dL

D. 450 mg/dL

Rouleaux formation can be observed in all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Reverse ABO typing

To evaluate urine color and clarity:

B. Autologous control

A. Check the urine with a white background

C. AHG phase

B. Check the urine with a newsprint

D. None of these

C. Check the urine with a black background D. Check the urine with a polarizing light

A unit containing 405 mL blood should weigh: (answer, and give us the factor)

What is the the most widely used sedimentation

A. 405 grams

technique?

B. 416 grams

Zeibig: Formalin–ethyl acetate sedimentation

C. 429 grams

procedure.

D. 583 grams

Diluents for synovial fluid cell count:

Enzyme with moderate specificity for the heart,

1. Normal saline (0.9%) with methylene blue

skeletal muscles, brain:

2. Hyptonic saline (0.3%)

CK

3. Saline with saponin 4. Acetic acid

Enzyme with moderate specificity for the liver,

A. 1 and 3

heart, skeletal muscles:

B. 2 and 4

AST

C. 1, 2 and 3

Calculation of the anion gap is useful for What is the substrate used in the classic Cherry-

control for:

Crandall method for lipase determination?

A. Calcium

Olive oil

B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium,

quality

potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)* Alcohol level: Decreased inhibitions, loss of

C. Phosphorus

critical judgment, memory impairment, diminished

D. Magnesium

reaction time: A. 0.09 – 0.25

All are variables needed in the Cockroft and Gault

B. 0.18 – 0.30

formula except:

C. 0.27 – 0.40

A. Age

D. 0.35 – 0.50

B. Body weight in kilograms C. Serum creatinine D. Urine creatinine

Decreased aldosterone: A. High serum sodium and potassium B. Low serum sodium and potassium

Proportional systematic error

C. Low serum sodium, high serum potassium

A. t test

D. High serum sodium, low serum potassium

B. f test C. Y intercept D. Slope

A major advantage of POCT is: A. Faster turnaround time B. Lower cost

When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud's dextrose

C. Ease of use

agar, which of the following should not be in the

D. Both A and B

medium? A. Trimethoprim

The National Cholesterol Education has established cutoffs LDL cholesterol coronary cutoff

Program (NCEP)

for total cholesterol and

to define persons at high risk for

B. Cycloheximide C. Vancomycin D. Aminoglycoside

heart disease later in life. What is the

for a desirable LDL cholesterol

Broad-spectrum antibiotics act against:

concentration?

1. Gram-negative bacteria

A.

<130 mg/dL

2. Gram-positive bacteria

B.

<160 mg/dL

3. Bacterial and non-bacterial organisms

C.

<200 mg/dL

A. 1 and 2

D.

>130 mg/dL

B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3

Ninety percent (90%) of the carbon dioxide

D. 1, 2 and 3

present in the blood is in the form of:

A. Bicarbonate ions*

CYTOKINES are produced by many cell populations

B. Carbonate

(endothelial cells, fibroblasts, epithelial cells,

C. Dissolved CO2.

and others), they are MAINLY THE PRODUCTS OF:

D. Carbonic acid

A. B cells B. Macrophages C. B cells and macrophages

D. T cells and macrophages

A. Acetamide B. Citrate

Susceptibility to Autoimmune Diseases is usually

C. Urea

linked to:

D. Ammonia

A. HLA Class I alleles B. HLA Class II alleles

Effect of overanticoagulation on Hemoglobin

C. HLA Class III alleles

(Cyanmethb method) determination:

D. NOTA

A. Increased B. Decreased

All of the following are metallic mordants, except:

C. No effect

A. Iron

D. Variable

B. Iodine

Decreased ESR at hematocrit but NOT Hb

C. Alum D. Copper

Roundworn that inhabits the small intestines and usually demonstrated as rhabditiform larva in

Macrocytes sediment ____ than microcytes

stool:

A. Faster

A. A. lumbricoides

B. Slower C. Same D. No effect

B. N. americanus C. T. spiralis D. S. stercoralis

Cortisol level in PM is ______ than in AM

Reagent used in APT test:

(morning).

A. Sulfuric acid

A. Higher

B. Hydrochloric acid

B. Lower

C. Potassium hydroxide

C. Same

D. Sodium hydroxide

D. Variable PEAK 8 am to 9 am

Possible problem if sperm clumping was observed:

TROUGH (low) 10 pm to 11 pm

A. Sperm vitality B. Lack of support medium

Urine microscopic examination reveals 4+ bacteria,

C. Male antisperm antibodies

but nitrite reagent pad is negative. Culture reveals

D. Female antisperm antibodies

growth of E.coli. What is the most probable reason for the negative nitirite result?

The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:

A. E. coli lacks the reductase enzyme

a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic

B. Number of bacteria not enough to produce a (+)

b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen

nitrite

c. After addition of salicylic acid

C. Further reduction of nitrite to nitrogen

d. After the specimen cools to room temperature

D. Improperly preserved urine sample Which of the following locations is not a site of In the acetamide test, the production of _____

extramedullary hematopoiesis?

results in an alkaline pH,

A. Bone marrow

causing the medium to change color from green to

B. Liver

royal blue.

C. Spleen

A. Sodium cyanide

D. Thymus

B. Mercuric iodide C. Ammonium molybdate

Laboratory professionals are at special risk for

D. Neocuproine

disease transmission. The majority of cases of laboratory-related infections are associated with:

Colorless dumbbell and spherical crystals in an

A. Contamination of abraded skin

alkaline urine:

B. Puncture of wounds

A. Ammonium biurate

C. Ingestion of infectious material

B. Calcium carbonate

D. Infectious areosols

C. Triple phosphate

E. Bite of a laboratory test animal

D. Amorphous phosphate

Association with AIDS is most characteristic of:

All laboratory procedures and policies must be

A. M. avium-intracellulare

reviewed and documented at least:

B. M. marinum

a. Monthly or when authorized changes are made

C. M. bovis

b. Annually or when authorized changes are made

D. M. xenopi

c. Whenever the personnel make changes in procedure d. Quarterly or when authorized changes are made

Anemia characterized by accumulation of iron in the mitochondria of the eythroid precursors due to a

Indirect cost or overhead:

defect in HEME synthesis:

1. Reagents, consumables

A. Iron deficiency anemia

2. Technologists' time, MT labor cost

B. Sideroblastic anemia

3. QC necessary to ensure test accuracy

C. Aplastic anemia

4. Maintenance and repairs to equipment

D. Pure red cell aplasia

A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4

The blood bank reports that samples of banked blood

C. 1, 2 and 4

stored at refrigerator temperature have become

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

contaminated with a nonfermentative gram-negative bacillus. The organisms known to be implicated in

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

such cases are:

Which of the following characterize iron-deficiency

A. Pseudomonas fluorescens and Pseudomonas putida

anemia?

B. Alcaligenes faecalis and Alcalignes odorans

A. Decreased serum iron and decreased TIBC

C. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus spp anitratus and

B. Decreased serum iron and increased TIBC *

lwoffi

C. Increased serum iron and decreased TIBC

D. Pseudomonas cepacia and Pseudomonas stutzeri

D. Increased serum iron and increased TIBC

First morning urine, except:

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

A. Pregnancy test

The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) test is

B. Evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria

performed to assess the blood level of:

C. Nitrate determination

A. Ferritin

D. Urobilinogen determination

B. Hemopexin C. Iron

A chemical that confirms phosphate stones:

D. Transferrin

C. Potassium KEY WORD: CALBREATH

D. Sodium

Which protein is produced in decreased amount in Wilson's disease?

Decreased neutral α-glucosidase in seminal fluid

A. Albumin

indicates disorder involving the:

B. Ceruloplasmin

A. Testes

C. Haptoglobin

B. Epididymis

D. Hemopexin

C. Bulbourethral gland D. Urethra

KEY WORD: CALBREATH Which electrolyte plays a major role in the regulation of water balance in the body? A. Chloride

Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad

B. Phosphorus C. Potassium

On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:40 PM, Armeena Rosa

D. Sodium

Garcia <[email protected]> wrote:

KEY WORD: CALBREATH The androgen that is the most biologically active is: A. Androstenedione B. Androsterone C. Dehydroepiandrosterone D. Testosterone

KEYWORD: HASHBROWNS (continuation) 1051. The chief extracellular anions are chloride and bicarbonate, and there is a RECIPROCAL relationship between them: A DECREASE IN THE AMOUNT OF ONE PRODUCES AN INCREASE IN THE AMOUNT OF THE OTHER. 1052. Serum calcium and phosphorus generally maintain a reciprocal relationship.

KEY WORD: CALBREATH The physiologically active from of calcium is: A. Complexed B. Ionized

a. Primary hyperparathyroidism or some cases of malignancy: INCREASED CALCIUM, DECREASED PHOSPHATE b. BUT if calcium increase is due to renal failure, phosphate values also rise; both calcium and

C. Lipid-bound

phosphate values are elevated in cases of multiple

D. Protein-bound

myeloma and vitamin D overdose, as well as in cases of cancers that metastasize to bone.

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

1053. Parathyroid effect on serum calcium: (1) Bone,

Which trace metal accumulates in Wilson's disease?

(2) Kidney and (3) Intestines

A. Cobalt

a. Bone: Resorption of calcium and phosphate

B. Copper

b. Kidney: Direct enhancement of calcium and

C. Nickel

magnesium tubular reabsorption; direct blockage of

D. Zinc

phosphate tubular reabsorption; increased vitamin D metabolite formation

KEY WORD: CALBREATH

c. Intestine: Stimulation of vitamin D metabolite

An integral part of the transmission of nerve

synthesis – leads to enhanced gastrointestinal

impulses:

uptake of calcium

A. Iron

1054. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

B. Phosphorus

a. This common disorder can present in many ways:

1057. Urine specimens with high specific gravity

infertility, hirsutism, chronic anovulation, glucose

greater than the refractometer or urinometer scale

intolerance, hyperlipidemia or dyslipidemia, and

can be diluted and retested.

hypertension.

a. Only the decimal portion of the observed SG is

b. Investigations for this disorder involve

multiplied by the dilution factor.

estimation of free testosterone, SHBG, FSH, LH,

b. For example, a specimen diluted 1:2 with a

fasting glucose, insulin, and lipid levels.

reading of 1.025 would have an actual specific

c. Ovarian ultrasound reveals multiple cysts in many

gravity of 1.050.

patients (about 30% of patients do not have ovarian

c. For example, a specimen diluted 1:5 with a

cysts).

reading of 1.008 would have an actual specific

d. Most patients with this disorder are overweight;

gravity of 1.040

however, patients with polycystic ovary syndrome

1058. Renal threshold for glucose is 160 to 180

(PCOS) of eastern Asian or South American descent

mg/dL.

are of normal weight.

1059. Positive result for ketone (sodium

1055. HIRSUTISM is abnormal, abundant, androgen-

nitroprusside) pad is PURPLE.

sensitive terminal hair growth in areas in which

1060. Major ketone body in urine is BHA.

terminal hair follicles are sparsely distributed or

1061. Ketone not detected with sodium nitroprusside

not normally found in women. Most commonly,

reagent pad is BHA.

hirsutism is idiopathic in etiology (60% of cases),

1062. Largest cell in the urine sediment is SQUAMOUS

with PCOS the next most common cause (35%).

EPITHELIAL CELL.

1056. ARTERIAL BLOOD GAS PATTERN

1063. Lead poisoning – elevated ALA, protoporphyrin

a. MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION: Low pO2 and metabolic

1064. Normal value for CSF protein is 15 to 45

acidosis.

mg/dL.

