Questions And Answers Physics

Physics Objective Questions 1. The number 175.00 has how many significant figures? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 2 2. How many basic units are there in the International System of Units? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 3. What prefix is equivalent to 10 to the power of -24? A. yocto B. zepto C. atto D. yotta 4. What prefix is equivalent to 10 to the power of 21? A. yotta B. zetta C. zepto D. yocto 5. The prefix “exa” is equivalent to 10 to the power________. A. 15 B. 18 C. 21 D. 24 6. What is the standard unit of mass? A. Kilogram B. Pound C. Gram D. Newton 7. The International Standard of mass equal to 1kg or 1000 grams; refers to a cylinder of what A. Iridium-cessium B. Platinum-cessium C. Kryptin-cessium D. Platinum-iridium

elements?

8. The “second” is defined as 9,192,631,770 times the period of vibration of radation from what atom? A. Cesium B. Hydrogen C. Helium D. Platinum 9. What is defined as the distance the lights travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second? A. Yard B. Feet C. Meter D. Inch 10. What is the SI unit of work? A. Newton B. Watt C. Newton-second D. Joule 11. What is the SI unit of work? A. Newton B. Watt C. Newton-second D. Joule 12. What is the SI unit of temperature? A. Fahrenheit B. Kelvin C. Celcius D. Rankine

13. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity? A. Candela B. Lumens C. Lux D. Candlepower 14. What is the SI unit of relative density? A. Pa B. N-m C. N-m/s D. Unitless 15. What is the SI unit of pressure? A. Pa B. N-m C. N/m D. N-m/s 16. Which one is equivalent of the unit “pascal”? A.N/mm2 B.N/m2 C. N/m D. N/mm 17. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals? A. 1,000,000 B. 100,000 C. 10,000 D. 1,000 18. In Acoustics, the pressure level is measured in microbar. One microbar is equal to _______N/m. A. 0.0001 B. 0.10 C. 0.001 D. 0.01 19. What is the SI unit of intensity? A. Joule/m2 B. Kg/m2 C. N/m2 D. watt/m2 20. What is the unit of potential difference? A. Watt B. Coulomb C. Volt D. Weber 21. Which of the following is equivalent to a volt? A. Watt/coulomb B. Joule/coulomb C. joule/watt D. watt/joule 22. Which of the following units for measurements is NOT an SI based or derived unit? A. 0C B. Pascal C. Joule D. Kelvin 23. One electron volt is equivalent to_______ joules? A.1.6 x 10-17 B.1.6 x 10-18 C. 1.6 x 10-19 D. 1.6 x 10-20 24. What is the unit of capacitance? A. Farad B. Weber C. Coulomb D. Gauss 25.Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “farad”? A. Coulomb/volt B. Joule/volt C. Joule/coulomb

D. coulomb/joule 26. What is the unit of electric current? A. Volt B. Watt C. Ampere D. Coulomb 27. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “ampere”? A. Joule/second B. Volt/second C. Coulomb/second D. Watt/second 28. What is the unit of resistance? A. Ohm B. Watt C. Volt D. Ampere 29. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following? A. Coulomb/ampere B. Watt/ampere C. Volt/ampere D. Joule/ampere 30. What is the unit of luminous intensity? A. Footcandle B. Lumen C. Candela D. Lux 31. What is the unit of luminous flux? A. Candela B. Lumen C. Lux D. Footcandle 32. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “candela”? A. Lumen/m2 B. Footcandle/steradian C. Lux/steradian D. Lumen/steradian 33. What is the unit of luminous efficiency? A. Lumen/watt B. Lumen/volt C. Lumen/ampere D. Lumen/coulomb 34. What is the unit of illumination? A. Lux B. Lumen C. Candela D. Lumen/watt 35. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units? A. Lumen/cm2 B. Lumen/ C. Lumen/m2 D. Lumen/in2 36. In magnetism, a “Gauss” is a unit of ________ . A. Flux density B. Permeability C. Magnetic flux D. Magnetic line of force 37. What is the unit of kinematic viscosity? A. m2/s B. N/m2-s C. poise/s D. N-m/s 38. Footcandle is equivalent to which combination of units?

A. Lumen/cm2 B. Lumen/ft2 C. Lumen/m2 D. Lumen/n2 39. How many dynes are there in one newton? A.10,000 B.100,000 C. 1,000,000 D. 1,000 40. What is an elemental unit of energy? A. Quartz B. Quark C. Photon D. Quantum 41. What refers to the mass which is accelerated at the rate of one foot per second per second when acted on by a force of one pound? A. Slug B. Erg C. Dyne D. BTU 42. The size of some bacteria and living cells is in the order of ________ . A. Centimeter B. Millimeter C. Nanometer D. Micrometer 43. The size of the largest atom is in the order of _________ . A. Centimeter B. Millimeter C. Nanometer D. Micrometer 44. The mass of a grain of salt is in the order of ___________ . A. Milligram B. Gram C. Microgram D. Nanogram 45. Which one is equivalent to the unit of “joule”? A. Newton-second B. Newton-meter C. Newton-meter per second D. Newton-meter per second squared 46. Which of the following combination of units is called a joule? A. Kg2/m2 B. Kg-m/s2 C. kg-m2/s2 D. kg-m2/s 47. Which one is equivalent to the unit of “watt”? A. Newton-second B. Newton-meter C. Newton-meter per second D. Newton-meter per second squared 48. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts? A.550 B.746 C. 33,000 D. 250 49. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of __________ . A. Work B. Energy C. Power D. Work or energy 50. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of __________ . A. Work B. Energy

C. Power D. Work or energy 51. The unit N-m/s is a unit of _________ . A. Work B. Force C. Power D. Energy 52. The English unit “slug” is a unit of ___________ . A. Mass B. Weight C. Force D. Energy 53. How is sound intensity measured? A. In beats B. In decibels C. In phons D. In sones 54. Which of the following is a unit of sound intensity? A. Dyne/cm2 B. W/cm2 C. Lb/cm2 D. Kg/cm2 55. An electron volt is an energy required by an electron that has been accelerated by a potential many volts? A. 1 volt B. 0.1 volt C. 10 volts D. 0.01 volts

difference of how

56. A “barrel of oil” is equivalent to how many US gallons of petroleum? A. 40 B. 42 C. 44 D. 46 57. What is the derived SI unit of absorbed dose, defined as the absorbed dose in which the energy mass imparted to the matter by ionizing radation?? A. Rem B. Rad C. Gray D. Curie

per unit

58. The unit “Gray” is express in _________ . A. J/m B. J/kg C. J-s/m D. N-s/m 59. What refers to the time interval between successive appearances of the sun at the highest point it reaches in the sky each day? A. Lunar day B. Standard day C. Solar day D. Sideral day 60. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no unit? A. Single vector B. Unit vector C. Dot vector D. Scalar vector 61. What is the purpose of unit vector? A. To describe the direction in space B. To indicate a magnitude without reference to direction C. To serve as comparison with other vectors D. To set a standard among vector 62. What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors? A. Cross product B. Vector product

C. Dot product D. Plus product 63. What is another term for a vector product of two vectors? A. Cross product B. Vector product C. Dot product D. Plus product 64. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is always __________. A. Equal to 1 B. Greater than 1 C. less than 1 D. equal to 0 65. The vector product of two parallel or perpendicular vectors is always __________. A. Equal to 1 B. Greater than 1 C. less than 1 D. equal to 0 66. The vector product of any vector with itself is ________. A. Equal to 1 B. Greater than 1 C. less than 1 D. equal to 0 67. What refers to physical quantities that are completely specified by just a number and a unit or physical quantities that have magnitude only? A. Scalar Quantity B. Vector product C. Dot product D. Vector quantities 68. What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude and direction? A. Scalar Quantity B. Vector product C. Dot product D. Vector quantities 69. Which is not a vector quantity? A. Displacement B. Velocity C. Acceleration D. Time 70. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of mechanics? A. Length B. Mass C. Volume D. Time 71. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of some vector quantity and direction is that of the quantity? A. Vector diagram B. Vector C. Component D. Resultant

whose

72. What is a scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities involved in the of the body? A. Vector diagram B. Vector C. Component D. Resultant

motion

73. In physics, motion is categorized as __________. A. Translational and rotational B. Translational and curvilinear C. Translational, rotational and vibrational D. Translational, curvilinear and rotational 74. The _________ of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time interval divided by the time A. acceleration B. instantaneous speed

interval.

C. average speed D. instantaneous velocity 75. The _________ of a particle is defined as its change in position in some time interval. A. distance B. displacement C. speed D. acceleration 76. The rate at which velocity changes with time is known as ________ . A. acceleration B. instantaneous speed C. average speed D. instantaneous velocity 77. Which quantity is equal to the derivative of the velocity with respect to time? A. instantaneous velocity B. average acceleration C. instantaneous acceleration D. average velocity 78. Which of the following statement is NOT true about acceleration? A. Acceleration is uniform for straight line motion. B. For circular motion, acceleration is constant in magnitude and direction. C. Acceleration is uniform if the velocity changes by equal amount in equal time. D. The average acceleration cannot be use in precise calculations unless the acceleration is uniform. 79. An apparatus for increasing the kinetic energies of charged particles, use for research in nuclear and physics is called a/an ________ . A. accelerator B. acceptor C. thyratron D. Atwood’s machine

particle

80. A weight-and-pulley system used to measure the acceleration due to gravity at earth’s surface by measuring the net acceleration of a set of weights of known mass around a frictionless pulley is called _______. A. accelerator B. pulley system C. Atwood’s machine D. Newton’s machine 81. The ________ acting on an object is defined as the vector sum of all forces acting on the object. A. Net force B. Gross force C. Total force D. Contact force 82. Which of the following is true f the net force is exerted on an object is zero? A. The acceleration is zero and the velocity is zero. B. The acceleration is zero and the velocity remains constant. C. The acceleration is zero and the velocity is variable. D. Both the acceleration and velocity is zero. 83. Since forces behave as vectors, one must use the rules of ________ to obtain the net force on an object. A. vector addition B. vector subtraction C. vector multiplication D. vector division 84. “The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the particle’s kinetic energy”. The statement is known as ________. A. Law of conservation of energy B. Work-energy theorem C. Law of conservation of work D. Total work theorem 85. The _________ of a particle is equal to total work that particle can do in the process of being brought to rest. A. kinetic energy B. potential energy C. total energy D. mechanical energy 86. Work is defined as the product of: A. Force and displacement B. Force and time