The drop in PO2 is caused by diminished circulation

1065. Gastric Acidity:

times – that is, the rate of oxygenation of venous

a. Parietal cells – produces HCl and intrinsic

blood is reduced. The acidosis is caused by low

factor

perfusion of oxygenated blood due to compromised

b. Chief cells – produces pepsinogen that is

cardiac output.

activated by HCl to pepsin

b. In PULMONARY EMPBOLISM: Low pO2 and metabolic

c. Specialized G cells – produces gastrin that

acidosis.

stimulates parietal cells to produce HCl.

The low pO2 is caused by direct blockage of blood

1066. Bile solubility test (+S. pneumoniae)

flow into the pulmonary circuit. The acidosis is

a. Positive: Colony disintegrates; an imprint of the

caused by low oxygen saturation in the lungs with

lysed colony may remain in the zone

subsequent diminished oxygen delivery to tissues.

b. Negative: Intact colonies

c. Both conditions, MI and PE, result in tissue

1067. Bile esculin test (+Group D)

hypoxia.

a. Positive: Growth and blackening of the agar slant b. Negative: no blackening. no growth 1068. Group A / S. pyogenes - Large zone of beta hemolysis on BAP 1069. Group B / S. agalactiae – Narrow zone of beta hemolysis on BAP 1070. DCIS and LCIS Breast Cancer STAGE 0 a. DCIS – ductal carcinoma in situ b. LCIS – lobular carcinoma in situ

21. Microanatomical fixatives should never contain osmic acid/osmium tetroxide because it inhibits Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad

hematoxylin. 22. Nuclear fixatives should contain glacial acetic

On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:31 PM, Armeena Rosa Garcia <[email protected]> wrote: HASHBROWNS

acid due to its affinity for nuclear chromatin. 23. Cytoplasmic fixatives (Flemming's without HAc, Regaud's, Orth's, Helly's and formalin with postchroming). They should never contain Glacial Acetic Acid because it destroys the mitochondria and Golgi

1.Double embedding: Infiltrated with CELLOIDIN then

bodies.

embedded with PARAFFIN.

24. Manual paraffin wax infiltration and embedding:

2. Flotation waterbath: 45 to 50 C

At least four (4) changes of wax are required at 15

3. To remove formalin pigments: Picric acid

minutes interval to ensure complete removal of the

4. To remove mercurial deposits: Iodine

clearing agent from tissue. The specimen is then

5. Explosive when dry: Picric acid

immersed in another fresh solution of melted

6. Function of alum in hematoxylin: Mordant

paraffin for approximately 3 hours to ensure

7. Primary importance of Frozen Sections: RAPID

complete embedding or casting of tissue.

DIAGNOSIS

25. Cambridge/Rocking microtome: invented by

8. Enzyme histochemistry: Frozen section

Paldwell Treffall.

9. Second best choice for routine cytologic

26. Bond between Best carmine and glycogen:

examination after Papanicolau: Phase contrast

Coulombic attraction/electrostatic bonds, hydrogen

microscopy

bonds

10. NOT SUITABLE for kidney structures: Bouin's

27. Routine H and E: Regressive staining, it

11. Cell death due to ischemia (loss of blood

involves a differentiation step

supply) is known as infarction, and is manifested by

28. Stains for the glomerular basement membrane:

caharacteristic histologic appearance: COAGULATION

PAS, Azocarmine stain

NECROSIS

29. Postmortem clotting: immediately after death,

12. Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea:

rubbery consistency

Clostridium difficile

30. Antemortem thrombi: friable, characterized by

13. Corynebacterium amycolatum: Most frequently

fibrin precipitation

recovered Corynebacterium species from human

31. Leadership: DIRECTING

clinical material. It is part of the normal skin

32. COMPONENTS OF FIBRIN GLUE: cryoprecipitate

microbiota.

(fibrinogen) and topical thrombin

14. Primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients: Candida

33. Donor deferral, measles (rubeola) vaccination: 2

albicans.

weeks

15. Doublewalled, wrinkled cyst form: Acanthamoeba

34. Donor deferral, German measles (Rubella)

castellanii

vaccination: 4 weeks

16. Intracellular form of blood and tissue

35. When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin stain,

flagellates: leishmanial form

GLITTER CELLS stain LIGHT BLUE as opposed to the

17. Normal stool pH: pH 7 to 8

VIOLET COLOR usually seen with NEUTROPHILS.

18. Stool pH associated with CHO disorders: pH 5.5

35. After episodes of hemoglobinuria, yellow-brown

or less

granules may be seen in renal tubular epithelial

19. Microhematocrit: 10,000 g for 5 minutes

cells and casts or free-floating in the urine

20. Standing plasma test: creamy layer

sediment. To confirm that these granules are

(chylomicrons); turbid (VLDL)

hemosiderin, the Prussian blue stain for iron is

used and stains the hemosiderin granules a blue

58. Hirsutism: male-pattern hair growth in women;

color. (RTE cells with HEMOSIDERIN).

most common cause is PCOS (polycystic ovary

36. Second most prevalent protein in CSF: Prealbumin

syndrome, Marshall)

(transthyretin)

59. Primary male hypogonadism

37. MECONIUM, which is usually defined as a

Decreased testosterone

newborn’s first bowel movement, is formed in the

Increased LH and FSH

intestine from fetal intestinal secretions and

60. Secondary male hypogonadism

swallowed amniotic fluid. It is a dark green, mucus-

Decreased testosterone

like material. It may be present in the amniotic

Decreased LH and FSH

fluid as a result of fetal distress.

61. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient

38. Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an

has eaten or become physically active. This is a

arm with a cannula (temporary dialysis access

good time to draw blood specimens because the body

device) or fistula (a permanent surgical fusion of a

is at rest and food has not been ingested during the

vein and an artery).

night.

39. Adverse reaction of Aminoglycosides:

62. ACID: substance than can yield a hydrogen ion or

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

hydronium ion when dissolved in water

40. TETANY: neuromotor irritability accompanied by

63. BASE: substance than can yield hydroxyl ions

muscular twitching and eventual convulsions;

(OH-)

generally due to low calcium levels (hypocalcemia)

64. COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES: properties of osmotic

41. Reagent for the APT test: 1% NaOH

pressure, freezing point, boiling point and vapor

42. APT test: fetal blood, pink solution

pressure

43. APT test: maternal blood, yellow-brown

65. t-test: compare accuracy, mean (TAM)

supernatant

66. f-test: compare precision, SD (SPF)

44. Florence test: test for choline

67. Random error: 1:2SD, 1:3SD, R:4S (ODD NUMBERS)

Iodine, KI/ dark brown rhombic crystals

68. Systematic error: 2:2SD, 4:1SD, 10:x (EVEN

45. Barbiero's test: test for spermine

NUMBERS)

Picric acid, TCA/ yellow leafshaped crystals,

69. ZERO-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is dependent

needles

on enzyme concentration only

46. Blondheim's test: test to differentiate

70. FIRST-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is directly

hemoglobin from myoglobin, ammonium sulfate will

proportional to substrate concentration

precipitate hemoglobin

71. Arteriosclerosis: thickening or hardening of the

47. Nanometer is also millimicron

walls of arteries

48. Embedding medium for EM is Plastic

72. Atherosclerosis: accumulation of lipid in the

49. Best vital stain is neutral red

veins and arteries

50. Vital stain for mitochondria is Janus Green

73. Azotemia: elevated urea in blood

51. Ferning: Early pregnancy

74. Addison’s disease: deficiency of adrenocortical

52. Pap's consists of 3 stains: Harris hematoxylin,

hormones

OG 6 and EA

75. Conn’s syndrome: aldosterone-secreting adrenal

53. Total renal BLOOD flow is 1200 mL/min

adenoma

54. Total renal PLASMA flow is 600 to 700 mL/min

76. Cushing’s syndrome: excessive production of

55. Most potent estrogen is Estradiol

glucocorticoids (cortisol) by adrenal cortex

56. Most important androgen in terms of potency and

77. Phaeochromocytoma: tumors of the adrenal medulla

amount secreted is testosterone (Marshall)

or symphatetic ganglia that produce and release

57. Conn syndrome: primary aldosteronism

large quantities of catecholamines 78. Amenorrhea: cessation of menstruation

79. Cirrhosis: Greek work YELLOW; irreversible

identification marker in paternity testing and

scarring process by which normal liver architecture

criminal investigation (Harmening)

is transformed into abnormal nodular architecture

96. AMORPH: gene that does not appear to produce a

80. Gilbert’s syndrome: hereditary disorder in which

detectable antigen; a silent gene

there is DECREASED BILIRUBIN TRANSPORT into the

97. ANASTOMOSIS: connection between two blood

hepatocytes.

vessels, either direct or through connecting

81. Crigler-Najjar syndrome: hereditary DEFICIENCY

channels

of the UDPG-TRANSFERASE ENZYME

98. ANTI-A1 LECTIN: DOLICHOS BIFLORUS

82. Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with

99. ANTI-B LECTIN: BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA

increased plasma conjugated bilirubin, inborn error

100. ANTI-H LECTIN: ULEX EUROPAEUS

of metabolism

101. ANTI-M LECTIN: IBERIS AMARA

83. Rotor syndrome, possibly of viral origin, where

102. ANTI-N LECTIN: VICIA GRAMINEA

there is also a block in the excretion of conjugated

103. DOSAGE: phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts

bilirubin but without liver pigmentation

more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a

84. Wilson’s disease is a defect of copper transport

double dose (homozygous inheritance of the

from the liver resulting in overload of copper in

appropriate gene) than with a red blood cell

liver and brain

carrying a single dose (heterozygous inheritance) of

85. Menkes disease is an X-linked recessive disorder

an antigen

in which defective transport of copper from mucosal

104. EPITOPE: portion of the antigen molecule that

cells results in copper deficiency.

is directly involved in the interaction with the

86. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: chronic autoimmune

antibody; the ANTIGENIC DETERMINANT

thyroiditis; it is the most common cause of primary

105. PRIVATE ANTIGEN: antigenic characteristic of

hypothyroidism

the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an

87. Graves’ disease: diffuse toxic goiter

individual or a related family of individuals and

88. Kwashiorkor: acute protein calories malnutrition

therefore is not commonly found on all cells

89. Marasmus: caused by caloric insufficiency

(usually less than 1% of the population)

without protein insufficiency so that the serum

106. PUBLIC ANTIGEN: antigen characteristic of the

albumin level remains normal; there is considerable

red blood cell membrane found commonly among

loss of body weight

individuals, usually more than 98% of the population

90. Leydig cells: cells of the testicles that

107. Apoptosis: programmed cell death

produce testosterone

108. Ecchymosis: small hemorrhagic spot, LARGER THAN

91. CD34: cell membrane marker of stem cells

PETECHIA, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a

92. GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing

rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also

hemoglobin degradation products such as

known as bruise

methemoglobin: ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS

109. Koilonychia: fingernails are thin, flattened

93. ADSORPTION: Providing an antibody with its

and concave; associated with iron deficiency anemia

corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so

110. Leptocyte: thin, flat red cell with hemoglobin

that the antibody will attach to the antigen,

at periphery and increased central pallor;

thereby removing the antibody from the serum

hypochromic cell

94. ELUTION: process whereby cells that are coated

111. Reed-Sternberg cell: presence is definitive

with antibody are treated in such a manner as to

histologic diagnosis of HODGKIN’S DISEASE

disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody

112. Alder-Reilly anomaly: leukocytes of the

95. ACID PHOSPHATASE (ACP) and ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE

myelocytic series, and sometimes all leukocytes

(ALP): red blood cell enzyme used as an

contain coarse azurophilic mucopolysccharide granules

113. Auer rod: needle-shaped or round inclusion in

167. Studies have shown that although everyone who

the cytoplasm of myeloblasts and promyelocytes;

eats ASPARAGUS produces a urine odor, ONLY certain

composed of condensed primary granules

genetically predisposed people can smell the odor.

114. Chediak-Higashi anomaly: congenital, autosomal

168. CABBAGE urine odor: METHIONINE MALABSORPTION.

recessive disorder, characterized by partial

169. The heme portion of MYOGLOBIN IS TOXIC TO RENAL

albinism, photophobia and the presence of abnormally

TUBULES and high concentrations can cause acute

large blue granules in leukocytes

renal failure.

115. May-Hegglin anomaly: autosomal dominant

170. CASTS have tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES OF

inherited blood cell disorder characterized by

THE COVERSLIP.

thrombocytopenia and granules containing cytoplasmic

171. ETHYLENE GLYCOL (anti-freeze) poisoning:

inclusions similar to Dohle bodies

MONOHYDRATE CAOX

116. Sezary syndrome: cutaneous T CELL LYMPHOMA

172. TRIPLE PHOSPHATE: coffin-lid or FEATHERY

characterized by exfoliative erythroderma,

APPEARANCE (as they disintegrate)

peripheral lymphadenopathy and Sezary cells present

173. MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER provides a method for

in the skin, lymph nodes and peripheral blood

counting UNDILUTED seminal fluid. Sperms are

117. Gaucher’s disease: rare disorder of fat

immobilized by heating part of the specimen prior to

metabolism caused by deficiency of

charging the chamber.

glucocerebrosidase

174. COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA)

118. Bernard-Soulier syndrome: mutations to platelet

provides OBJECTIVE determination of both SPERM

GP IB or GP IX, defect of platelet adhesion

VELOCITY and TRAJECTORY (DIRECTION OF MOTION).

119. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia: mutations to

175. A maximum of 30 mL AMNIOTIC FLUID is collected

platelet GP IIb or IIIa; defect of fibrinogen-

in sterile syringes. The first 2 to 3 mL collected

dependent platelet aggregation

can be contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid

120. Lactoferrin: protein produced by the neutrophis

and cells and are discarded.

and stored in the secondary granules that is able

176. OSMOTIC DIARRHEA: increased RETENTION of water

bind iron

and solutes in the large intestine associated with

161. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL

MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION.

162. DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate buffer system

177. SECRETORY DIARRHEA: increased SECRETION of

is CARBON DIOXIDE.

water and electrolytes into the large intestine

163. TURNAROUND TIME (TAT): time from ordering a

caused by BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS.

test through analysis in the laboratory to the

178. Plasmapheresis donor, total protein at least 6

charting of the report.

g/dL.

164. Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a

179. Packed red blood cells LEAK POTASSIUM into the

description of their particular hazard, such as

plasma or additive solution of the blood component

POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC.

during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of

165. Information contained in the Material Safety

packed red blood cells may put patient populations

Data Sheets (MSDS) includes the following: physical

such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic,

and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion

or renal dysfunction at risk of developing

potential, reactivity potential, health hazards and

hyperkalemia. The transient hyperkalemia related to

methods for safe handling.

massive transfusion appear to be related to the

166. Urinometer is placed with a SPINNING MOTION.

patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels,

The scale reading is then taken at the BOTTOM OF THE

and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells.

URINE MENISCUS.

180. Significant Antibody titer in HDN: HARMENING 4th edition: significant is 32

5th edition: significant is 16 to 32

197. Platelets on top of the red cell should not be

6th edition: critical titer is 16 — with Christian

confused with RBC inclusion body. There is generally

Cammayo and Shy Valbuena.

a nonstaining halo surrounding the platelet when it

181. BENCHMARKING: individual facility COMPARE ITS

is positioned on top of the RBC.

RESULTS WITH THOSE OF ITS PEERS

198. ESR: bubbles and fibrin clots, invalid results

182. MEAN: average value

199. HYGROMETERS: measure HUMIDITY

183. MODE: most frequently occurring value

200. ALCOHOL FIXATIVE CONCENTRATIONS; 70% to 100%

184. MEDIAN: middle value within range

because less concentrated solutions will produce

185. CONSTANT systematic error - y-intercept

lysis of cells.

186. PROPORTIONAL systematic error - SLOPE

201. Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s

187. Fungi (dermatophyte) produces macroconidia that

solution are commonly used fixatives for nucleic

are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with

acids.

smooth walls: EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM

202. MICROWAVE: physical agent similar in mechanism

188. In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors

to vacuum oven (heat) and agitation to increase

with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered

movement of molecules and accelerate fixation. It is

UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through

also used to accelerate staining, decalcification,

surgery).

immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy.

189. Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction: either

* The processing time depends on the thickness and

Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response

density of the specimen. Reagents used for microwave

(%RR)

processing include ethanol, isopropanol and

190. ASCHOFF BODIES are nodules found in the hearts

proprietary mixtures of alcohol, and paraffin.

of individuals with RHEUMATIC FEVER.

Graded concentration of solutions is not required.

191. MERCURY: must NOT GO through drain disposal

Clearing agents are not necessary because the

192. FORMALDEHYDE WASTES: can be recycled by

temperature of the final paraffin step facilitates

distillation or by drain disposal, can be detoxified

evaporation of the alcohols from the tissue. Xylene

by commercial product, or can be disposed of by

and formalin are not used in this process, which

licensed waste hauler.

eliminates toxic fumes and carcinogens.

193. BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK:

* Disadvantages of the system include the fact that

represent the second X chromosome in females and may

the process is labor intensive because the solutions

be seen in 2 to 3% of neutrophils in FEMALES. The

are manually manipulated, temperatures must be

number of Barr bodies in a cell is one less than the

maintained between 70 and 85°C, and the size of

number of X chromosomes present in a cell.

tissue sample is critical (2 mm). Also the cost of

194. DOHLE BODIES: rough endoplasmic reticulum

laboratory-grade microwaves may be prohibitive, and

containing RNA and may represent localized failure

proper use of the microwave oven requires careful

of the cytoplasm to mature. They are found in

calibration and monitoring.

infections, poisoning, burns and following

203. LAST ALCOHOL BATH FOR DEHYDRATION SHOULD BE

chemotherapy.

PURE ETHANOL. A blue discoloration of COPPER SULFATE

195. CHEDIAK-HIGASHI: granulocytes usually contain

crystals will indicate FULL SATURATION WITH WATER.

several very large, reddish-purple or greenish-gray

Alcohol is then discarded and changed with fresh

staining granules in the cytoplasm; in the monocytes

solution.

and lymphocytes they stain bluish purple and may be

204. Skeletal muscle contains bundles of very long,

present singly, or there may be several in one cell.

multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their

These granules represent ABNORMAL LYSOSOMES.

contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under

196. Sickling of the RBCs is maximal at 37C and

voluntary control. STRIATED, VOLUNTARY

decreases as the temperature lowers.

205. Cardiac muscle also has cross-striations and is

219. Longest expiration date: FROZEN RBCs

composed of elongated, often branched cells bound to

220. Component of choice for vWD: CRYOPRECIPITATE

one another at structures called intercalated discs

221. Transfusion of BUFFY COAT IS BEST INDICATED

that are unique to cardiac muscle. Contraction is

for: NEWBORNS with severe infections

involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic. STRIATED,

222. Test performed on blood that will be transfused

INVOLUNTARY

to an acidotic or hypoxic infant: HEMOGLOBIN S

206. Smooth muscle consists of collections of

223. CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation

fusiform cells that lack striations and have slow,

between T cells and sheep RBCs: CD2

involuntary contractions. NONSTRIATED, INVOLUNTARY

224. Joining (J) chain: IgM and secretory IgA

207. CASEOUS NECROSIS: cell death produced by the

225. Ig that helps initiate the classical complement

Tubercle Bacillus. In gross state, the necrotic

pathway: IgM and IgG

tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE.

226. Primary immune response: IgM

208. Three (3) major changes that are observed in

227. Highest titer in secondary response: IgG

the NUCLEUS: PYKNOSIS, KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation

228. Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release

and fragmentation) and KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of

histamine: IgE

the nucleus).

229. Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test: REAGIN

209. Four (4) phases or stages of CELL DEGENERATION:

230. Test for HIV infection in infants who are born

CLOUDY SWELLING, FATTY DEGENERATION, CELL DEATH OR

to HIV-positive mothers: PCR

NECROSIS and CALCIFICATION.

231. Best indicator of early acute HBV infection:

210. BM aspiration is performed by a physician and

HBsAg

may be obtained by:

232. First antibody detected in serum after

* Needle biopsy: most frequently performed method

infection with HBV: anti-HBc

* Surgical biopsy

233. Blood products are tested for which virus

* Percutaneous (entering through the skin) TREPINE

before being transfused to newborns: CMV

(small object used to remove circular section of

234. Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies: chronic

tissue) biopsy (core of bone with accompanying

active hepatitis

marrow is obtained)

235. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): urinary bladder cancer

ISBB

HEMATOLOGY

211. Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT

236. Last stage in the erythrocytic series capable

SERUM: anti-M

of mitosis: POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

212. Most common cause of transfusion reactions:

237. Last nucleated stage in the erythrocytic

CLERICAL ERRORS

series: ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

213. Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN: DISCARD THE

238. Appearance of primary/nonspecific granules:

UNIT

PROMYELOCYTE

214. Noticeable clots in RBC unit: DO NOT ISSUE THE

239. Appearance of secondary/specific granules:

UNIT, indication of contamination or bacterial

MYELOCYTE

growth

240. Last stage in the granulocytic series capable

215. FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of

of mitosis: MYELOCYTE

transfusion reaction: CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS

241. Youngest cell in the granulocytic series to

216. SAGM, ADSOL shelf life: 42 days

NORMALLY appear in peripheral blood: BAND

217. REJUVENATION or red blood cells may be

242. Preferable site for BM aspiration and biopsy in

performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire

adult: ILIAC CREST

218. Preparation of leukopoor RBCs: filtering,

243. Miller disc is an ocular device to facilitate

centrifugation and washing

counting of: RETICULOCYTES

244. Organ that removes erythrocyte inclusions

272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE

without destroying the cell: SPLEEN

TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI

245. Megaloblastic anemia: MACROCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC

273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,

246. Anemia in sickle cell disease: NORMOCYTIC,

BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER

NORMOCHROMIC

274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES

247. Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia:

ESPECIALLY SKIN

MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC

275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,

248. AUTOSPLENECTOMY occurs in SICKLE CELL ANEMIA

MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-

249. PCH: Anti-P, DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY

containing tissues

250. Major leukocyte in aplastic anemia: LYMPHOCYTES

276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative

251. BITE CELLS in G6PD deficiency

process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia

252. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: schistocytes

and other bacteria

and nucleated RBCs

277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES

253. ANTIBIOTIC implicated in aplastic anemia:

278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary

CHLORAMPHENICOL

biopsies

254. Type of anemia in acute leukemia: NORMOCYTIC,

279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY

NORMOCHROMIC

structures, lipid and mucus

255. Hodgkin’s disease: REED-STERNBERG CELLS

280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.