C. Displacement and time D. Power and time 87. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done? A. Impulse B. Momentum C. Power D. Energy 88. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an object? A. Impulse B. Force C. Energy D. Work 89. What is the measure of inertia of an object? A. Density B. Weight C. Mass D. Force 90. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its state of rest or of uniform motion? A. Impulse B. Momentum C. Inertia D. Equilibrium 91. “If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest an object in motion will remain in motion at constant velocity”. This statement is the ________. A. first law of motion B. second law of motion C. third law of motion D. d’ Alembert’s principle 92. “The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the acceleration off the object . The direction of the force is the same as that of the acceleration”. This statement is the ______. A. first law of motion B. second law of motion C. third law of motion D. d’ Alembert’s principle 93. “When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the first a force of the same magnitude but in the opposite direction”. This statement is the ________. A. first law of motion B. second law of motion C. third law of motion D. d’ Alembert’s principle 94. Which of the following is the Newton’s law of motion? A. Law of impulse and momentum B. Law of acceleration C. Law of inertia D. Law of reaction 95. What refers to the force with which the earth attracts an object? A. Gravitational pull B. Mass C. Weight D. All of the above 96. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug? A. 11.9 B. 12.5 C. 13.2 D. 14.6 97. What refers to an actual force that arises to opposite relative motion between contacting surfaces? A. Action force B. Reaction force C. Friction D. Drag 98. What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces in contact that prevents motion between them? A. Kinetic friction B. Sliding friction

C. Starting friction D. Static friction 99. What is the maximum value of static friction? A. Starting friction B. Sliding friction C. Kinetic friction D. Dynamic friction 100. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction? A. Kinetic friction is always equal to static friction. B. Kinetic friction is always less than static friction. C. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction. D. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction. 101. What is another term for kinetic friction? A. Dynamic friction B. Starting friction C. Sliding friction D. All of the above 102. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static friction and coefficient of kinetic friction? A. Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic friction. B. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction. C. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction. D. Coefficient of static friction is maybe greater than or less than the coefficient of kinetic friction. 103. Efficiency of the machine is the ratio of: A. power output to power input B. power input to power output C. total work done to total energy D. total energy to total power 104. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its motion? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Rest energy D. Mechanical energy 105. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Rest energy D. Mechanical energy 106. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Rest energy D. Mechanical energy 107. The negative of the work done by the gravity on the body is the ________ of the body. A. negative gravitational energy B. gravitational potential energy C. net gravitational energy D. gravitational kinetic energy 108. In which of the following does sound wave travels faster? A. Liquids B. In vacuum C. In air D. In solids 109. Considering the law of conservation of mechanical energy, which of the following is an example conservative force? A. Comprehensive force B. Elastic force C. Frictional force D. Gravitational force

of non-

110. When the sum of the external forces acting on the system of particles equals zero, the total linear momentum of the system _________. A. becomes zero B. maximizes

C. changes abruptly D. remains constant 111. What will happen to the kinetic energy of a body if its liner momentum is doubled? A. It will increase four times B. It will decrease four times C. It will double D. It will become half the value 112. Which of the following is conserved in measuring the velocity of bullet on impact by using a ballistic pendulum? A. Kinetic energy B. Linear momentum C. Angular momentum D. Dynamic energy 113. What is conserved in an elastic collision? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Rest energy D. Mechanical energy 114. In inelastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is: A. true B. false C. is either true or false, depending upon a colliding body D. is either true or false, depending on the impact of the two colliding bodies 115. When can we say that a collision is completely inelastic collision? A. When the kinetic energy lost is minimum. B. When the kinetic energy lost is conserved. C. When the two colliding objects stick together after impact. D. When the two colliding objects will separate after impact. 116. What will happen to the kinetic energy it is completely inelastic collision? A. It is conserved. B. It is lost of maximum value C. It is gained from the loss of potential energy D. It is lost to minimum value 117. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of: A. relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision B. relative speed before collision to relative speed after collision C. relative speed to absolute speed D. absolute speed to relative speed 118. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision? A. 0 B. 1 C. less than 1 D. greater than 1 119. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision? A. 0 B. 1 C. less than 1 D. greater than 1 120. The coefficient of restitution always applies _________. A. to only one of the colliding objects B. to neither of the colliding objects C. jointly to the colliding objects D. to the bigger colliding objects 121. What refers to a collision between two bodies which occurs in a very infinitesimal interval of time during which they exert a relatively large force on each other? A. Elastic collision B. Explosive collision C. Collision-impact D. Static collision 122. “When the vector sum of the external forces acting on a system of particles equals zero, the total momentum of the system remains constant.” This statement is known as: A. Law of universal gravitation B. Law of conservation of impulse

linear

C. Law of conservation of momentum D. Law of conservation of energy 123. What refers to the product of the forces and the time during which a force acts? A. Impulse B. Momentum C. Power D. Energy 124. Momentum is the product of: A. mass and time B. velocity and mass C. force and time D. force and mass 125. “It is possible simultaneously to determine exactly both the position of an object and its any quantity related to momentum.” This statement refers to the _________. A. uncertainty principle B. Rutherford’s principle C. precession principle D. Thomson’s principle

momentum, or

126. The coefficient of restitution always applies __________. A. to only one of the colliding objects B. to neither of the colliding objects C. jointly to the colliding objects D. to the bigger colliding objects 127. What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of an object moving along a curve path? A. Centrifugal force B. Centripetal force C. Reverse-effective force D. Gravitational force 128. The centripetal force is: A. directed away from the center of the curvature of the path B. directed toward the center of the curvature of the path C. tangent to the curvature of path D. either directed away or toward the center of the curvature of the path 129. You swing a stone tied to a string in a horizontal circular motion. You increase the length of the string to two times its original length. Assuming the same speed, What will happen to the force on the string? A. The force will increase 4 times. B. The force will increase 2 times. C. The force will reduce by one-fourth. D. The force will reduce by one-half. 130. You swing a stone tied to a string in a horizontal circular motion. You increase the speed twice that of the original speed. What effect does it have on the tension of the string? A. The tension is increase eight times B. The tension is increase two times C. The tension remains the same D. The tension is increase four times 131. Two identical satellite are orbiting the Earth in circular orbits. The speed of the first satellite is four times the speed of the second satellite. The orbital radius of the first satellite is approximately ________ of the orbital radius of the second satellite. A. one-fourth B. one-half C. one-eighth D. one-sixteenth 132. What will happen to the gravitational attraction of Earth for the satellite if the distance between the satellite and the center of the Earth is increase by two times? A. It will increase two times. B. It will reduce to one-half. C. It will reduce by one-fourth. D. It will increase four times. 133. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform circular motion to complete an orbit? A. path time B. orbit time C. revolution D. period 134. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in uniform motion is ________ to the radius of its path.

orbiting

A. directly proportional B. inversely proportional C. equal D. not related in any way 135. An old phonograph with a record turning at constant speed. Two flies are on top of the spinning, with one near the outer edge while the other is near the center. The centripetal acceleration of the fly near the edge is _________ the near the center. A. less than B. equal to C. greater than D. either less than or greater than 136. The rate of rotary motion is called? A. angular displacement B. angular motion C. angular velocity D. angular acceleration 137. What refers to the acceleration produced when a particle moves away from its center of rotation? A. Centrifugal acceleration B. Coriolis C.Tangential acceleration D. Centripetal acceleration 138. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by virtue of their __________. A. mass B. density C. weight D. volume 139. “Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance separating them”. This statement is known as: A. Law of conservation of energy B. Law of universal gravitation C. Law of conservation of momentum D. Law of conservation of impulse 140. The gravitational force of the Earth on an object varies of the _________ the distance of the object center of the earth. A. inversely as B. inversely as the square of C. directly as D. directly as the square of

from the

141. What factor is necessary in order to be able to compute the period of a satellite orbiting the earth? A. Shape of the orbit B. Centripetal force in the orbit C. Gravitational force present in the orbit D. Radius of the orbit 142. A rotating body has a kinetic energy. This statement is __________. A. sometimes true B. sometimes false C. always true D. always false D. always false 143. What type of energy is usually transmitted by rotary motion? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Mechanical energy D. Rest energy 144. Angular momentum is the product of _________. A. moment of inertia and linear speed B. moment of area and angular speed C. moment of inertia and angular speed D. moment of area and angular speed 145. “When the sum f the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the total angular momentum of the system remains constant”. This statement is known as: A. Conservation of energy B. Conservation of impulse C. Conservation of linear momentum D. Conservation of angular momentum

146. What particles will experience tangential accelerations? A. Those particles whose angular speed changes B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant C. All particles D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero 147. The _________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of the body is the axis. A. moment of mass B. moment of area C. moment of inertia D. torque

distributed about

148. The _________ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the force and perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis. A. inertia B. mass moment C. torque D. moment 149. When the force act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object us said to be in _________. A. unstable equilibrium B. stable equilibrium C. rotational equilibrium D. translational equilibrium 150. Which of the following is an example of neutral equilibrium? A. A cone balanced on its apex. B. A cone balanced on its base. C. A cone on its side. D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base. 151. Which of the following is an example of stable equilibrium? A. A cone balanced on its apex. B. A cone balanced on its base. C. A cone on its side. D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base. 152. A device that transmits force or the torque is called _________. A. mechanical tool B. machine C. axle D. wedge 153. If a cone is balanced to its apex, it illustrate what type of equilibrium? A. stable equilibrium B. neutral equilibrium C. unstable equilibrium D. translational equilibrium 154. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in _________. A. unstable equilibrium B. stable equilibrium C. rotational equilibrium D. translational equilibrium 155. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine? A. lever B. incline plane C. hydraulic press D. wedge 156. Where is the center of the gravity of an object located? A. It is always inside the object B. It is always outside the object C. It is always at its geometric center D. It maybe sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object. 157. What is defined as the mass per unit volume? A. Density B. Weight C. Relative density D. Specific gravity

the

158. What is defined as the weight per unit volume? A. Density B. Weight C. Relative density C. Relative density D. Specific gravity 159. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one? A. 1000 kg/m2 B. 62.4 lb/ft3 C. 10 g/cm2 D. 9.81 kN/m3 160. Water has its maximum mass density at what temperature? A. 274 K B. 277 K C. 281 K D. 287 K 161. The _________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water? A. density B. weight density C. viscosity D. specific gravity 162. What is another term for specific gravity? A. Density B. Weight density C. Relative density D. Viscosity 163. What is the average pressure of the Earth’s atmosphere at sea level? A. 1.042 bar B. 1.021 bar C. 1.013 bar D. 1.037 bar 164. What principle states that “for a horizontal flow of a fluid through a pipe, the sum of the pressure kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid is constant”? A. Bernoulli’s principle B. Pascal’s principle C. Archimedes principle D. Torricelli’s principle

and the

165. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of the This statement is known as __________. A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem B. Pascal’s principle C. Archimedes principle D. Torricelli’s theorem

fluid”.