256. Myelofibrosis: TEARDROP RBCs

SEVENTEEN

257. DIC is most often associated with M3: acute

281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND

promyelocytic leukemia

URGENT BIOPSIES

258. Peripheral smear of patient with MULTIPLE

282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides

MYELOMA: ROULEAUX

and nuclear proteins

259. Franklin’s disease: GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE

283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest

260. TRAP: Hairy cell leukemia

decalcifying agent

261. CD 10: Common ALL (CALLA)

284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens

262. PT and APTT result in patient with

tissues at the same time

polycythemia: BOTH PROLONGED

285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most

263. PRIMARY INHIBITOR OF FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM:

sensitive method for determining the extent of

ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN

decalcification

264. Lupus anticoagulant is directed against:

286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON

PHOSPHOLIPID

(PLASTIC MEDIUM)

265. ASPIRIN inhibits CYCLOOXYGENASE

287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING 288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately

HISTOPATH

6-10C lower than the mp of wax

266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID

289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS

DIAGNOSIS

290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains

267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS

291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA

268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES

292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS,

269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE

AZOCARMINE

OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR

293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE,

270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as

CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE

Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol

294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as

271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for

possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518

TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY

295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used

319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN

animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep,

320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:

horse, guinea pig and others

ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME

296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

HISTOPATH

297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID

CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE

DIAGNOSIS

298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does

267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS

not exceed: 150 mg

268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES

299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180

269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE

mg/dL

OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR

300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:

270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as

ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)

Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol

301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND

271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for

SAFRANIN

TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY

302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates

272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE

303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE

TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI

GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS

273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,

304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:

BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER

PYELONEPHRITIS

274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES

305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin

ESPECIALLY SKIN

hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large

275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,

amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID

MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-

306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells

containing tissues

307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy

276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative

Proteinuria >4 g/day)

process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia

308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:

and other bacteria

CALCIUM OXALATE

277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES

309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium

278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary

phosphate

biopsies

310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE

279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY

311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial

structures, lipid and mucus

endotoxin

280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.

312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod

SEVENTEEN

mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE

281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND

313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate

URGENT BIOPSIES

314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate

282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides

315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the

and nuclear proteins

fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL

283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest

316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal

decalcifying agent

deficiency

284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens

317. Most common cause of male infertility:

tissues at the same time

VARICOCELE

285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most

318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s

sensitive method for determining the extent of

stain

decalcification

286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON

311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial

(PLASTIC MEDIUM)

endotoxin

287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING

312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod

288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately

mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE

6-10C lower than the mp of wax

313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate

289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS

314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate

290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains

315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the

291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA

fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL

292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS,

316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal

AZOCARMINE

deficiency

293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE,

317. Most common cause of male infertility:

CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE

VARICOCELE

294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as

318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s

possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518

stain

295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used

319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN

animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep,

320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:

horse, guinea pig and others

ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME

296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

CM: 4th Edition Strasinger

297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

CEREBROSPINAL FLUID (CSF)

CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE

386. Approximately 20 mL of CSF is produced every

298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does

hour in the choroid plexuses and reabsorbed by the

not exceed: 150 mg

arachnoid villi

299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180

387.

mg/dL

6th edition: 90 to 150 mL

300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:

4th edition: 140 to 170 mL

ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)

388. Total volume in neonate: 10 to 60 mL

301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND

389. Normal adult CSF 0 to 5 WBCs/uL

SAFRANIN

390. Neonates 0 to 30 WBCs/uL

302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates

391. Reactive lymphocytes in CSF, viral infections

303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE

392. Moderately elevated WBC count (less than 50

GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS

WBCs/uL) with increased normal and reactive

304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:

lymphocytes and plasma cells may be indicative of MS

PYELONEPHRITIS

or other degenerating neurologic disorders

305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin

393. Increased eosinophils in CSF: parasitic

hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large

infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES

amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID

IMMITIS

306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells

394. CSF glucose is approximately 60 to 70 percent

307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy

that of plasma glucose

Proteinuria >4 g/day)

395. Normal CSF protein: 15 to 45 mg/dL

308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:

396. Normal concentration of glutamine in CSF: 8 to

CALCIUM OXALATE

18 mg/dL

CSF Total volume in adult:

309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium phosphate

SEMINAL FLUID

310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE

397. Liquefaction within 30 to 60 minutes

398. Volume 2 to 5 mL

419. Pleural fluid cholesterol greater than 60 mg/dL

399. pH 7.2 to 8

or a pleural fluid to serum cholesterol ratio

400. Sperm morphology: at least 200 sperms should be

greater than 0.3 provides a reliable information

evaluated

that the fluid is an exudate

401. Sperm viability, eosin-nigrosin stain, counting

420. Fluid to serum total bilirubin ratio of 0.6 or

number of dead cells in 100 sperms

more also indicates the presence of an exudate

402. Motility is evaluate in approximately 20 high-

421. Pleural fluid pH lower than 7.3 may indicate

power fields

the need for chest-tube drainage, in addition to

403. Sperm concentration 20 M to 160 M per mL

antibiotics in cases of pneumonia. The finding of pH

404. Sperm count ≥ 40 M per ejaculate*

as low as 6 indicates esophageal rupture that is

405. Most common dilution is 1:20 prepared using a

allowing the influx of gastric fluid

MECHANICAL (positive-displacement) rather than a Thoma pipette

PERITONEAL FLUID

406. Minimum motility of 50% with a rating of 2.0

422. RBC counts GREATER THAN 100,000/uL are

after 1 hour is considered normal

indicative of BLUNT TRAUMA INJURIES

407. Fructose ≥ 13 umol per ejaculate

423. Normal WBC counts are less than 500 cells/uL

408. Specimens for fructose should be tested within

and the count increases with bacterial peritonitis

2 hours or FROZEN to prevent fructolysis

and cirrhosis

409. RAPE, presence of sperm: (1) enhancing specimen

424. CA 125 antigen, source is from OVARIES,

with XYLENE and examining under PHASE MICROSCOPY (2)

FALLOPIAN TUBES or ENDOMETRIUM

ACP (3)

seminal glycoprotein p30 (prostatic

specific antigen [PSA]), which is present even in

FECALYSIS

the absence of sperm (4) ABO, DNA

425. Large intestine is capable of absorbing

410. Motile sperm can be detected for up to 24 hours

approximately 3,000 mL of water

after intercourse, whereas nonmotile sperm can

426. Most representative, for fecal fats; 3-day

persist for 3 days. As the sperm die off, only the

stool collection

heads remain and may be present for 7 days after

427. Muscle fibers: slide is examined for 5 minutes.

intercourse.

Only undigested fibers are counted, and the presence of more than 10 is reported as increased

SYNOVIAL FLUID

428. Bleeding in excess of 2.5 mL/150 gram of stool

411. Volume less than 3.5 mL

is considered pathologically significant

412. Normal: clear and pale yellow

429. Normal stool pH is between 7 and 8

413. Able to form 4 to 6 cm string

430. pH below 5.5 in cases of CARBOHYDRATE DISORDERS

414. Less than 2,000 RBCs/uL 415. Less than 200 WBCs/uL

BARBARA BROWN

416. Glucose less than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood

COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT

glucose

431. SCREENING PROCEDURE that is helpful in the diagnosis of many diseases, it is one indicator of

SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES

the body’s ability to fight disease, it is used to

417. Most reliable differentiation: Fluid-to-blood

MONITOR the effects of drug and radiation therapy,

ratios for protein and LD

and it may be employed as an INDICATOR OF PATIENT’S

418. WBC counts greater than 1,000/uL and RBC counts

PROGRESS in certain diseased states such as

greater than 100,000/uL are indicative of an exudate

infection or anemia.

PLEURAL FLUID

HEMATOCRIT

432. TRAPPED PLASMA: amount of plasma that still

diluting in order to ensure against platelet

remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has

DISINTEGRATION

been spun. Increased in macrocytic anemias,

447. 1% ammonium oxalate, the dilution is stable for

spherocytosis, thalassemia, hypochromic anemia and

8 hours

sickle cell anemia 433. When comparing spun hematocrit results obtained

ERTHROCYTE SEDIMENTATION RATE

on an electronic cell counter, the spun hematocrit

448. Macrocytes tend to settle more rapidly than

results vary from 1 to 3% HIGHER because of this

microcytes

trapped plasma (unless cell counter has been

449. Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis: falsely lower

calibrated).

ESR

434. Anticoagulated blood should be centrifuged

450. Agglutination: more rapid sedimentation rate

within 6 hours of collection when the blood is

451. In severe anemia: ESR IS MARKEDLY INCREASED

stored at room temperature. 435. Overanticoagulation: FALSELY LOW due to

SUGAR WATER TEST

shrinkage of cells

452. Citrated whole blood

436. Air bubbles denote poor technique but do not

453. In anemia, the hemolysis may be slightly

affect the results

increased in PNH negative specimens

437. Incomplete sealing of the microhematocrit

454. Use of defibrinated blood may cause positive

tubes: FALSELY LOW

results due to the hemolysis of traumatized RBCs

438. Inadequate centrifugation of the

455. Test should be performed WITHIN 2 HOURS of

microhematocrit tubes or allowing the tubes to stand

obtaining the specimen

longer than several minutes after centrifugation: FALSELY ELEVATED

SUCROSE HEMOLYSIS TEST

439. Hematocrit may be expressed in either of two

456. Citrated whole blood

ways (1) as percentage, e.g., 42% or (2) as a

457. Increased hemolysis (<10%) may be found in

decimal point, e.g., 0.42.

leukemia or myelosclerosis 458. PNH: 10% to 80% hemolysis

WHITE BLOOD CELLS COUNT 440. Count above 11 x 10 9th/L is termed

ACID SERUM TEST

LEUKOCYTOSIS

459. Whole blood defibrinated

441. Mix the Thoma pipet for approximately 3 minutes

460. When patient has received blood transfusions,

to ensure hemolysis and adequate mixing

less lysis occurs because of the presence of normal

442. Manual counts, no more than 10-cell variation

transfused red blood cells

between the four squares 461. Thyroxine (µg/dL to nmol/L) 12.9 PLATELET COUNT

462. X-axis: HORIZONTAL, ABSCISSA, INDEPENDENT

443. Prolonged BT and poor clot retraction are found

VARIABLES

when there is marked thrombocytopenia

463. Y-axis: VERTICAL, ORDINATE, DEPENDENT VARIABLES

444. EDTA: decreased platelet clumping but increased

464. UREA: Colorimetric: diacetyl [ inexpensive,

MPV

lacks specificity]

445. If concentration of EDTA exceeds 2mg/mL of

465. UREA: Enzymatic: NH3 formation [greater

whole blood, platelets may SWELL AND THEN FRAGMENT,

specificity, more expensive]

causing invalidly higher count

466. CREATININE: Colorimetric: end point [simple,

446. Using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid, the platelet

nonspecific]

count must be completed within 30 minutes of

467. CREATININE: Colorimetric: kinetic [rapid,

488. CLINITEST tablets contain copper sulfate,

increased specificity]

sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and sodium

468. CREATININE: Enzymatic [measure ammonia

hydroxide

colorimetrically or with ion-selective electrode]

489. ACETEST provides sodium nitroprusside, glycine,

469. URIC ACID: Colorimetric [problems with

disodium phosphate, and lactose in tablet form. The

turbidity, several common drugs interfere]

addition of lactose gives better color

470. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: UV [need special

differentiation. Acetest tablets are hygroscopic; if

instrumentation and optical cells]

the specimen is not completely absorbed within 30

471. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: H2O2 [interference by

seconds, a new tablet should be used.

reducing substances]

490. Bence Jones protein coagulates at temperatures

472. Constituents of a number of common foods,

between 40°C and 60°C and dissolves when the

including BANANAS, VANILLA, TEA AND COFFEE, may

temperature reaches 100°C.

react in the test for HMMA. HMMA is also VMA. 4-

491. Automated reagent strip readers: REFLECTANCE

Hydroxy-3-Methoxymandelic acid (HMMA)

PHOTOMETRY

473. Laboratory personnel should be aware of the

492. Casts have a tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES

MECHANICAL HAZARDS of equipment such as CENTRIFUGES,

OF THE COVER SLIP

AUTOCLAVES, and HOMOGENIZERS.