166. “The hydrostatic pressure a fluid exerted on an immersed object or on container walls is function fluid depth.” This is known as the _________. A. Hydrostatic paradox B. Pascal’s principle C. Bernoulli’s theorem D. Archimedes principle

only of

167. “The buoyant force of a body immersed in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.” statement is known as _________. A. Hydrostatic paradox B. Archimedes principle C. Bernoulli’s theorem D. Pascal’s principle

This

168. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one? A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem B. Pascal’s principle C. Archimedes principle D. Reynold’s principle 169. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one? A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem B. Pascal’s principle C. Archimedes principle D. Reynold’s principle

170. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure _________. A. pressure of a liquid B. density of a liquid C. Reynold’s number D. viscosity of liquid 171. What is use to determine the type of flow of a liquid? A. Reynold’s number B. Kutter’s number C. Froude’s number D. Bernoulli’s number 172. Reynold’s number is the ratio of _________ to _________ in a liquid. A. inertia force; viscous force B. viscous force; inertia force C. Newtonian force; hydrostatic force D. inertia force; Newtonian force 173. Which of the following most accurately describe the Newtonian fluids? A. Newtonians fluids have varied values of shear strain. B. The shear stress of Newtonian fluids is proportional to strain. C. The shear stress of Newtonian fluids is proportional to the rate of strain. D. The viscosity of Newtonian fluids is zero. 174. Kinematic viscosity is defined as the ratio of absolute viscosity to _________. A. density B. mass C. specific gravity D. specific volume 175. The viscosity force between different layers of a liquid flowing through a tube is __________. A. Proportional to the area of the layer and the velocity gradient. B. Inversely proportional to the area of the layer and the velocity gradient. C. Inversely proportional to the area of the layer and directly proportional to the velocity gradient. D. Proportional to the area of the layer and inversely proportional to the velocity gradient. 176. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of its position is called the _________ of the motion. A. frequency B. oscillation C. period D. amplitude

equilibrium

177. The energy stored in a spring, when a stone and spring is made to oscillate in a vertical direction, neglecting friction is maximum at _________. A. the upper vertical extreme B. the lower vertical extreme C. both the upper and lower vertical extremes D. both the vertical and horizontal extremes 178. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Period D. Oscillation 179. The period of the simple harmonic motion is ___________ its amplitude. A. directly proportional to B. Inversely proportional to C. equal to D. independent of 180. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a body in the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with the magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement? A. Damped harmonic motion B. Pendulum C. Simple harmonic motion D. Damped harmonic oscillation 181. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibration? A. Force B. Period C. Frequency

D. Friction 182. A musical instrument produced one harmonic note that has a certain wavelength and associated frequency. If the wavelength of another harmonic of this note is doubled what will happen to the associated frequency? A. It will be one-half of the original associated frequency. B. It will be four times of the original associated frequency. C. It will be one-fourth of the original associated frequency. D. It will be twice of the original associated frequency. 183. The _________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be stuck without producing a reaction force on its pivot. A. center of gravity B. center of oscillation C. axis of oscillation D. center of mass 184. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure variations? A. Sound B. Resonance C. Wave D. Beat 185. Sound interference is needed to produce what phenomenon? A. Echo B. Resonance C. Beat D. Reverberation 186. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system at a frequency equal to one of its natural frequencies of oscillation? A. Beat B. Resonance C. Doppler’s effect D. Shock 187. In the study of waves, what refers to the efficient transfer of energy that takes place at a natural frequency? A. Beats B. Echo C. Doppler’s effect D. Resonance 188. The fundamental frequency of a standing wave on a string has ________ node(s) and ________ antinode(s). A. one, one B. one, two C. two, one D. two, two 189. Two vibrating sound system are said to be in resonance if ________. A. the frequency of one is an integral multiple of the other B. their frequencies are equal C. their amplitude are equals D. their waveform are similar 190. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose speed exceeds sound. A. Shock wave B. Mach wave C. Beat wave D. Sonic wave

that of

191. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between its source observer? A. Superposition principle B. Shock effect C. Doppler effect D. Wave motion

and an

192. According to Doppler effect, waves emitted by moving object as received by an observer will be __________ if approaching. A. blueshifted B. redshifted C. blackshifted D. whiteshifted

193. According to Doppler effect, waves emitted by moving object as received by an observer will be __________ if receding. A. blueshifted B. redshifted C. blackshifted D. whiteshifted 194. Doppler effects occurs only in what phenomenon? A. Sound B. Electromagnetic C. Both sound and electromagnetic D. Sound, electromagnetic and electrostatic 195. What occurs when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in the direction in the wave travel? A. Longitudinal waves B. Transverse waves C. Wave motion D. Shock waves

which

196. Infrasound refers to sound whose frequencies are below __________. A. 20 Hz B. 30 Hz C. 40 Hz D. 50 Hz 197. Ultrasound refers to sound whose frequencies are above __________. A. 10,000 Hz B. 20,000 Hz C. 30,000 Hz D. 40,000 Hz 198. What occurs when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side to side perpendicular to direction in which the wave travel? A. Longitudinal waves B. Transverse waves C. Wave motion D. Shock waves

the

199. “When two or more waves of the same nature travel past a given point at the same time, the amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitudes of the individuals waves”. This statement is known as ________. A. Match principle B. Doppler principle C. Principle of superposition D. Wave motion principle 200. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has an amplitude greater than that of either of original waves? A. Local interference B. Ordinary interference C. Constructive interference D. Destructive interference

the

201. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has an amplitude less than that of either of waves? A. Local interference B. Ordinary interference C. Constructive interference D. Destructive interference

the

original

202. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is called A. beats B. frequency C. gain D. intensity

_________.

203. What refers to the study of sound and sound waves? A. Sound science B. Acoustics C. Wave science D. Spectrum science 204. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans? A. 10 W/m2 B. 0.1 W/m2

C. 1 W/m2 D. 0.01 W/m2 205. For a 1 kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity of ________ W/m2. A. 10-10 B. 10-11 C. 10-12 D. 10-13 206. How many decibel should a sound be to barely audible? A. 0 B. 1 C. 0.1 D. 1.5 207. Which of the following about the speed of sound is correct? A. The speed of sound in moist air is greater than in dry air. B. The speed of sound increases with the increase of the gas density. C. The speed of sound increases with the density of the medium. D. The speed of sound increases with increasing temperature. 208. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the _________. A. Wave factor B. Supersonic number C. Sonic number D. Mach number 209. “The net electric charge is an isolated system remains constant”. This statement is known as _________? A. Principle of conservation of attraction B. Principle of conservation of charge C. Coulomb’s law D. Principle of superconductivity 210. “The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the magnitudes of changes and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them”. This statement is known as _________? A. Coulomb’s law B. Kirchhoff’s law C. Lenz’s law D. Faraday’s law 211. What states that the line integral of the magnetic flux around a closed curve is proportional to the algebraic sum of electric currents flowing that closed curve? A. Joule’s law B. Ampere’s law C. Kirchhoff’s law D. Faraday’s law 212. What law described the contributions to a magnetic field by an electric current and is analogous Coulomb’s law? A. Balmer’s law B. Biot-Savart law C. Ampere’s law D. Faraday’s law

to

213. What law states that the amount of chemical change during electrolysis is proportional to the change A. Faraday’s first law of electrolysis B. Faraday’s second law of electrolysis C. Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction D. Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induction

passed?

214. What law states that the charge required to deposits or liberates a mass is proportional to the charge ion, the mass and inversely proportional to the relative ionic mass? A. Faraday’s first law of electrolysis B. Faraday’s second law of electrolysis C. Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction D. Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induction

of the

215. “The sense of the induced electromotive force depends on the direction of the rate of change of field.” This is known as __________. A. Faraday’s first law of electrolysis B. Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction C. Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induction D. Faraday’s third law of electromagnetic induction

the

216. “The magnitude of the electromotive force is proportional to the rate of change of the field.” This known as __________. A. Faraday’s first law of electrolysis B. Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction C. Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induction D. Faraday’s third law of electromagnetic induction 217. “An electromotive force is induced in a conductor when the magnetic field surrounding it statement is known as _________. A. Faraday’s first law of electrolysis B. Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction C. Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induction D. Faraday’s third law of electromagnetic induction

is

changes.” This

218. What law states that the electric flux through a closed surface is proportional to the algebraic sum electric charges contained within that closed surface? A. Faraday’s law B. Coulomb’s law C. Gauss law D. Maxwell’s law

of

219. Considering the effects on body currents, what value of electric current (60 Hz, 1 s) will cause cardiac arrest on humans? A. Above 1 A B. Above 2 A C. Above 3 A D. Above 4 A 220. What refers to a region of space at very point of which an appropriate test object would experience a A. Energy field B. Electric field C. Magnetic field C. Magnetic field D. Force field

force?

221. The _________ of an of electric field is the electric potential energy per unit volume associated with it. A. capacitance B. polar energy C. energy density D. dielectric constant 222. What is the unit for electric field strength? A. Newton-meter2 per coulomb B. Newton-meter per coulomb C. Newton per coulomb D. Newton per volt 223.When charge particles flow through a tube which has both an electric field and a magnetic field (perpendicular to the electric field) present in it, only certain velocities of the charged particles are preferred, and will make it undeviated through the tube; the rest will be deflected into the side. What is this effect called? A. Hawking effect B. Einstein effect C. Hall effect D. Gauss effect 224. What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of a capacitor and the potential difference between the plate? A. Resistance B. Inductance C. Capacitance D. Potential difference 225. What refers to the measure of how effective material is in reducing an electric field set up across of it? A. Electronegativity B. Potential difference C. Dielectric constant D. Energy density 226. Which of the following has the highest dielectric constant at room temperature? A. Porcelain B. Teflon C. Transformer oil D. Natural rubber 227. What is the dielectric constant of vacuum at room temperature?

a sample

A. 1 B. 1.01 C. 1.001 D. 1.0001 228. Which of the following materials has the largest electrical resistivity at room temperature? A. Aluminum B. Iron C. Platinum D. Tungsten 229. What is the electrical resistivity of anuealed copper at room temperature in ohm-meter? A. 1.0 x 10-7 B. 1.72 x 10-8 C. 1.59 x 10-8 D. 2.82 x 10-8 230. The potential difference across a battery, a generator or other source of electric energy when it is connected to any external circuits is called its ____________. A. electromechanical force B. electrostatic force C. electromotive force D. internal resistance

not

231. What is defined as the luminous flux per unit areas? A. Luminous intensity B. Luminous efficiency C. Illumination D. Lumen 232. What refers to the brightness of a light source? A. Luminous intensity B. Illumination C. Luminous flux D. Luminous efficiency 233. What is approximate luminous intensity of a candle? A. 1 candela B. 1 lux C. 1 lumen D. All of the above 234. What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a small poll of platinum at its melting point? A. Footcandle B. Candela C. Lux D. Lumen 235. Candela is the fundamental SI unit of luminous intensity defined as the luminous intensity in a given direction of the source that emits monochromoatic protons of what frequency? A. 520 x 10¹¹ Hz B. 530 x 10¹º Hz C. 540 x 10¹² Hz D. 550 x 10¹³ Hz 236. What refers to the total amount of visible light given off by a light source? A. Luminous intensity B. Luminous flux C. luminous efficiency D. Illumination 237. Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls on each square meter of a sphere 1 meter in radius at whose center is a ____ light source that radiates equally well in all directions. A. 0.1 candela B. 1.0 candela C. 10 candela D. 100 candela 238. What is the total luminous flux radiated by a 1 candela source? A. 2π 1m B. 4π 1m C. 8 π 1m

D. π 1m 239. What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light source per watt of power input? A. Luminous factor B. Luminous efficiency C. Luminous intensity D. Illumination 240. Keeping the partial pressure of water vapor constant while increasing the temperature will cause the relative humidity in air to_____. A. stabilize B. reach it saturation point C. decrease its value D. increase its value 241. What is another name for grease-spot photometer? A. Photo-electric photometer B. Joule photometer C. Bunsen photometer D. Spherical photometer 242. What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits visible light when it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation? A. Mercury B. Inert gas C. Phosphor D. Argon 243.What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in an empty space to the speed of light in a medium? A. Index of reflection B. Total internal reflection C. Index of dispersion D. Index of refraction 244. What refers to the ratio of speed of light in an empty space to the speed of light in a medium? A. Relative index of refraction B. Total index of refraction C. Absolute index of refraction D. Critical index of refraction 245. “The ratio of the sine of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal to the ratio of the speeds of light in the two media”. This statement is known as_____. A. Huygen’s principle B. Snell’s law C. Maxwell’s hypothesis D. Doppler’s effect 246. Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to another is deflected at the surface between the two media. What is this phenomenon called? A. Dispersion B. Reflection C. Refraction D. Incidence 247. “Every point of the wave front can be considered as a source of secondary wavelets that spread out in all directions with the wave speed of the medium. The wave front of any time is the envelope of these wavelets”. This statement is known as_____. A. Huygen’s principle B. Snell’s law C. Maxwell’s hypothesis D. Doppler’s effect 248. Which one states that each point in a wave front maybe regarded as a new source of disturbance?

A. Foucalt’s theory B. Huygen’s principle C. Newton’s wave theory D. Hert’z theory of wave motion 249. What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all the waves from a source are in the same phase of oscillation? A. Gamma ray B. Wavefront C. Electromagnetic wave D. Microwave 250. What refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one frequency is split into a corresponding number of different beams when it is refracted? A. Flux B. Refraction C. Reflection D. Dispersion 251. What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the prism? A. Spectrum B. Luminance C. Fecet D. Reflection 252. What is the index of refraction of air? A. 1.3 B. 1.03 C. 1.003 D. 1.0003 253. What is the index of refraction of water? A. 1.33 B. 1.63 C. 1.43 D. 1.53 254. What type of lens deviates parallel light outward as through it originated at a virtual focal point? A. Magnifying lens B. Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D. Microscopic lens 255. What type of lens brings parallel light to a single real focal point? A. Magnifying lens B Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D. Microscopic lens 256. Which one best describes the meniscus lens? A. It has only concave surfaces B. It has only convex surfaces C. It has no concave surfaces and no convex surfaces D. Is has one concave surfaces and one convex surfaces 257. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called? A. Focal index B. Focal factor C. Focal length D. All of the above 258. INoptical system, what refers to the ratio of the image height to the object height? A. Linear magnification

B. Object magnification C. Image magnification D. Height magnification 259. If the linear magnification of an optical system is less than one, it means that: A. the image and the object are of the same size B. the image is larger than the object C. the image is smaller than the object D. the image may be larger or smaller than the object 260. A camera uses what type of lens to form an image of light-sensitive photographic film? A. Magnifying lens B. Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D. Microscopic lens 261.One of the common defects of vision is____ commonly known as nearsightedness. A. hyporopia B. hyperopia C. myopia D. minorpia 262. One of the common defects of vision is____ commonly known a s farsightedness. A. hyporopia B. hyperopia C. myopia D. minorpia 263. What lens is the common used to correct nearsightedness? A. Magnifying lens B. Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D. Microscopic lens 264. What lens is the common used to correct farsightedness? A. Magnifying lens B. Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D.Microscopic lens 265. What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having the different curvatures in different planes? A. Astigmatism B. Myopia C. Hyperopia D. Presbyopia 266. In telescope, what refers to the ratio between the angels subtended at the eye by the image and the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen directly? A. Magnifying power B. Linear magnification C. Angular magnification D.Object magnification 267. What is expected nature of the image if the distance of the object from the lens is beyond two time the focal length when using concave lens? A. Vertical but inverted B. Real, diminished in size and inverted C. Vertical and upright D. Real and enlarged 268. What type of mirror that curves inward its enter and converges parallel light to a single real focal point? A. Convex mirror B. Concave mirror C. Spherical mirror D. Chromatic mirror

269. What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverge parallel light as though the reflected light came from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror? A. Convex mirror B. Concave mirror C. Spherical mirror D. Chromatic mirror 270. In which of the following mirrors is the image always vertical and erect? A. Concave-spherical mirror B. Convex-spherical mirror C. Magnifying mirror D. Diverging mirror 271. Which of the following is TRUE about spherical mirrors? A. The focal length is positive for a concave mirror and negative for a convex mirror B. The object distance is always positive C. The image distance is positive when the image is on the same side of the mirror as the object, negative when on the side opposite the object. D. All of the above 272. What refers to the apparent change in position of a light-emitting object due to the constancy of the speed of light and the motion of the observer relative to the emitted? A. Illusion B. Aberration C. Absorption D. Absorptance 273. Not all rays parallel to the principal axis of a spherical mirror are reflected to a single focus. The rays farther from the axis are reflected to cross the axis nearer to the mirror than close to the axis. What do you call this imperfection? A. Optical illusion B. Optical aberration C. Spherical aberration D. Spherical error 274. Which of the following statements is TRUE about a compound microscope that uses two lenses, namely the eyepiece and the objective lens? A. The focal length of the eyepieces is greater than the objective B. Sometimes, the focal length of the eyepieces and the objective are equal C. Depending on the intent usage, focal length of the objective is made greater than the eyepiece. D. The focal length of the eyepiece is shorter than the objective. 275. What refers to an artificially made polarizing material that transmits light w/ only a single plane of polarization? A. Quartz B. Fiber optic C. Polaroid D. Tourmaline 276. In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce separate images of nearby objects? A. Coherent power B. Brewster’s power C. Polarization power D. Resolving power 277. The resolving power of an optical system is_____ the objective lens of the optical system? A. directly proportional B. inversely proportional C. equal D. no related to 278. What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of obstacles in their paths? A. Coherence B. Reflection

C. Refraction D. Diffraction 279. What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum through the interference of light that is diffracted? A. Diffraction grating B. Polarization C. Coherent waves D. Reflection 280. The polarization behavior of light is best explained by considering light to be a_______. A. charged particle B. transverse wave C. longitudinal wave D. either transverse wave or longitudinal wave 281. the emission of electrons from a metal surface when light is shine on it is called_______. A. Absorption effect B. Spectrum emission C. Quantum effect D. Photoelectric effect 282. What refers to the wave length of a particle given as the ratio of Planck’s constant to momentum? A. Huygen wavelength B. De Broglie wavelength C. Thompson wavelength D. Doppler wavelength 283. What are high-frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast electrons impinge on matter? A. Beta rays B. Alpha rays C. X-rays D. De Broglie waves 284. What is the wavelength range of x-rays in the electromagnetic spectrum? A. 1 pm - 1nm B. 1 nm -500 nm C. 1 pm – 500 nm D. 1 pm – 10 nm 285. What refers to the substance that results when you heat a gas to a very high temperature, consisting now of mixture of electrons and positive ions? A. Liquefied gas B. Quanta C. Plasma D. Quark 286. The fundamental particles that make up matter are divided into two groups namely the particle of matter and the particle that transmit forces. What do the particles of matter called? A. Cations B. Anions C. Fermions D. Quarks 287. What refers to the increase in the measured mass of an object when it is moving relative to an observer? A. Exclusion principle B. Quantum theory of mass C. State of mass D. Relativity of mass 288. The allowed discrete energy level that bound particle may occupy is called _____ energies. A. quantum B. state C. photon D. fermion