493. Squamous epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate,

474. Third Taenia: Taenia asiatica or the Taiwan

or many per LPF

Taenia

494. Transitional epithelial cells: Rare, few,

475. Fungal elements fluoresce green with acridine

moderate, or many per HPF

orange

495. RTE CELLS: AVERAGE NUMBER PER 10 HPFS

476. Reporting of normal urine crystals: reported as

496. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Acid-albumin and the CTAB

rare, few, moderate, or many per hpf

tests (+) thick, white turbidity

477. Abnormal crystals may be averaged and reported

497. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Metachromatic staining

per lpf

spot test: BLUE SPOT

478. Reagent for APT test: 1% NaOH

498. Very slight amount of OXYHEMOGLOBIN: PINK CSF

479. Infective stage of Leishmania to man:

499. Conversion of oxyhemoglobin to unconjugated

PROMASTIGOTE

bilirubin: YELLOW CSF

480. Infective stage of Trypanosoma to man:

500. Heavy hemolysis: ORANGE CSF

TRYPOMASTIGOTE

501. Red or brown seminal fluid: BLOOD

481. Infective stage of Plasmodia to man:

502. Normal appearance of gastric fluid: PALE GRAY

SPOROZOITES

with mucus

482. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis:

503. Amniotic fluid OD 450: When BILIRUBIN is

ANGIOSTRONGYLUS CANTONENSIS

present, a rise in OD is seen at 450 nm because this

483. When an accident involving electrical shock

is the wavelength of maximum bilirubin absorption.

occurs, the ELECTRICAL SOURCE MUST BE REMOVED

504. Rare: 0–10 bacteria/hpf

IMMEDIATELY.

505. Few: 10–50 bacteria/hpf

484. URINARY MEATUS: external urinary opening

506. Moderate: 50–200 bacteria/hpf

485. POLYURIA: greater than 2.5 L/day in adults

507. Many: >200 bacteria/hpf

486. OLIGURIA: less than 400 mL/day in adults

508. First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER

487. Yellow-orange specimen caused by the

509. Second layer of spun hematocrit: PLASMA

administration of phenazopyridine (brand name

510. Third layer of spun hematocrit: BUFFY COAT

Pyridium) or azo-gantrisin compounds to people who

511. Bottom layer of spun hematocrit: PACKED CELLS

have urinary tract infections [drug for UTI: orange

512. Patients with CML negative for the Philadelphia

and viscous urine]

chromosome: POOR PROGNOSIS

513. LEUKOCYTOSIS >11 x 10 9th/L

531. The standard screening method for HIV antibody

514. Forward light scatter: CELL SIZE

has been the ELISA, and the standard confirmatory

515. Side light scatter: CELL GRANULARITY

test is the Western blot.

516. KERATOCYTES: helmet cells/with horn-like

532. Aside from Western blot, other confirmatory

projections

tests, including indirect immunofluorescence assay

517. ANTI-dsDNA: most specific antibody for SLE

(IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line

518. Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): CHRONIC

immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests, have

ACTIVE HEPATITIS

also been developed.

519. Polymerase chain reaction: MOLECULAR

533. HBs ag: active infection

520. Restriction fragment length polymorphism:

534. HBe ag: active hepatitis B with HIGH DEGREE OF

MOLECULAR

INFECTIVITY

521. Enhanced by acidifying patient serum: anti-M

535. IgM anti-HBc: current or recent acute hepatitis

522. Wiener and coworkers gave a name to one such

B

agglutinin, calling its antigen I for

536. Total anti-HBc: current or past hepatitis B

“individuality.” The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST

537. Anti-HBe: recovery from hepatitis B

BLOOD SPECIMENS tested.

538. Anti-HBs: immunity to hepatitis B

523. For patients with history of FEBRILE

539. HBV DNA: acute, atypical, or occult hepatitis

NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSF REACTION: LEUKOPOOR RBCs

B; viral load may be used to monitor effectiveness

524. Irradiation of blood components: CESIUM

of therapy

525. CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD

540. ITIS: inflammation

SAMPLING (PUBS), results in a fetal blood specimen that can be used for rapid karyotyping or molecular

SEVEN BASE SI UNITS

studies.

541. Length: METER

526. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): URINARY

542. Mass: KILOGRAM

BLADDER CANCER

543. Time: SECONDS

527. CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE: Two separate black or

544. Quantity of mass: MOLE

gray bands, one at T and the other at C, are visible

545. Electric current: AMPERE

in the results window, indicating that the specimen

546. Thermodynamic temperature: KELVIN

contains detectable levels of hCG. Although the

547. Luminous intensity: CANDELA

intensity of the test band may vary with different

548. Main cause of TREND is DETERIORATION OF

specimens, the appearance of two distinct bands

REAGENTS

should be interpreted as a positive result.

549. Main cause of SHIFT is IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF

528. CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE: If no band appears at

THE INSTRUMENT

T and a black or gray band is visible at the C

550. POCT: near-patient testing, decentralized

position, the test can be considered negative,

testing, bedside testing and alternate-site testing

indicating that a detectable level of hCG is not

551. POCT: usually by nonlaboratorian personnel

present.

(nurses, respiratory therapists, etc)

529. CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: If no band appears at C

552. Absorbance (A) = abc = 2-log%T

or incomplete or beaded bands appear at the T or C

553. The bacteriological examination of water

position, the test is invalid. The test should be

consists of (1) total plate counts (2) detecting the

repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device.

presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation

530. CARD PREGNANCY: If the test band appears VERY

of MPN (MOST PROBABLE NUMBER)

FAINT, it is recommended that a new sample be

554. Water analysis, presumptive test: FORMATION OF

collected 48 hours later and tested again using

GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH

another Card Pregnancy Test device.

555. Water analysis, confirmed test: FORMATION OF

623. One control value exceeds +2s and another

GAS IN BGBL BROTH or TYPICAL COLIFORM COLONIES ON

exceeds -2s: R4s

EMB/ENDO AGAR

624. 2 consecutive ctrl values exceed the same mean

556. Water analysis, completed test: FORMATION OF

+2s or -2s: 2:2s

ACID AND GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH and the

625. Fixed-angle centrifuge advantages over the

DEMONSTRATION OF GRAM NEGATIVE NONSPOREFORMING

horizontal centrifuge: Lesser air friction, smaller

BACILLI

increase in sample temperature, quicker

557. Herpesviruses: cardinal feature of the group is

sedimentation of small particles, and operated over

LATENCY

higher speed

558. Reoviruses: derivation of the word:

626. Used to determine whether there is

R(respiratory), E(enteric), O(orphan)

statistically significant difference between the SD

559. ASCHOFF BODIES: rheumatic fever

of 2 groups of data: f-test

560. CREOLA BODIES: cluster of columnar cells,

627. Used to determine whether there is

bronchial asthma

statistically significant difference between the

561. ELEMENTARY BODIES: infectious particles of

means of 2 groups of data: t-test

Chlamydia

628. Sample of known quantity with several

562. SCLEROTIC BODIES: dark brown-black organisms,

analytes.: Control

chromoblastomycosis

629. Anticoagulant for cardiopulmonary bypass:

563. ASTEROID BODIES: concentric radiating

Heparin

eosinophilic material (ag-ab reaction),

630. Basal state collection: Early morning blood

sporotrichosis

collection

564. NEGRI BODIES: rabies

631. Uses 2 monochromators, affected by quenching:

565. GUARNIERI BODIES: poxvirus

Fluorometry

566. OWL’S EYE INCLUSION BODIES: cytomegalovirus

632. Uses 2 photodetectors, for the sample beam and

567. PSAMMOMA BODIES: elements with concentric

reference beam: Double – beam in space

striations of collagen-like materials, benign

633. Obsolete blood glucose methodologies: Folin-

conditions, ovarian or thyroid carcinoma

Wu, Nelson Somogyi

568. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES

634. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used:

569. Hand, foot and mouth disease: COXSACKIEVIRUS

Ortho-toluidine, condensation method

570. In CYSTIC FIBROSIS of the pancreas, the

635. Test for chylomicrons, creamy layer on top:

increase IN NEUTRAL FATS confer the greasy “BUTTER-

Standing plasma test

STOOL” appearance.

636. Apolipoprotein component of VLDL: Apo-B100 637. Transports exogenous triglycerides:

616. Iron conversion factor from conventional to SI

Chylomicrons

(µmol/L): 0.179

638. Transports endogenous triglycerides: VLDL

617. Bilirubin conversion factor from conventional

639. Highest cholesterol content: LDL

to SI (µmol/L): 17.1

640. One step method for cholesterol determination:

618. Thyroxine conversion factor to SI (µg/dl to

Liebermann - Burchardt

mmol/L): 12.9

641. Cholesterol esterase: Used in enzymatic method

619. Specimen collection & processing: Pre-

of cholesterol determination

analytical QA

642. CV of HDLc (NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable

620. Long term accuracy of analytical methods:

Measurement Error):≤ 4%

External QC

643. Assay for Uric acid that uses mercury arc vapor

621. Abrupt change: Shift

lamp: Enzymatic: UV

622. Gradual change: Trend

644. Greater specificity and more expensive BUN

668. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl

assay: Enzymatic: ammonia formation

ions: Acid

645. Simple, Nonspecific test for Creatinine

669. Comparing patient’s results with previous

determination : Colorimetric: end point

results: Delta check

646. Categories of Azotemia: Pre-renal, Renal, Post-

670. POCT is most often performed by nurses,

renal

perfusionists (who operate heart-lung machine during

647. Test used to assess the ability to conjugate

open heart surgery), respiratory therapists and

bilirubin and secrete bile: Total and Direct

physician themselves.

Bilirubin assay 648. Gamma spike/ Monoclonal gammopathy: Multiple

671. Expressed in Ehrlich units (mg/dl):Urobilinogen

myeloma

672. Used to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin:

649. Beta-gamma bridging: Hepatic cirrhosis

Blondheim’s test

650. Reaction rate is directly proportional to

673. Degree of Hazard 1:Slight hazard

substrate concentration: First-order kinetics

674. Degree of Hazard 2:Moderate hazard

651. Enzyme specific for both pancreas and salivary

675. Degree of Hazard 3:Serious hazard

glands: Amylase

676. Degree of Hazard 4:Extreme hazard

652. Clinically significant if decreased:

677. Handwashing: Clean between fingers 15 sec (or

Cholinesterase

20 sec , 6th ed), downward

653. Substrate used in Bowers-McComb method for ALP

678. When skin or eye contact occurs, the best first

activity measurement: p-nitrophenylphosphate

aid is to immediately: Flush the area with water for

654. Chief counterion of sodium: Chloride

at least 15 minutes and then seek medical attention

655. Driving force of bicarbonate buffer system:

679. Preservative of choice for urine cytology

CARBON DIOXIDE

studies: Saccomano’s fixative

656. Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship:

680. Urine specimen for Urobilinogen: Afternoon

Reciprocal

sample (2-4pm)