289. What is a set of numbers that describes the quantum state of a particle, such as an electron in an atom? A. Fermi number B.Quantum number C. State number D. Dirac number 290. What refers to a particle state of electron that may be described by a set of quantum numbers? A. Quantum state B. Prism C. Fiber optic D. Laser 291. What devised is used for producing a narrow, monochromatic, coherent beam of light? A. Quantum state B. Prism C. Fiber optic D. Laser 292. What refers to the spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an incandescent solid, liquid or gas? A. Light spectrum B. Dispersed spectrum C. Excited spectrum D. Emission spectrum 293. What consists of various wavelengths of light is emitted by an excited substance? A. Excited spectrum B. Light spectrum C. Excited spectrum D. Emission spectrum 294. What consists of various wave lengths of light absorbed by a substance when white lights is passed through it? A. Excited spectrum B. Light spectrum C. Absorption spectrum D. Emission spectrum 295. What is the range of the wave length of light visible to human eye? A. 4000 Angstrom to 9000 Angstrom B. 4000 Angstrom to 8000 Angstrom C. 4000 Angstrom to 7000 Angstrom D. 4000 Angstrom to 6000 Angtstrom 296. Light wave lengths are usually expressed in microns or Angstrom. How many centimeters is equivalent to one Angstrom? A. 10^-6 B. 10^-7 C. 10^-8 D. 10^-9 297. Which law expresses the relationship between heat of body and wavelength? A. Boltmans’ law B. Wien’s law C. Doppler’s law D. Huygen’s law 298. Every electron has a certain amount of angular momentum called its _______. A. spin B. shell C. state D. quantum number 299. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called? A. Focal index

B. Focal factor C. Focal length D. All of the above 300. What does LASER stands for? A. Light amplification by spectral emission of radiation B. Light amplification by state emission of radiation C. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation D. Light amplification by saturated emission of radiation 301. A free falling body is acted upon by which of the following? A. Weight of the body B. Air resistance and gravitational pull C. Gravitational pull D. Air resistance 302. If the forces acting on a falling body balance one another, the body continues to fall apart at a constant velocity. What is this constant velocity called? A. Instantaneous velocity B. Free-falling velocity C. Gravitational velocity D. Terminal velocity 303. The first law of motion is also known as ______. A. Law of acceleration B. Law of inertia C. Law of interaction D. Law of momentum 304. The second law of motion is also known as _____. A. Law of acceleration B. Law of inertia C. Law of interaction D. Law of momentum 305. The third law of motion is also known as______. A. Law of acceleration B. Law of inertia C. Law of interaction D. Law of momentum 306. Air exerts a force that is opposite to the cars motion. What is this force called? A. Reverse effective force B. Terminal force C. Drag Force D. Aerodynamic force 307. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure of human brings? A. Stropomanometer B. Pumpmanometer C. Electromanometer D. Sphygmomanometer 308. What do light, radio waves, microwaves and X-rays have in common? A. These waves were predicted by only one person, James Maxwell. B. These do not need a medium to travel in. C. These waves are all mechanical waves. D. Theses waves are all serendipitous discoveries. 309. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves in 1865? A. Roentgen B. Maxwell C. Tesla D. Doppler 310. What is the velocity of light in meters per second?

A. 3 x 10^6 B. 3 x 10^9 C. 3 x 10 ^7 D. 3 x 10^8 311. What is the sound level of the threshold of pain? A. 100 dB B. 110 dB C. 120 dB D. 130 dB 312. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold of pain? A. 1 B. 10 C. 0.1 D. 0.01 313. What is the intensity of the threshold of hearing in W/m2? A. 10^-12 B. 10 ^-10 C. 10^-8 D. 10^-6 314. What refers to a measure of the energy of sound? A. Intensity B. Loudness C. Pitch D. Sone 315. What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends on the energy in the sound wave? A. Pitch B. Intensity C. Loudness D. Timbre 316. How can loudness of sound be increased? A. By increasing the energy of sound B. By preventing sound waves to spread in different directions. C. By collecting and focusing sound waves at the receiving end. D. All of the choices 317. Which of the following is dependent upon the frequency of sound vibrations? A. Timbre B. Loudness C. Intensity D. Pitch 318. The “Doppler effect” is named after which scientist? A. Christopher Jacques Doppler B. Christian Jacques Doppler C. Christopher Jason Doppler D. Christian Johann Doppler 319. When a person tells that the pitch of your voice is high, he is referring to______. A. the intensity of your voice B. the number of sound waves you are sending out per second C. the loudness of your voice D. the quality of your voice 320. At what intensity level will a noise be considered pollutant in the environment? A. Above 50 dB B. Above 100 dB C. Above 120 dB D. Above 150 dB

321. The velocity of sound in air increase by how many m/s for every 1 degrees C increase in temperature? A. 0.2 B. 0.4 C. 0.6 D. 0.8 322. What is the speed of sound in air at 0 degrees Celsius? A. 300 m/s B. 330 m/s C. 322 m/s D. 338 m/s 323. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than in air? A. Because water has greater density than air B. Because water has greater bulk modulus than air C. Because water has more in terms of number of molecules than air. D. Because water has more in volume than air. 324. What will happen to the wave length if the velocity and frequency of a waver are both reduced to one-half? A. It will double B. It will reduce in half C. It will quadruple D. It will remain the same 325. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. A high-frequency sounds has high pitch B. A high-frequency sound has low pitch C. A high-frequency sound has low energy D. A high-frequency sound has low pitch and low energy 326. What part of the human ear where sound energy is converted into electrical energy? A. Ear drum B. Cochlea C. Tympanum D. Ear canal 327. In which medium do sound waves travel the faster? A. Liquids B. Solids C. Gases D. Vacuum 328. Who provide providence that light and electromagnetic waves have the same nature and that they travel at the same speed and exhibit the same properties such as refraction, reflection and interference? A. Townes B. Maxwell C. Hertz D. Huygens 329. Which of the following has the smallest wave length band? A. Blue B. Indigo C. Green D. Yellow 330. What color has the longest wavelength? A. Orange B. Red C. Yellow D. Green 331. What color has the shortest wavelength? A. Indigo B. Violet

C. Blue D. Green 332. What is the wavelength band of orange? A. 550 nm – 600 nm B. 600 nm – 650 nm C. 650 nm – 700 nm D. 500 nm – 550 nm 333. What is the wavelength band in nanometer of visible light? A. 350-700 B. 350-800 C. 300-700 D. 300-800 334. Considering some typical radiations in and near the visible spectrum, what is the wavelength of near ultraviolet in meters? A. 3.0 x 10 ^-7 B. 4.0 x 10 ^-8 C. 5.0 x 10^-9 D. 6.0 x 10 ^-6 335. What refers to the particle-like packet of electromagnetic energy? A. Photon B. Quanta C. Quark D. Muon 336. What refers to the particles-like packet of thermal radiation? A. Photon B. Quanta C. Muon D. Lepton 337. Using E as energy in photons and h as the Plank’s constant, what equation is used to determine the frequency of a particular color of light? A. h/E B. Eh C. E/h D. Eh/2 338. What is the value of the Planck constant in joule-second? A. 6.238 x 10^-35 B. 6.321 x 10^-32 C. 6.626 x 10^-34 D. 6. 782 x 10^-35 339. What constant describes the relationship between temperature and kinetic energy for molecules of ideal gas? A. Planck constant B. Balmer constant C. Biot constant D. Boltzman constant 340. What is the value of constant of Boltzman constant in joule/Kelvin? A. 1.214521 x 10 ^-22 B. 1.380622 x 10^-32 C. 1.412889 x 10^-34 D. 1.526610 x 10^-25 341. What refers to the electric charge carried by one more of electrons or singly-ionized ions? A. Boltzmann constant B. De Broglie constant C. Faraday constant D. Helmholtz constant

342. Faraday constant is the product of the absolute value of the charge on an electron and the ______. A. Avogadro constant B. Boltzmann constant C. De Broglie constant D. Planck constant 343. What is the value of the Stefan-Boltzmann constant in W/m 2 /K 4? A. 5.6697 x 10^-8 B. 4.6817 x 10^-8 C. 3.8997 x 10^-8 D. 2.7808 x 10^-8 344. What relations us used to measure photons, the energy of the particle of light? A. Einstein’s relation B. Helmholtz’s relation C. De Broglie’s relation D. Planck’s relation 345. What term is used to describe the angular opening of a sphere that encloses the mirror? A. Angle of Curvature B. Focal point C. Aperture D. Vertex 346. What makes the sun visible even before it is in line with the horizon? A. Diffraction B. Reflection C. Refraction D. Diffusion 347. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying degrees and are dispersed into different colors. which of theses colors bends the most? A. Violet B. Red C. Orange D. Green 348. When the white is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the least? A. Violet B. Red C. Orange D Green 349. The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to______. A. diffraction B. reflection C. refraction D. diffusion 350. What refers to the defect in lenses which causes unequal refraction of the different color? A. Chromatic diffraction B. Chromatic polarization C. Chromatic aberration D. Chromatic dispersion 351. What property of a light wave is determined by its wavelength? A. Color B. Shape C. Size D. Density 352. What is diffraction?