657. Confirmatory test for Acromegaly: Glucose

681. Storage conditions for reagent strip: Cool, dry

suppression test

place

658. Increased in Hypothyroidism (primary): TSH

682. Reagent incorporated in Ketone pad: Sodium

659. T3 uptake levels in Hypothyroidism : Decreased

nitroprusside

660. Begins with patient identification and

683. Hoesch Test: Ehrlich’s reagent in 6M HCl

continues until testing is completed and the results

684. Speckled pattern on blood parameter: Hematuria

are reported : Chain of custody

685. Principle of Automated Reagent Strip Reader:

661. Requires whole blood EDTA sample: Cyclosporine

Reflectance photometry

and Tacrolimus tests

686. Soluble in dilute acetic acid: Red blood cells,

662. Method of choice for measuring antidepressants:

amorphous phosphates, carbonates

HPLC

687. Soluble in ether: Lipids, chyle, lymphatic

663. Gold standard for drug testing: GC-MS

fluid

664. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase: Organophosphates

688. Appear microscopically as yellow brown-granules

& Carbamates

and produce a characteristic pink sediment (brick

665. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen

dust), uroerythrin: AMORPHOUS URATES

ions: Acid

689. Cause a white precipitate following specimen

666. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl

refrigeration :Amorphous phosphates

ions: Base

690. Tubular injury: 2 or more RTE cells per HPF

667. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen

691. Telescoped sediment: Elements of

ions: Base

glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome

692. Glitter cells: Neutrophils seen in hypotonic

714. Microviscosity test for fetal lung maturity:

urine

measured by FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION

693. Formation of casts:

715. Green amniotic fluid: MECONIUM

Hyaline→cellular→granular→waxy

716. Dark red-brown color of amniotic fluid: FETAL

694. Hyaline cast consists entirely of: Uromodulin

DEATH

695. Crystals seen in liver disease: Bilirubin,

717. Normal Gastric fluid appearance: PALE GRAY WITH

tyrosine, leucine

MUCUS

696. Forms of Struvite: Coffin-lid, Feather-like,

718. Noninvasive test to determine gastric acidity:

Fern-leaf, Prism, Colorless sheets, Flakes

DIAGNEX TUBELESS TEST

697. Ethylene glycol poisoning: Monohydrate Calcium

719. Collagen-like material with concentric

Oxalate (oval, dumbbell)

striations seen in ovarian and thyroid carcinomas:

698. Most frequent parasite encountered in urine:

PSAMMOMA BODIES

Trichomonas vaginalis

721. Laminar flow: Biosafety Cabinet class II

699. Fecal contaminant in urine: Pinworm ova

722. HEPA filter: Removes org > 0.3 um (bacteria,

700. Diluent for CSF WBC Count: 3% Glacial HAc with

fungi)

methylene blue

723. Blood culture collection: 2-3 samples (Max 3-4)

701. Precipitation test for CSF total protein: TCA

at least 1 hour apart in 24 hours

and SSA

724. Grade A milk: <75,000 bacteria per mL when raw,

702. Positive for pellicle clot formation:

and <15,000 bacteria once pasteurized

Tubercular meningitis

725. Enteric agar: XLD, EMB, HEA

703. Oligoclonal bonding in CSF bonding but not in

726. Rickettsial stains: Gimenez, Macchiavello

serum →

727. Concentration of Hydrogen Peroxide as

Multiple sclerosis, encephalitis, Guillain-

Barre syndrome and neurosyphilis

disinfectant: 3% H2O2

704. Semen fructose test is not tested within 2

728. MIO medium: Motility Indole Ornithine

hours: Specimen must be FROZEN

729. Quaternary ammonium compounds are inactivated

705. Reagent used in Florence test which detects

by: Organic substances

choline: Potassium iodide, Iodine

730. Fite-Faraco stain: Hematoxylin as counterstain

706. Used to assess sperm cell velocity and

instead of methylene, AFB

trajectory: Computer-assisted semen analysis (CASA)

731. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate: Anti-phagocytic,

707. Normal volume of synovial fluid: less than 3.5

anti-complement

ml

732. Bromthymol blue as indicator: HEA, TCBS,

708. Normal synovial fluid glucose:<10mg/dl lower

Simmon’s citrate agar

than blood glucose

733. Nasopharyngeal swabs: H. influenzae, N.

709. Cells seen in synovial fluid which resembles

meningitidis, B. pertussis

polished rice macroscopically: Rice bodies

734. Inhibits gram-positive bacteria: Crystal violet

710. Type of effusion caused by congestive heart

and sodium desoxycholate (bile salt)

failure: Transudate

735. Inhibits gram-negative bacteria: Sodium azide,

711. Sputum: Not a normal body fluid,

phenylethyl alcohol

tracheobronchial secretions

736. Detects gram-negative endotoxin: Limulus lysate

712. Important diagnostic test for Pneumocystic

test

carinii in immunocompromised patients:

737. Protein A: Staphylococcus aureus,

Bronchoalveolar lavage

coagglutination

713. Tests for Neural Tube defects: AFP,

738. Slime layer production: Staphylococcus

acetylcholinesterase

epidermidis 739. Protein M: Streptococcus pyogenes

740. Colonies with ground glass appearance:

768. Trophozoite with ingested WBC: Entamoeba

Legionella (Mahon)

gingivalis

741. Increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

769. Gay bowel syndrome: Giardiasis

to aminoglycosides: Increased calcium and magnesium

770. Cercaria minus a tail: Schistosomule

742. Smallest free-living organism: Mycoplasma

771. Infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum:

743. Benchmarking: Comparison with peers

Plerocercoid larva

744. Histoplasma crossreacts with: Blastomyces,

772. Resembles Diphyllobothrium latum adult:

Aspergillus and Coccidioides

Spirometra

745. Aman medium stain: Lactophenol cotton blue

773. Passing of proglottids of Taenia: Irritated by

746. Czapek’s medium: Isolation of Aspergillus

ALCOHOL

747. African histoplasmosis: Histoplasma duboisii

774. Taenia spp. eggs: Hexacanth embryo with thick

748. Test for Candida albicans that uses serum: Germ

radial striations

tube test

775. Cercarial dermatitis: Schistosomes

749. Chlamydospore production of Candida albicans:

776. Length of needle in routine phlebotomy: 1.0 –

Cornmeal agar

1.5 inches

750. Candidiasis infection affecting the oral

777. Angle of draw in venipuncture: 15 to 30 ° angle

cavity: Thrush

(15 degree angle)

751. General isolation media for fungi: Saboraud’s

778. The distance of drop of blood from the edge of

dextrose agar

the slide: 1 cm

752. Major biologic hazard to laboratory personnel:

779. Blood production outside the bone marrow:

Coccidioides immitis

EXTRAmedullary hematopoiesis

753. Sensitive fungal (fluorescent) dye that binds

780. Hematopoietic stem cell marker: CD 34

to cell wall: Calcofluor white

781. Common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen: CD

754. Chromoblastomycosis: Sclerotic bodies

10

755. Rose gardener’s disease: Sporotrichosis

782. Test for Hemoglobin S which uses black line:

756. Eosinophilic material due to antigen-antibody

Dithionate solubility test

reaction in cases of sporotrichosis: Asteroid body

783. Starry sky pattern under low power imparted by

757. Largest DNA virus: Poxvirus

numerous macrophages with apoptotic debris:

758. Smallest DNA virus: Parvovirus

Burkitt’s lymphoma

759. Largest RNA virus: Paramyxovirus

784. Granules (tertiary granules) present in

760. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus

Neutrophil: Alkaline phosphatase

(Picornaviridae)

785. Euglobulin clot lysis time: Screening test for

761. Cross reactive antigen in all human

fibrinolysis

adenoviruses: Hexon

786. Screening test for PNH: Sugar water screening

762. Gastroenteritis in children during winter

test

months: Rotavirus

787. Derived from RBC Histogram: MCV, RDW

763. Nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults:

788. Derived from Platelet Histogram: MPV, PDW

Norovirus

789. In cyanmethemoglobin method, all hemoglobin are

764. Toxic to HSV: Calcium alginate

measured, except: Sulfhemoglobin

765. Isolation medium for Cytomegalovirus: Human

790. Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia: Mauve

fibroblast cells

lavender

766. True amoeba: GENUS Entamoeba

791. Patient with PNH received blood transfusion:

767. Trophozoite with ingested red blood cell:

Less lysis due to the presence of normal RBCs

Entamoeba histolytica

transfused

792. Positive instrumental errors: Bubbles in the

814. General purpose fixative: 10% neutral buffered

sample, extraneous electrical pulsesand aperture

formalin

plugs (most common)

815. Protein fixation: Neutral buffered formol

793. Negative instrumental error: Excessive lysing

saline or formaldehyde vapor

of RBCs

816. Fixatives for nucleic acids: Ethanol, methanol

794. Instrumental error that is either a positive or

and Carnoy’s solution

negative error: Improper setting of aperture current

817. Amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times

or threshold

the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently, the

795. Purplish red pinpoint hemorrhagic spots:

maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be 20

Petechiae

times the tissue volume.

796. Blood escapes into SMALL areas of skin and

818. Recommended ratio of fluid to tissue volume for

mucous membrane: Purpura

DECALCIFICATION is 20 to 1

797. Blood escapes into LARGE areas of skin, mucous

819. Amount of dehydrating agent should not be less

membrane, and other tissues: Ecchymosis

than 10 times the volume of tissue

798. Primary hemostasis: Vasoconstriction

820. Dehydration: Low grade to high grade alcohol

799. Outer surface of platelet: Glycocalyx

821. Absence of water: WHITE anhydrous copper

800. Contains microtubules that maintains platelet

sulfate

shape: Sol-gel zone

822. Presence of water: BLUE anhydrous copper

801. Platelet estimate of 100,000 to 149,000/µL:

sulfate

Slight decrease

823. Clearing: Dealcoholization

802. Platelet estimate of 150,000 to 199,000/µL: Low

824. Most rapid embedding technique: Vacuum

normal

embedding

803. Labile factors: Factors V and VIII

825. Automated tissue processor: Fix, dehydrate,

804. Prematurely activates at cold temperature:

clear, and infiltrate

Factors VII FXI

826. Histochemical demonstration of ENZYMES: FROZEN

805. Vitamin K-dependent factors: Factors II, VII,

SECTION

IX, X

827. ACRIDINE ORANGE is the most commonly used

806. Normal value for TEMPLATE bleeding time:6 – 10

fluorochrome to demonstrate DNA and RNA in fresh or

minutes

fixed tissues.

807. Christmas factor: Factor IX

828. Von Kossa’s silver nitrate method: Calcium

808. Rosenthal syndrome: Factor XI deficiency

salts = black

809. Platelet estimate of 401,000 to

829. Red chromogen for peroxidases:

599,000/µl:

Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC)

Slight increase

810. Platelet estimate of 600,000 to 800,000/µL:

830. Brown chromogen for peroxidases:

Moderate increase

Diaminobenzidine (DAB)

811. A surgical connection between to structures, it

831. Administrative investigation:2 members of board

usually means a connection that is created between

+ 1 legal officer

tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops

832. Policies and guidelines for Med Tech Education:

of intestines: ANASTOMOSIS

CMO no. 14 s. 2006

812. Polyclonal antibodies used in

833. Accreditation of clinical lab for training MT

immunohistochemical techniques are frequently

interns: CMO no. 6 s. 2008

derived from: RABBIT

834. STAT, STATIM: Immediately

813. Most rapid of the common freezing agents:

835. Biodegradable wastes: Green bag

LIQUID NITROGEN

836. Urine for routine urinalysis: 10 to 15 ml urine (50 ml-container capacity)

837. Urine for drug testing: 30 to 45 ml (60 ml-

855. Floating beta lipoprotein: β-VLDL

container capacity)

856. Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein: Lp (a)

838. Urine for cytology: at least 50 ml urine

857. Triglycerides, LDLc:

(Gregorios)

858. Formula for LDLc: Total cholesterol – HDL –

839. Venipucture: 15 to 30 degree angle

VLDL

840. Arterial puncture: 45 to 60 degree angle (90

859. Friedewald VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.175

degrees for femoral artery)

860. De Long VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.825

841. Before blood is collected from the radial

861. Friedewald VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/5

artery in the wrist, one should do a MODIFIED ALLEN

862. De Long VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/6.5

TEST to determine whether the ulnar artery can

863. ONE-STEP direct method for cholesterol:

provide collateral circulation to the hand after the

LIEBERMANN-BURCHARDT (L-B)

radial artery puncture.

864. One-step method for cholesterol: Colorimetry

842. Central Venous Assess (CVA) collection:

(Pearson, Stern and MacGavack)

eliminates multiple phlebotomies and surgical

865. Two-step method for cholesterol: C + Extraction

situations. Five (5) ml of blood must be drawn and

(Bloors)

discarded to eliminate contaminants. CVA is not

866. Three-step method for cholesterol: C+ E +

recommended for bacteriology (organisms can

Saponification (Abell-Kendall)

contaminate specimen)

867. Four-step method for cholesterol: C + E + S +

843. Order of draw from CATHETER LINES: First 3 to 5

Precipitation (Schoenheimer, Sperry, Parekh and

ml blood is discarded THEN, blood culture,

Jung)

anticoagulated tubes and clot tubes.