A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction. B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors. C. It is the merging of component colors into white light D. Its the absorption of white light in the atmosphere 353. What is dispersion? A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction. B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors. C. It is the merging of component colors into white light D. Its the absorption of white light in the atmosphere 354. What are primary colors? A. Blue, Red and White B. Light colors C. Colors which when combined produce white light D. Blue, Red and Green 355. What device used to measure atmospheric pressure and it consists of a glass tube sealed at one end and filled with mercury and a slide with a vernier scale? A. Bourdon gage B. Aneroid barometer C. Mercury barometer D. Manometer 356. A wave that needs a material medium through which it can travel as it transfers energy? A. Electromagnetic wave B. Radio wave C. Microwave D. Mechanical wave 357. What refers to the band of colors produced when sunlight passes through a prism? A. Light spectrum B. Solar spectrum C. White spectrum D. Visible spectrum 358. What refers to the property of some media to transmit light wave in a diffused matter to make objects behind them undistinguishable? A. Lucidity B. Limpidity C. Transparent D. Translucent 359. What refers to the invisible electromagnetic waves shorter than the visible violet wave but longer than the Roentgen ray? A. Beta ray B. Ultraviolet light C. Alpha ray D. X-ray 360. What refers to the part of the shadow from which all light is excluded? A. Footprint B. Lumbra C. Umbra D. Sunspot 361. The range of the projectile is: A. directly proportional to the gravitational acceleration B. directly proportional to the square of the velocity C. directly proportional to the velocity D. inversely proportional to the velocity 362. Ignoring air resistance, an object falling towards the surface of the Earth has a velocity that is______. A. dependent on the weight of the object B. increasing C. decreasing

D. constant 363. What instrument is used to measure humidity of air? A. Hydrometer B. Hygrometer C. Lactometer D. Radiometer 364. “The radius vector drawn from the to the planet sweeps out equal areas in equal interval of time”. This statement is known as ______. A. Kepler’s first law of planetary motion B. Keplers’ second law of planetary motion C. Kepler’s third law of planetary motion D. Law of universal gravitation 365. “The planet revolve around the earth in elliptical orbits, the sun being one of the foci of the ellipse”. This statement is known as ________. A. Kepler’s first law of planetary motion B. Keplers’ second law of planetary motion C. Kepler’s third law of planetary motion D. Law of universal gravitation 366. “The ratio of the square of the time required by a planet to complete one revolution about the sun to the cube of the distance of the planet to the sun is the same for all planets in the solar system”. This is known as_________. A. Kepler’s first law of planetary motion B. Keplers’ second law of planetary motion C. Kepler’s third law of planetary motion D. Law of universal gravitation 367. Kepler’s second law of motion is based on which of the following? A. Law of universal gravitation B. Law of conservation of angular momentum C. Theory of relativity D. Law of conservation of energy 368. According to Kepler’s laws of planetary motion, what parameter of the planet will always remain constant? A. Gravitation force B. Gravitational resistance C. Angular momentum D. Centrifugal force 369. Kepler’s third law states that the period of a planet’s motion and its distance from the sun as_____. A. radius squared divided by the period squared equals a constant B. radius raised to the 3rd power divided by period raised to the 3rd power equals constant C. radius raise to the 3rd power over the period squared equals to a constant D. radius raised to the 4th power divided by period raised to the 3rd power is a constant 370. According to Kepler’s law of planetary motion. If “t” is the time required by a planet to complete one revolution about the Sun, and “R” is the distance of the planet from the Sun, which one below is a constant value? A. t squared over R squared B. t squared over R raise to the third power C. t raise to third power over R raise to third power D. t raised to third power over R squared 371. Who enunciated the famous three laws of planetary motion? A. James Kepler B. Johannes Kepler C. Joseph Kepler D. Joshua Kepler 372. The velocity of projection of a body which takes it beyond the earth’s gravitational attraction is called______ of the body. A. terminal velocity B. drag velocity C. escape velocity

D. geostationary velocity 373. Which of the following is the law of reflection? A. The angel of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. B. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal to the surface are all in the same plane. C. Neither A or B above D. Both A and B above 374. “The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal to the reflecting surface, lie in the same place.” This is known as________. A. First law of reflection B. Huygen’s law on light C. Newton’s law of reflection D. Second law of reflection 375. The escape velocity is: A. the same for all bodies B. dependent on the mass of the body C. inversely proportional to the gravitational constant D. dependence on the distance of the body from the surface of the earth 376. What is the value of the escape velocity on earth in km/s? A. 11.2 B. 12.1 C. 13.2 D. 14.1 377. What is the value of escape velocity of the Moon? A. 1,200 m/s B. 1,600 m/s C. 2,200 m/s D. 2,400 m/s 378. The speed of sound is______ the density of gas? A. directly proportional to B. inversely proportional to C. independent of D. speed of light divided by 379. When light is incident at the critical angle, it is refracted at what angle? A. 45² B. 60º C. 90º D. 30º 380. The velocity of sound in air is equal to the square root of the ratio of the pressure of the gas to the density of the medium. This equation is known as: A. Maxwell’s formula B. Huygen’s formula C. Laplace formula D. Newton’s formula 381. According to Newton, the velocity of the sound in air is equal to the square root of the ratio of: A. volume of gas density of medium B. density of medium to volume of gas C. pressure of gas to density of medium D. density of medium to pressure of gas 382. Indicate the FALSE statement? A. Sound travels faster in hydrogen than nitrogen B. Sound travels faster in low density gases C. Speed of sound increases with increase in temperature D. Speed of sound in dry air is more than the speed of sound in moist air. 383. The velocity of sound is______ the pressure of gas.

A. directly proportional to B. inversely proportional to C. independent of D. the speed of light divided by 384. At what temperature reading do the Celsius scale and the Fahrenheit scale have the same temperature? A. -40 B. -30 C. -20 D. -25 385. The_____ of the source is the luminous flux per unit area of the source. A. luminous emittance B. luminous efficiency C. luminous intensity D. illumination 386. Brightness as the same as_____. A. luminous emittance B. luminous efficiency C. luminous intensity D. illumination 387. What refers to the ratio of the radiant or luminous flux absorbed by a body to the flux falling on it? A. Luminous emittance B. Absorptance C. Luminous Absorption D. Black body 388. What is monochromatic light? A. Light with only one color B. Light with only one wavelength C. Light with only one color and one wavelength D. Light with many colors 389. What is the three-dimensional image of an object illuminated with a broad band of coherent light? A. Hologram B. Polygram C. Opaque image D. Transluscent image 390. In opaque material A. light is able to pass through B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat C. light is partially absorbed D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat 391. In translucent material A. light is able to pass through B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat C. light is partially absorbed D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat 392. In transparent material A. light is able to pass through B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat C. light is partially absorbed D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat 393. What refers to the property of transparent material which is an inverse measure of the speed of light through the material? A. Optical density B. Optical wave length C. Optical frequency

D. Optical index 394. The ratio of the speeds of light in two different media is known as ______. A. index of refraction B. index of diffraction C. relative index of refraction D. index of diffusion 395. What occurs when two waves combine so that one subtracts from the other? A. Interference B. Superposition C. Reinforcement D. Polarization 396. What type of waves is produced in the stem when a tuning fork vibrates? A. Transverse wave B. Longitudinal wave C. Neither transverse wave nor longitudinal wave D. Both transverse wave and longitudinal wave 397. The moment of inertia of an object is dependent on which of the following? A. The object’s size and wave B. The object’s mass C. The location of the axis of rotation D. All of the above 398. Which of the following statements about center of gravity is TRUE? A. it may be the outside the object B. it is always at its geometrical center C. it is always in the interior of the object D. it is sometimes arbitrary 399. A chromatic scale is a musical scale build up how many major chords? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 400. A chromatic scale is a diatonic scale with how many added half tones? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 401. What refers to two colors which combine to form white light? A. Complementary colors B. Secondary colors C. Primary colors D. Elementary colors 402. A spectrum consisting of a wide range of unseparated wavelength is called _______. A. visible spectrum B. continuous spectrum C. emission spectrum D. discontinuous spectrum 403. Mechanical energy is conserved provided that______ work is done by non conservative forces. A. either positive or negative B. no positive C. no negative D. no net 404. When sunlight passes through a slit and is dispersed by a prism, there occur superimposed on the continuous band of colors, a number of sharp dark lines that correspond to individual images of the slit. What do you call these lines?

A. Prismatic lines B. Chromatic lines C. Fraunhofer lines D. Spectrum lines 405. The six color of which sunlight is composed are called_______A. secondary colors B. primary colors C. complementary colors D. elementary colors 406. A spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an incandescent solid, liquid and gas is called _____. A. visible spectrum B. continuous spectrum C. emission spectrum D. discontinuous spectrum 407. What is the type of force which binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an atom? A. Drag force B. Bind force C. Exchange force D. Intact force 408. The “f” number of lens is the ratio of the: A. focal length of the lens to the effective aperture B. effective aperture to the focal length of the lens C. magnifying power of lens to effective aperture D. effective aperture to magnifying power of the lens 409. What refers to the length of time during which half of a given number of radioactive nuclei will disintegrate? A. active life B. half cycle C. half life D. half period 410. What is defined as the spontaneous uncontrollable disintegration of the nucleus of an atom with the emission of particles and rays? A. Nuclear disintegration B. Fusion C. Fission D. Radioactivity 411. An isotope is said to be “radioactive” if its atomic number is ______. A. between 60 and 63 B. less than 60 C. greater than 83 D. between 53 and 73 412. What refers to the number if disintegration per second which occur in a radioactive source? A. Life cycle B. Activity C. Radioactivity D. Radiation 413. What is the SI unit of activity? A. Rem B. Becquerel C. Curie D. Rad 414. What is the SI unit of biological equivalent dose? A. Sievert B. Curie C. Rem

D. Becquerel 415. What refers to a measure of radiation that considers the biological effect resulting from the radiation? A. Rem B. Roentgen C. Curie D. Rad 416. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a musical tone source? A. Treble B. Bass C. Octave D. Fundamental 417. What is an electromagnetic radiation of very short wavelength emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive atom? A. Beta ray B. Alpha ray C. Gamma ray D. X-ray 418. What is the typical wavelength of gamma rays? A. 10^-10 m B. 10^-11 m C. 10^-12 m D. 10^-13 m 419. What is the frequency of gamma rays in Hertz? A. 10^19 B. 10^20 C. 10^21 D. 10^22 420. What is an instrument used to detect and measure radioactivity? A. Edison counter B. Radioactive counter C. Fraunhofer counter D. Geiger counter 421. What refers to the fundamental and the tones whose frequencies are whole number multiples of the fundamentals? A. Harmony B. Beats C. Trebles and Bass D. Harmonics 422. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit images having wavelengths characteristics of the atoms parent is called______. A. line spectrum B. continuous spectrum C. slit spectrum D. image spectrum 423. What is an instrument used to determined the mass of amount particles? A. Mass indicator B. Mass spectrograph C. Mass counter D. Mass tectnograph 424. Which of the following is the fundamental atomic constant? A. Velocity of light B. Mass and change of electron C. Planek’s constant D. All of the above 425. What is a nucleon?