868. CDC reference method for cholesterol: Abell,

844. Donor bleeding: 45 degree angle to the skin,

Levy and Brodie method

make a quick clean puncture; once in the skin,

869. Modification of the ABELL-KENDALL method

reduce the angle of the needle to about 10 to 20

continues as the REFERENCE METHOD for cholesterol

degrees

used by the CDC (Henry)

845. Anaerobic and require ICE slurry (immediate

870. TANGIER’S DISEASE: HDL is abnormal and

cooling): Lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas (if not

significantly reduced

analyzed within 30 min = ↓ pH, and po2), iCa+2

871. Activated at cold temperature: Factors VII and

(heparinized whole blood if not analyzed within 30

XI (seven, eleven)

min)

872. Labile factors, decrease on storage: Factors V

846. C-Peptide test: evaluates hypoglycemia and

and VIII (five, eight)

continuous assessment of beta cell function

873. Wintrobe tube: 11.5 cm long, 3 mm bore

847. Increased C-peptide: Insulinoma, type 2 DM,

874. Westergren tube: 30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore

ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs

875. Capillary tube: 7 to 7.5 cm (70-75 mm) long, 1

848. Decreased C-peptide: Type 1 DM

mm bore (1.2 mm)

849. Colorimetric method for Triglycerides: van

876. Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2,000 to 2,300 g

Handel and

for 30 minutes

Zilversmith

FASTING 12 to 14 hours

850. CDC reference method: Modified van Handel and

877. Microhematocrit: Centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000

Zilversmith

g for 5 minutes (five minutes)

851. Fluorometric method for Triglycerides: Hantzch

878. Normocytic, normochromic: Acute blood loss,

condensation

hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia

852. Largest and least dense: CHYLOMICRONS

879. Microcytic, hypochromic: Anemia of chronic

853. Smallest but the most dense: HDL

disease, thalassemia, IDA and sideroblastic anemia

854. Found in obstructive jaundice and LCAT

880. Macrocytic, normochromic: MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA

deficiency: Lipoprotein X

881. Poikilocytosis: DECREASED ESR

882. Correction for WBC count, Adult: 5 or more

904. Bernardo T. Tabaosares "Celebration of the

nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential

Practice" (1971-1973)

883. Correction for WBC count, Neonate: 10 or more

905. Angelina R. Jose "Career Advocacy" (1973)

nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential

906. Venerable C.V. Chua (Venerable OCA)

884. Increased EDTA: Decreased hematocrit, decreased

"Educational Enhancement" (1977-1981)

ESR

907. Carmencita P. Acedera "Image Building" (1982-

885. Hemoglobinopathies: QUALITATIVE defect in

1991)

hemoglobin

908. Marilyn R. Atienza "Proactivism" (1992-1996)

886. Thalassemia: QUANTITATIVE defect in hemoglobin

909. Norma N. Chang "International Leadership"

887. Responsible for clot retraction: THROMBOSTHENIN

(1997-2000)

888. Electromechanical detection of fibrin clot:

910. Agnes B. Medenilla "Organizational Dynamism"

FIBROMETER

(2001-2002, 2005-2006)

889. Photo-optical detection: Electra, COAG-A-MATE,

911. Shirley F. Cruzada "Interdisciplinary

Ortho-Koagulab

Networking" (2003-2004)

890. Complement-dependent cytotoxicity: INVERTED

912. Leila M. Florento "Beyond Expectations" (2007-

PHASE CONTRAST microscope

2012)

891. Stains for the BASEMENT MEMBRANE: PAS and

913. Romeo Joseph J. Ignacio "Soar Higher through

azocarmine

V.O.I.C.E." Visibility, Oneness, Integrity,

892. Fixatives for H & E: All fixatives can be used

Commitment and Excellence (2013 - 2015)

except those that contain osmic acid. Osmic acid

914. Ronaldo E. Puno (2015-present)

(like Flemming’s) inhibits hematoxylin

----------------------------------------------------

893. Manual H & E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING, it

--------

includes a differentiation step

915. FATHER OF PAMET: CRISANTO ALMARIO

894. Harris hematoxylin: Primary/Basic/Nuclear stain

916. PAMET was originally organized on SEPTEMBER 15,

895. Eosin: Secondary/Counterstain/Acid/Cytoplasmic

1963

stain

917. PAMET HYMN Music: Francis Jerota Pefanco

896. Stain of choice for cytology: ORIGINAL Pap’s

918. PAMET HYMN Lyrics: Hector Gentapanan Gayares,

stain

Jr.

897. Pap’s stain consists of 3 stains: Harris

919. Current PAMET President: Ronaldo E. Puno

hematoxylin, Orange green (OG6) and Eosin Azure (EA)

920. Current PASMETH President: Bernard U. Ebuen

898. Harris hematoxylin: stains the nucleus

921. Board of MT Head: Dr. Marietta Baccay

899. OG 6: stains the cytoplasm of mature cells

922. Board of MT Member: Marilyn Atienza

(superficial cells)

923. Board of MT Member: Marian Tantingco

900. EA 36/50/65: stains the cytoplasm of immature

924. PRC CHAIRPERSON: TEOFILO S. PILANDO, JR.

cells (parabasal, intermediate cells)

925. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL

--------------------------------------------

926. BIPHASIC MEDIUM/CASTANEDA BOTTLES: BRUCELLA

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS

927. CIN medium: Y. enterocolitica

901. FIRST PRESIDENT: Charlemagne T. Tamondong

928. CCFA: C. difficile

"Emergence of the Profession" (1963-1967)

929. BCYE medium: Legionella

902. Nardito D. Moraleta "Professional Recognition"

930. HBT medium: Gardnerella

(1967-1970)

931. ssDNA: Parvovirus

903. Felix E. Asprer "Legislative Agenda" (1970-

932. dsRNA: Reovirus

1971, 1973-1976)

933. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus (Picornaviridae)

934. Acid-resistant: Enterovirus 935. Acid-sensitive: Rhinovirus

960. OSMOLALITY

936. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES

a. Osmolality = 2Na + (Glucose/20) + (BUN/3)

937. Measles: RUBEOLA

b. Osmolality = 1.86Na + (Glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8) +

938. German measles: RUBELLA

9

939. Chickenpox: VARICELLA

961. Anion gap

940. Odor of bitter almonds: CYANIDE

a. AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3)

941. Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth:

b. AG = (Na + K) – (Cl + HCO3)

ARSERNIC

----------------------------------

942. Legally intoxicated: Blood alcohol greater than

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS

100 mg/dL (0.10%)

962. Uric acid is alkali soluble

943. Potentiometry: measurement of pH and pCO2

963. Amorphous urates - soluble in alkali and heat

944. Amperometry: measurement of pO2

964. CaOx - soluble in dilute HCl

945. High affinity to keratin: ARSENIC

965. Amorphous phosphates - soluble in dilute acetic

946. Visible region: 400 to 700 nm

acid

947. UV region <400 nm

966. Calcium phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic

948. Infrared region > 700 nm

acid

949. Cholesterol, acceptable CV ≤ 3%

967. Triple phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic

950. Triglyceride, acceptable CV ≤ 5%

acid

951. HDLc, LDLc acceptable CV ≤ 4%

968. Ammonium biurate - soluble in acetic acid with

952. OBESE BMI ≥ 30 kg/sq.m.

heat

953. Overweight BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/sq.m.

969. Calcium carbonate - forms gas from acetic acid

954. Underweight BMI < 18.5 kg/sq.m. 955. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS

has eaten or become physically active.

970. Cystine is soluble in ammonia, dilute HCl

956. STAT for the Latin word statim meaning

971. Cholesterol is soluble in chloroform

immediately. Tests that fall into this category

972. Leucine is soluble in hot alkali or alcohol

include:

973. Tyrosine is soluble in alkali or heat

a. Glucose in diabetic ketoacidosis

974. Bilirubin is soluble in acetic acid, HCl, NaOH,

b. Some drug levels such as theophylline

ether and chloroform

c. Amylase in suspected pancreatitis

975. Sulfonamides soluble in acetone

d. CK in suspected MI

976. Radiographic dye soluble in 10% NaOH

e. Hematocrit

977. Ampicillin crystals form bundles when

f. Blood gases

refrigerated

g. Potassium

------------------------------------978. F. tularensis is a very small, strictly

957. CRITICAL VALUES or PANIC VALUES: list of

aerobic, coccoid to pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-

analytes that truly do have the potential to be

negative bacillus that requires CYSTINE or CYSTEINE

lethal if unchecked for a short period.

for growth

958. SCHILLING TEST: Laboratory determination of

979. Legionella spp. may be isolated on BCYE agar

vitamin B12 absorption

supplemented with growth factors, including LCYSTINE, FERRIC SALT, AND Α-KETOGLUTARATE.

959. Hemostatic mechanisms comprise four (4) main

980. Bordetella spp. are strictly aerobic,

systems: the vascular system, platelets, coagulation

nonfermentative, catalase-positive, minute

system and fibrinolytic system.

coccobacilli requiring NICOTINIC ACID, CYSTEINE, and

990. HBeAg indicates HIGH INFECTIVITY.

usually METHIONINE, for growth.

991. CORDOCENTESIS, or percutaneous umbilical blood

981. MEDICAL MALPRACTICE is misconduct or lack of

sampling (PUBS).

skill by a health-care professional that results in

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES

injury to the patient.

992. Formaldehyde – for Addis count

982. NEGLIGENCE, which is defined as failure to give

993. Conc, HCl – for epinephrine, norepinephrine,

reasonable care by the health-care provider, must be

catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid

proven in a malpractice suit.

994. Glacial acetic acid pH 4.5 – for aldosterone

983. SERUM or PLASMA is the specimen of choice for

995. Sodium carbonate – for porphyrins and

the determination of circulating concentrations of

urobilinogen (to ensure alkalinity)

most drugs. THERAPEUTIC DRUGS, BISHOP

996. Glacial acetic acid pH 2.0 – for serotonin

984. Analysis for the presence of ABUSED SUBSTANCES

997. Conc. HCl – for steroids, ammonia, urea, total

has focused primarily on the use of URINE as the

nitrogen

test sample of choice. The urine specimen represents

998. Chloroform – for aldosterone

the net load of the drug over a long period, whereas

999. Sulfuric acid – preserves calcium and other

the blood sample provides only a quick picture of

inorganic constituents

the drug level at a specific time. DRUGS OF ABUSE,

1000. Sodium fluoride or benzoic acid – ideal for

CALBREATH

glucose analysis, prevents glycolysis

985. CHAIN OF CUSTODY

1001. REAGENT LOG should be kept to indicate DATE IN

Processing steps for such specimens—initial

USE and EXPIRATION DATE of the reagent. This log

collection, transportation, storage, and analytical

should also note the lot numbers of controls. After

testing— must be documented by careful record

the reagent has been checked, this is indicated on

keeping. Documentation ensures that there has been

the label, and the solution can be used for

no tampering with the specimen by any interested

laboratory testing.

parties, that the specimen has been collected from

1002. ACID

the appropriate person, and that the results

a. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen (H)

reported are accurate.

ions

Each step of the COLLECTION, HANDLING, PROCESSING,

b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl (OH)

TESTING, AND REPORTING PROCESSES must be documented;

ions

this is called the chain of custody.

1003. BASE

986. RICE BODIES are fragments of degenerating

a. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl (OH)

proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted

ions

synovium.

b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen (H)

987. OCHRONOTIC SHARDS, ground pepper appearance

ions

from pigmented cartilage fragments may be the result

1004. A MOHR PIPET does not have graduations to the

of a metabolic disorder (i.e., ochronosis).

tip. It is a self-draining pipet, but the tip should

988. PROBLEMS: RBCs appear gray, WBCs are too dark,

not be allowed to touch the vessel while the pipet

eosinophil granules are gray, not orange. CAUSES:

is draining.

Stain or buffer too alkaline (most common),

1005. A SEROLOGIC PIPET has graduation marks to the

inadequate rinsing, prolonged staining, heparinized

tip and is generally a blowout pipet.

blood sample.

1006. A MICROPIPET is a pipet with a total holding

989. PROBLEMS: RBCs are too pale or are RED, WBCs

volume of less than 1 mL; it may be designed as

are barely visible. CAUSES: Stain or buffer too

either a Mohr or a serologic pipet.

acidic (most common), underbuffering (too short),

1007. GLUCOSE MEASUREMENTS

over-rinsing.

a. Reference method, enzymatic: HEXOKINASE

b. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used:

1016. Human infection with F. hepatica also called

Ortho-toluidine, condensation

the sheep liver fluke is now considered a global

c.

zoonosis. In countries like Bolivia, Ecuador,

Obsolete chemical blood glucose methods: Folin-

Wu, Nelson Somogyi

Islamic Republic of Iran and Yemen, human

1008. SCREENING FOR BIRTH DEFECTS

fascioliasis usually parallel the prevalence of

a. Triple test: AFP, HCG and ESTRIOL

infection in SHEEP and other ruminants like GOATS,

b. QUAD screen: AFP, HCG, ESTRIOL and INHIBIN-A

CATTLE, BUFFALOES and HORSES.

1009. Regulation of aldosterone secretion via the

1017. Diphyllobothrium latum egg: OVA are usually

renin/angiotensin system is achieved as follows.

yellowish brown, with a moderately thick shell and

Decreased blood volume or blood pressure induces the

an inconspicuous operculum. Opposite the operculum

release of kidney renin, which induces the

is a small knob-like thickening (aboperculum).

production of angiotensin I and II. Angiotensin II

1018. LIFE CYCLE OF ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS: The

affects release of aldosterone from the adrenal

adult E. granulosus resides in the small bowel of

gland, which ultimately causes the kidney distal

the definitive hosts, dogs or other canids. Gravid

tubule to RETAIN SODIUM, thereby raising blood

proglottids release eggs that are passed in the

volume and blood pressure.

feces. After ingestion by a suitable intermediate

1010. THREE (3%) PERCENT HYDROGEN PEROXIDE: In a 3%

host (under natural conditions: sheep, goat, swine,

solution, hydrogen peroxide is a harmless but very

cattle, horses, camel), the egg hatches in the small

weak antiseptic whose primary clinical use is in the

bowel and releases an oncosphere that penetrates the

cleansing of wounds.

intestinal wall and migrates through the circulatory

1011. ANAEROBES usually cannot grow in the presence

system into various organs, especially the liver and

of O2, and the atmosphere in anaerobe jars, bags, or

lungs. In these organs, the oncosphere develops into

chambers is composed of 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5%

a cyst that enlarges gradually, producing

to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitrogen (N2), and 0% O2

protoscolices and daughter cysts that fill the cyst

1012. Aerosol-induced sputum are collected by

interior. The definitive host becomes infected by

allowing the patient to breathe aerosolized

ingesting the cyst-containing organs of the infected

droplets, using an ultrasonic nebulizer containing

intermediate host. After ingestion, the

NaCl or until a strong cough reflex is initiated.

protoscolices evaginate, attach to the intestinal

1013. ASCARIS EGGS: In the soil, it takes about two

mucosa, and develop into adult stages. (CDC)

to three weeks for eggs to develop into the

a. Definitive host: DOGS (infective stage to DH,

infective stage (embryonation) under favorable

hydatid cyst)

conditions with suitable temperature, moisture and

b. Intermediate host: SHEEP (Infective stage to IH,

humidity. The embryonated eggs can survive in moist

eggs)

shaded soil for a few months to about two years in

c. Accidental intermediate host: MAN

tropical and subtropical areas, but for much longer

d. APOLLON: Found in the IH: HYDATID CYST

in temperate regions. (Belizario)

1019. Increased casts in ATHLETIC PSEUDONEPHRITIS

1014. The mode of transmission of Fasciola hepatica

and in some diuretic therapies.

and F. gigantica is by ingestion of metacercaria

1020. All types of casts may occur in the broad

encysted on edible aquatic plants or by drinking

form. However, considering the accompanying urinary

water with floating metacercariae.

stasis, the most commonly seen broad casts are (1)

1015. FASCIOLA GIGANTICA is the dominant species in

granular and (2) waxy.

the PHILIPPINES, affecting CATTLES and water

1021. Bile-stained broad, waxy casts are seen as the

buffaloes. There are only few human cases reported

result of the tubular necrosis caused by VIRAL

locally.

HEPATITIS.

1022. CHRONIC RENAL FAILURE OR ENDSTAGE RENAL

1030. RA 10912: Continuing Professional Development

DISEASE:

Act of 2016

a. Marked decrease in the glomerular filtration rate

a. It lapsed into law without P’Noy’s signature on

(less than 25 mL/min)

July 21, 2016

b. Steadily rising serum BUN and creatinine values

b. Under President Aquino, Senator Trillanes

(azotemia)

c. MANDATORY for the renewal of the PRC cards of all

c. Electrolyte imbalance

registered and licensed professionals under PRC

d. Lack of renal concentrating ability producing an

d. 45 units for 3 years for Registered Medical

isosthenuric (SG 1.010) urine

Technologists (RMTs)

e. Proteinuria and renal glycosuria

e. 30 units for 3 years for Registered Laboratory

f. Abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY, and (3)

TECHNICIANS (RLTs)

BROAD casts, often referred to as a TELESCOPED URINE

f. Under this law, OFWs are NOT exempted. They can

SEDIMENT

earn CPD units abroad provided that you have

1023. SMOOTH AND RAPID WEDGE SMEAR: Keep the

supporting documents to prove it. The CPD council

spreader slide at a 30 to 40 degree angle and the

for your profession will dictate the equivalency of

edge of the slide firmly against the horizontal

such seminars. (PRC Resolution No. 2016-990 series

slide, push the spreader slide rapidly over the

of 2016)

entire length of the slide. (push spreader slide

g. PRC amended few provisions in the Resolution

RAPIDLY). The tail of the film should be

No. 2013-774 Series of 2013 or the Revised

SMOOTH.

Guidelines on the Continuing Professional

Barbara Brown

1024. RBC indices are used to define the size and

Development (CPD) program for all Registered and

hemoglobin content of RBCs. They consists of MCV,

Licensed professionals through Resolution No. 2016-

MCH and MCHC. The indices are commonly used as an

990 series of 2016.

aid in diagnosing and differentiating anemias.

PS.

(Brown)

1. ALL TYPES of casts can be a broad cast.

1025. The MCH is much less valuable to the clinician

2. Most common type of broad casts are GRANULAR and

than the MCV and MCHC.

WAXY casts.

1026. Although CYTOKINES are produced by many cell

3. But if asked about TELESCOPED SEDIMENTS:

populations (endothelial cells, fibroblasts,

abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY and (3) BROAD

epithelial cells, and others), they are MAINLY THE

casts.

PRODUCTS OF HELPER T CELLS (TH) AND MACROPHAGES.

4. Wedge smear should be SMOOTH and RAPID.

(Henry)

5. Cytotoxicity testing is under HLA testing;

1027. CROHN’S DISEASE: inflammatory bowel disease.

therefore anticoagulant is ACD or heparin. — with

Immune reaction against intestinal bacteria.

Kelly Kinyoun and 49 others.

1028. POLARIZING MICROSCOPY: Polarized light is

1031. ALLELE - one of two or more different genes

obtained by using TWO POLARIZING FILTERS. The light

that may occupy a specific locus on a chromosome.

emerging from one filter vibrates in one plane, and

1032. ANTITHETICAL - referring to antigens that are

a second filter placed at a 90-degree angle blocks

the product of allelic genes (e.g., Kell [K] and

all incoming light, except that rotated by the

Cellano [k]).

birefringent substance.

1033. Amorph - gene that does not appear to produce

1029. TISSUE BLOCK, FIXATION

a detectable antigen; a silent gene, such as Jk, Lu,

Electron microscopy: 1 to 2 sq. mm.

O.

Light microscopy: 2 sq.cm (2 cm x 1 cm) x 0.4 cm

1034. Recessive - type of gene that, in the presence

(thickness or thinness)

of its dominant allele, does not express itself;

expression occurs when it is inherited in the

1047. ICTERUS - condition characterized by yellowish

homozygous state.

skin, whites of the eyes, mucous membranes, and body

1035. Dominant - trait or characteristic that will

fluids caused by increased circulating bilirubin

be expressed in the offspring even though it is

resulting from excessive hemolysis or from liver

carried on only one of the homologous chromosomes.

damage due to hepatitis. Synonym is jaundice.

1036. Codominant - pair of genes in which neither is

1048. KERNICTERUS - form of icterus neonatorum

dominant over the other—that is, they are both

occurring in infants, developing at 2 to 8 days of

expressed.

life; prognosis poor if untreated. This condition is

1037. Phenotype - OUTWARD EXPRESSION OF GENES (e.g.,

due to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin.

a blood type). On blood cells, serologically

1049. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE - can result from a

demonstrable antigens constitute the phenotype,

deficiency of an enzyme that transfers glucuronate

except those sugar sites that are determined by

groups onto bilirubin or from liver immaturity; can

transferases.

result in jaundice that occurs in some infants

1038. Genotype - individual’s actual genetic makeup.

during the first few days of life; also called

1039. Adsorption - providing an antibody with its

NEONATAL JAUNDICE.

corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so

1050. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE of the newborn is a

that the antibody will attach to the antigen,

result of a deficiency in the enzyme glucuronyl

thereby removing the antibody from the serum; often

transferase, one of the last liver functions to be

used interchangeably with absorption.

activated in prenatal life since bilirubin

1040. Elution - process whereby cells that are

processing is handled by the mother of the fetus.

coated with antibody are treated in such a manner as

a. Kernicterus often results in cell damage and

to DISRUPT THE BONDS BETWEEN THE ANTIGEN AND

death in the newborn, and this condition will

ANTIBODY.

continue until glucuronyl transferase is produced.

1041. Bombay Phenotype - occurring in individuals

b. Infants with this type of jaundice are usually

who possess normal A or B genes but are unable to

treated with ultraviolet radiation to destroy the

express them because they lack the gene necessary

bilirubin as it passes through the capillaries of

for production of H antigen, the required precursor

the skin. In extreme cases, some infants require an

for A and B. These persons often have a potent anti-

exchange transfusion.

H in their serum, which reacts with all cells except

c. Because this condition is so serious, bilirubin

other Bombays. Also known as Oh.

levels are carefully and frequently monitored so the

1042. The PARABOMBAY phenotypes are those rare

dangerously high levels of unconjugated bilirubin

phenotypes in which the RBCs are completely devoid

(approximately 20 mg/dL) can be detected and

of H antigens or have small amounts of H antigen

treated.

present.54 RBCs of these individuals express weak forms of A and B antigens, which are primarily detected by adsorption and elution studies. 1043. Ficoll-Hypaque - density-gradient medium used to separate and harvest specific white blood cells, most commonly lymphocytes. 1044. LISS contains glycine or glucose in addition to saline. 1045. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is a common drug used to treat hypertensi on; frequently the cause of a positive direct Coombs’ test result. 1046. RETICULOCYTE or the NEOCYTE (young RBCs).