A. A proton in the nucleus of an atom B. An electron in the nucleus of an atom C. A neutron in the nucleus of an atom D. A proton or a neutron of an atom 426. What is a glass bottle used to determine the specific gravity of liquids? A. Beaker B. Flask C. Pycnometer D. Graduated cylinder 427. What is an instrument used to determine the angle of rotation of the plane of polarized light? A. Polariscope B. Polarimeter C. Polargraph D. Polargram 428. What refers to the property of sound waves which depends on the number of harmonics present and on their promiaence? A. Pitch B. Quality C. Harmonic D. Fundamental 429. What refers to the failure of one set of color receptors in the eye to be stimulated? A. Retinal failure B. Retinal fatigue C. Pupil imperfection D. Astigmatism 430. The theory that the retina of the eye is provided with three of receptors, each of which is sensitive to one of the three primary colors is known as ________. A. True color vision theory B. Young-Helmholtz color vision theory C. Primary vision theory D. Yong-Huygens primary vision theory 431. What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena which is supported by abundant data? A. Theory B. Hypothesis C. Axiom D. Conclusion 432. A thoroughly tested model that explains why experiments give certain result is a_______. A. scientific observation B. scientific law C. theory D. hypothesis 433. A tempered scale is a musical scale with______ equal frequency ratio intervals between the successive notes of an octave. A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12 434. What is a unifying theory applicable to the divergent phenomena of light which assume that the transfer of energy between light and matter occurs in discrete quantities proportional to the frequency of the energy transferred? A. Quantum theory B. Radioactive theory C. Nuclear they D. Quark theory 435. In nuclear physics, protons and neutrons, being baryons consists of how many quarks?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 436. In nuclear physics, alpha particles consist of _____ proton(s) and _____ neutron(s). A. 1, 1 B. 2, 2 C. 3, 3 D. 4, 4 437. What is the unit charge of alpha particles? A. + 2 B. – 2 C. + 1 D. – 1 438. Alpha particles travel at what speed compared to the speed of light? A. 1/5 the speed of light B. 1/2 the speed of light C. 1/10 the speed of light D. 1/20 the speed of light 439. Who proposed that part of the energy of beta particles is carried away by another particle called neutrino? A. Wolfgang Pauli B. Neils Bohr C. Max Planck D. Ernest Rutherford 440. The number of electro neutrinos that reach the Earth from the sun is smaller in number than what has been absorbed. This is due to what effect? 441. In nuclear physics, the used fuel rods from a nuclear reactor contain how many percent of usable uranium and plutonium? A. 90% B. 92% C. 94% D. 96% 442. What refers to a quantum mechanic principle with the consequence that the position and momentum of an object cannot be precisely determined? A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle B. Bose uncertainty principle C. Helmholtz uncertainty principle D. Hugen’s uncertainty principle 443. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle is used to determine the _______. A. total number of electrons B. number of orbiting electrons in each orbit C. number of electronegative ions D. size of the atom 444. According to the Plate Tectonic Theory, the spreading of sea floor takes place at what boundary? A. total number of electrons B. Divergent boundary C. Fault boundary D. Base boundary 445. The time is 2:00 P.M. What does P.M. mean? A. Post midnight B. Post morning C. After the meridian D. Before the meridian 446. The time is 8:00 A.M. What does A.M. mean?

A. Post midnight B. Post morning C. After the meridian D. Before the meridian 447. How many times a year will the sun appears directly above the equator? A. Once B. Twice C. Four times D. Twelve times 448. What is approximate radius of the sun? A. 6.960 x 10 ^8 m B. 6.980 x 10^9 m C. 6.980 x 10^10 m D. 6.980 x 10^11 m 449. The expansion or collapse of the universe into another “big bang” is dependent on the _______. A. density of matter in the universe B. presence of a number of black holes C. age of galaxies D. all of the above 450. The mass of a nucleus is always less than the combines mass of its constituent particles by an amount called ______ which is equivalent to the nuclear binding energy. A. point defect B. mass defect C. volume defect D. weight defect 451. An increase in temperature of a reaction will result to an increase in the: A. kinetic energy of the molecules B. activation energy C. number of collisions D. all of the above 452. In nuclear physics, most of the energy liberated during fission appears: A. as kinetic energy of the emitted neutrons B. as alpha rays C. as kinetic energy of the fission fragments D. as gamma rays 453. What will happen if a convex lens is immersed in a liquid whose refractive index is greater than that of gas? A. It will act like a magnifying lens B. It will act like a convergent lens C. It will act like a spherical lens D. It will act like divergent lens 454. For particles falling slowly through a viscous fluid, the differential equation of motion and its solution are derived from_______. A. Reynold’s theorem B. Bernoulli’s theorem C. Newton’s first law D. Newton’s second law 455. A satellite moving around the earth with uniform speed has_______. A. variable acceleration B. zero acceleration C. uniform acceleration D. increasing acceleration 456. What is the viscosity of water in poiseuille at 0 degrees Celsius? A. 1.2 x 10³ B. 1.8 x 10-³ C. 1.4 x 10-³

D. 1.6 x 10-³ 457. In nuclear physics, what is the equivalent energy of one hydrogen atom? A. 937.9 MeV B. 938.8 MeV C. 939.7 MeV D. 936.8 MeV 458. Which of the following quantities will not change when the amplitude of a system moving in simple harmonic motion is increased to twice its original value? A. Potential energy B. Kinetic energy C. Maximum energy D. Period 459. Which of the following is the unit of kinetic viscosity? A. ft² /s B. ft/s C. ft/s² D. ft-s 460. The total mechanical energy of an object is proportional to the_______. A. speed of the object B. square of the speed of the object C. mass of the object D. height of the object 461. What is a natural unit for electron magnetic dipole moment used in atomic physics? A. Rutherford magneton B. Einstein magneton C. Bohr magneton D. Gauss magneton 462. The magnitude of an electron’s spin magnetic moment is approximately how many Bohr magneton? A. 0.1 B. 1.0 C. 10 D. 100 463. What refers to the effect that is due to the enhancement of a spark discharge caused by passing ultraviolet light to promote ionization? A. Hertz effect B. Luminous effect C. Sparking effect D. Ultraviolet effect 464. What will happen to the kinetic energy of a body if you increase the speed of the body two times? A. It will reduce to half B. It will increase 4 times C. It will double D. It will reduce to one-fourth 465. Which of the following lenses resembles that of a binocular? A. Galilean telescope B. Terrestrial telescope C. Astronomical telescope D. All of the above 466. What do you call the part of the human ear that connect sound energy into electrical energy and sends to the brain as nerve pulses? A. Ear follicles B. Ear drum C. Tympanic membrane D. Cochlea

467. In capillarity, what is expected to happen when the adhesive force is greater than the cohesive force? A. The liquid flows slowly B. The liquid flows freely C. The liquid tends to stick to the solid D. All of the above

Physics Problems 1. Find the rate at which pulses will propagate along a string that has a mass per unit length of 150 grams/meter when C. J-s/m it is under a tension of 50 N? A. 15.39 m/s B. 16.74 m/s C. 17.12 m/s D. 18.26 m/s 2. A horizontal string 4 m long has a mass of 20 grams. What is the tension on the string if the wavelength of a 100 Hz wave on the string is 40 cm? A. 822 N B. 800 N C. 780 N D. 792 N 3. What is the speed of a sound in air at 0º Celsius? A. 322.65 m/s B. 333.718 m/s C. 330.281 m/s D. 331.671 m/s 4. What is the velocity of sound at room temperature which is at 27º Celsius? A. 347.1 m/s B. 345.9 m/s C. 346.8 m/s D. 348.2 m/s 5. What is the frequency of a 40 cm sound wave in air? Speed of sound in air is 332 m/s? A. 825 Hz B. 830 Hz C. 835 Hz D. 840 Hz 6. A sound wave on a certain material has a wavelength of 10 cm and a frequency of 2000 Hz. What is the velocity of the sound wave? A. 202 m/s B. 208 m/s C. 212 m/s D. 200 m/s 7. The world famous University of Visayas chorale consists of 25 singers, including its lead soloist, all of whom can sing with the same intensity. Its lead soloist sings a certain stanza of the contest piece and then is joined by the rest of the group for the repeat of the stanza. Find the difference in the sound intensity level of the two instances A. 13.98 dB B. 14.62 dB C. 15.32 dB D. 16.82 dB 8. A jet plane is flying at Mach 4.0, carries a sound source that emits 800 hz signal. Assuming that he listener is directly at the jet plane’s path, what sound frequency is heard before the jet plane pass the listener? A. 1400.00 Hz B. 1366.66 Hz C. 1333.33 Hz D.1420.50 Hz

9. A jet plane is flying at Mach 4.0, carries a sound source that emits 800 hz signal. Assuming that he listener is directly at the jet plane’s path, what sound frequency is heard after the jet plane pass the listener? A. 571.43 Hz B. 574.34 Hz C. 576.33 Hz D. 587.12 Hz 10. A light ray is incident at an angle of 20° on the surface between air and water. At what angle does the refracted ray make with the perpendicular to the surface when the ray is incident from the airside? Use index of refraction for air as 1.000 while water 1.333. A. 13.12º B. 13.76º C. 14.26º D. 14.87º 11. A light ray is incident at an angle of 25° on one side of a glass plate. At what angle will the light ray emerges from the other side of the glass plate? Index of refraction of glass and air are 1.6 and 1.0, respectively. A. 14.3º B. 15.3º C. 16.3º D. 12.3º 12. Find the angle of refraction of light as a beam of parallel light enters a block of ice at an incident angle of 35 degrees. Use index of refraction of air and ice as 1.0 and 1.31, respectively. A. 33º B. 32º C. 31º D. 30º 13. What is the index of refraction of a certain medium if the speed of light in that medium is only half the speed of light in a vacuum? A. 2.00 B. 1.85 C. 2.21 D. 1.80 14. A flint glass plate (index of refraction= 1.8) has a thickness of 20 mm. how long will it take for a pulse of light to pass through the glass plate? A. 4.2×10ˉ¹ºs B. 2.2×10ˉ¹ºs C. 1.2×10ˉ¹ºs D. 3.2×10ˉ¹ºs 15. A ray of light passes from heavy flint glass to water. What is the critical angle for this ray of light to pass the glass? Use index of refraction of heavy flint glass and water as 1.650 and 1.33, respectively. A. 50.81° B. 51.71° C. 52.81° D. 53.71° 16. A light ray passing through air, strikes a glass surface at an angle of 50 from the normal surface. What is the angle between the glass surface and the reflected light ray? A. 42° B. 36° C. 38° D. 40° 17. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 500 lumens. The light is distributed over 30% of a sphere. What is the luminous intensity from the light source? A. 132.6 candles B. 133.7 candles C. 134.8 candles D. 135.9 candles 18. A 100-watt incandescent lamp has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 80 candles. What is the total luminous flux radiated by the lamp?

A. 1004.4 lumens B. 1005.3 lumens C. 1006.6 lumens D. 1007.5 lumens 19. A 100-watt lamp has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 80 candles, what is the luminous efficiency of this lamp? A. 10.053 lumens/s B. 11.700 lumens/s C. 12.046 lumens/s D. 13.072 lumens/s 20. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 2000 lumens. What is the total illuminance at a distance of 1.5 m if the light source is distributed uniformly over a hemisphere? A. 79.61 lm/m² B. 78.2 lm/m² C. 77.1 lm/m² D. 76.5 lm/m² 21. what is the illumination on a surface 6 feet from a 100-cd source if the surface makes an angle of 20° with the rays? A. 0.82 lm/ ft² B. 0.64 lm/ ft² C. 0.73 lm/ ft² D. 0.95 lm/ ft² 22. A light bulb is use to light a bunker 9 feet below. A man stands on the floor of the bunker 2 feet from the spot directly below the light bulb. What is the illumination on the floor around the man if the luminous intensity is 100 candles? A. 1.32 foot-candles B. 1.26 foot-candles C. 1.18 foot-candles D. 1.04 foot-candles 23. Find the distance from which a 30-cd lamp provides the same illumination as a standard 100-cd lamp placed 15 feet from the screen? A. 8.22 ft B.8.86 ft C. 9.12 ft D. 9.43 ft 24. After passing through an analyzer, a beam of polarized light has intensity of 1/10 of its initial intensity. Find the angle between the axis of the analyzer and the initial amplitude of the beam. A. 72.78° B. 71.57° C. 70.67° D. 69.80° 25. Find the location of the image of an object placed 10 cm to the left of the lens that has a focal length of 6 cm. A. 13 cm B. 15 cm C. 12 cm D. 14 cm 26. An object is placed 8 cm from the lens with the focal point of 10 cm. where is the image located at the lens? A. - 30 cm B. - 35 cm C. - 40 cm D. - 45 cm 27. A converging lens of focal length is 15 cm is placed 30 cm in front of a screen. At what distance should the object be placed in order that the image will appear exactly on the screen? A. 30 cm B. 35 cm C. 40 cm D. 45 cm

28. A double convex lens has faces of radii 15 cm and 30 cm in front of a screen. When an object is 20 cm from the lens, a real image is formed 25 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of this double convex lens? A. 12.81 B. 12.12 C. 11.81 D. 11.11 29. A converging lens of focal length of 10 cm forms images of luminous object on a screen located 40 cm from the object. Find the location of the object from the lens. A. 24 cm B. 22 cm C. 20 cm D. 18 cm 30. A glass lens (refracted index of 1.5) has a convex surface of radius 15 cm and a concave surface of radius 30 cm. find the focal length of the lens. A. 50 cm B. 45 cm C. 40 cm D. 35 cm 31. A double convex lens has faces of radii 20 cm and 24 cm. what is the refractive index of the lens material if an object 30 cm from the lens, will from a real image 45 cm from the lens? A. 1.606 B. 1.732 C. 1.818 D. 1.910 32. A Plano-convex lens has a focal length of 30 cm, what is the radius of the convex sufaceif its index refraction is 1.55? A. 15.5 cm B. 16.5 cm C. 18.5 cm D. 17.5 cm 33. An object is placed 10 cm to the left of the lens that has focal length of 6 cm. what is the magnification of the lens? A. -1.0 B. -1.5 C. -2.5 D. -2.0 34. A lens with a focal length of 0.6 cm is used as the objective in a microscope whose eyepiece has a focal length of 1.8 cm. if the image distance is 15 cm; find the magnification of this microscope? A. – 343.18 B. – 345.89 C. – 340.12 D. – 347.22 35. A concave having a mirror has a focal length of 40 cm. how far away from it should one’s face be for the reflected image to be erect and twice its actual size? A. 18 cm B. 20 cm C. 22 cm D. 24 cm 36. Ms. Kyamko, a farsighted person, cannot see an object when the object is closer than 1 m from her eyes. In order for him to read a letter 30 cm away, a correcting lens is necessary. What should be the power of the correcting lens? A. 3.82 diopters B. 3.28 diopters C. 2.82 diopters D. 2.32 diopters 37. A Plano convex lens of focal length 5 cm is used in a reading lamp to focus light from a bulb on a book. If the lens is 60 cm from the book, how far should it be from the bulb filament?

A. 5.9 cm B. 5.5 cm C. 4. cm D. 6.4 cm 38. Find the value of rest energy of electron equivalent to its rest mass. A. 0.672 MeV B. 0.483 MeV C. 0.589 MeV D. 0.512 MeV 39. Find the frequency of a photon having energy of 3 eV? A. 724 THz B. 732 THz C. 741 THz D. 755 THz 40. NASA spaceship moves away from the earth at a velocity of 0.8c with respect to the earth. A rocket is launched from the spaceship in the direction away from the earth. what is the velocity f the rocket with respect to the earth if it attains a velocity of 0.6c with respect to the spaceship? A. 0.834c B. 0.946c C. 0.712c D. 0.905c 41. A uniform steel beam is 12 feet long is suspended from one end by a construction crane. Determine the period of oscillation of the beam. A. 3.13 sec B. 4.13 sec C. 5.13 sec D.6.13 sec 42. When the ball is suspended from a spring, the spring stretches by 8 cm, what is the frequency of the ball if its oscillate up and down? A. 2.8 Hz B. 2.3 Hz C. 1.4 Hz D. 1.7 Hz 43. A 5-lb weight hangs at the end of the spring (k=30 lb/ft). at what frequency will it vibrate if the weight is displaced slightly and released? A. 2.86 Hz B. 2.46 Hz C. 1.46 Hz D. 1.86 Hz 44. For a pendulum to have a period of 2 seconds, it must have a length of how many feet? A. 2.42 ft B. 2.86 ft C. 3.86 ft D. 3.26 ft 45. The Mariana trench, which is also known as Philippine deep measures 10,863 m depth. What is the pressure at the bottom of the Marian trench? Use specific gravity of water= 1.03 A. 1.320×10 pa B. 1.432×10 pa C. 1.098×10 pa D. 1.500×10 pa 46. What is the absolute in Pascal’s if a pressure gauge registers 60 psig in a region where the barometer is 14.30 psia? A. 530128 pa B. 512283 pa C. 541290 pa D. 521830 pa

47. An iceberg (sp. Gr. = 0.92) floats in seawater (sp. Gr. = 1.03). What percentage is the visible volume (volume of iceberg above the surface) to the total volume of the iceberg? A. 85% B. 91% C. 87% D. 89% 48. A ships anchor (y= 480 lb/ft³) is submerge in seawater (y= 64 lb/ft³) Determine the amount of force needed to lift the anchor if it weighs 610 lb in air? A.518.32 lb B. 528.72 lb C. 538.62 lb D. 532.90 lb 49. A 2000-kg truck accelerates from 20 kph to 120 kph in 10 seconds. Find its engines power output in watts. A. 2666 watts B. 2999 watts C. 2888 watts D. 2777 watts 50. The elevator at excel review centers building is powered by an electric motor with an output of 10 kW. Determine the minimum time required for it to rise the 18m ground floor to roof deck, if the total mass of the loaded elevator is 800 kg. A. 13.22 sec B. 14.13 sec C. 15.68 sec D. 16.80 sec 51. During a race, Jan Michael’s sports car develop a 250 hp at 4000 rpm.What is the amount of torque exerted on the crankshaft? A. 328.25 ft-lb B. 342.78 ft-lb C. 332.12 ft-lb D. 350.80 ft-lb 52. Tiger Woods hit a golf ball at a velocity of 80 m/s. the head of his club was in contact with 50 g ball for .40 ms. what is the average force acting on the golf ball during impact? A. 25 kN B. 20 kN C. 15 kN D. 10 kN 53. The tennis rocket is in contact with a 60-g tennis ball for 0.7 ms and as a result the ball flies off a speed of 80 m/s. What is the average force acting on the ball during impact? A. 6583.29 N B. 6659.30 N C. 6753.21 N D. 6857.14 N 54. A marksman holds a 3.5 kg rifle loosely in his hands and fires 5.0 g bullet onto the air with muzzle velocity of 250 m/s. find the rifles recoil velocity? A. – 0.277 m/s B. – 0.357 m/s C. – 0.489 m/s D. – 521 m/s 55. An astronaut in orbit outside an orbiting space station throws away a 0.3 kg stone at a speed of 8 m/s. how far away from the space station will the astronaut be after 30 minutes if his mass is 120 kg (suit included). A. 36 m B. 42 m C. 32 m D. 46 m 56. An apple can provide a person about 20000 J of work. To what height can a 50 kg man climb upstairs if he eats one apple?

A. 36.8 m B. 38.6 m C. 40.8 m D. 42.6 m 57. Using a wheel ad axle, a 500 N load can be raised by a force of 60 N applied to the rim of the wheel. What is the efficiency of the machine if the radii of the wheel and axle are 80 cm and 5 cm, respectively? A. 50% B. 52% C. 54% D. 56% 58. A rubber ball is dropped to the floor from a height of 3 m. it rebounds to a height of 1.8 m. What is the coefficient of restitution? A. 0.625 B. 0.825 C. 0.665 D. 0.775 59. A 70 kg man puts a 150 kg of metal block under the pan of his weighing scale. He then stands on the weighing scale. By how much does this increase of reading of the scale if the distance between the centers of mass of man and the metal is 0.6 m? A. 0.000198 g B. 0.000385 g C. 0.000585 g D. 0.000698 g 60. At what height above the surface of the earth will your weight be half your weight in the surface of the earth? Radius of earth= 3960 miles. A. 5800 miles B. 5700 miles C. 5600 miles D. 5500 miles 61. An object weighs 150 lbs on the earth’s surface. At what height about the surface of the earth would it way half its original weight? Use radius of earth, re= 3960 miles. A. 1340 miles B. 1440 miles C. 1540 miles D. 1640 miles