Reinforcement V. 3.0: Sushmita Mae Rose R. Contreras #roadtormt2017

Reinforcement
 v. 3.0 SUSHMITA MAE ROSE R. CONTRERAS #ROADTORMT2017

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 1. Reference method for quantitation of lipoproteins a. Ultracentrifugation b. Abell Kendall c. Modified Van Handel and Zilversmith d. Hexokinase

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 2. Process by which the fluorescence of an analyte is reduced due to the excited molecule losing some of its energy by interacting with other substances in solution is known as a. ionization b. quenching c. phosphorescence d. self-absorption

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 3. Most specific method for ALP measurement that uses p-nitrophenyl phosphate as substrate a. Bodansky b. Bessy, Lowry & Brock c. Klein, Babson & Read d. Bowers & McComb

Bow and Beso for PNP

Methods

Substrate

End Products

Bodansky Shinowara Jones

Beta-glycerophosphate

Inorganic phosphate + glycerol

Phenylphosphate

Phenol

PNPP

p-nitrophenol or yellow nitrophenoxide ion

Phenolphthalein diphosphate

Phenolphthalein red

Alpha naphthol PO4

Alpha naphthol

Reinhart King & Armstrong Bessy, Lowry & Brock Bowers & McComb Huggins & Talalay

Moss Klein, Babson & Read

Buffered phenolphthalein Free phenolphthalein PO4

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 4. Direct injection of a sample into a very small diameter tubing, thus minimizing lateral diffusion best describes a. continuous flow analysis b. flow-injection analysis c. automatic clinical analysis d. centrifugal analysis

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 5. Part of a spectrometer that minimizes unwanted or stray light a. light source b. entrance slit c. exit slit d. monochromator Entrance stray Monochrom WL Exit bandpass

Test Your Memory: True/ False F 1. Ultracentrifugation is the reference method for F 2. T 3. F 4. T 5.

measurement of cholesterol. In quenching, the fluorescence of an analyte is increased. Susbtrate for Bessy, Lowry, Brock method is PNPP In flow-injection analysis, air is injected into each stream as small air bubbles to prevent mixing between samples Entrance slit minimizes stray light

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 6. The following exciter lamps provide ultraviolet light except a. mercury b. deuterium c. xenon d. tungsten MDX: UV

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 7. Driving force of the bicarbonate buffer system is a. bicarbonate b. carbon dioxide c. carbonic acid d. carbonic anhydrase

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 8. Which of the following anticoagulants inhibits enolase and urease? a. fluoride b. EDTA c. oxalate d. citrate

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 9. At room temperature, glycolysis decreases glucose by a. 7 mg/dL/hour b. 5 mg/dL/hour c. 3 mg/dL/hour d. 2 mg/dL/hour 7 rooms 2 refrigerators

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 10. Which of the following glycogen storage disease is associated with branching enzyme deficiency? a. Pompe b. Von Gierke c. Cori Forbes d. Andersen

Disease

Deficient Enzyme

Mnemonic

I Von Gierke

Glucose-6-phosphatase

GG

II Pompe

Lysosomal α glucosidase PoLys

III Cori

Debranching enzyme

CD

IV Andersen

Branching enzyme

AB

V McArdle

Muscle phosphorylase

MM

VI Hers

Liver phosphorylase

LivHer

Disease

Deficient Enzyme

I Von Gierke

Glucose-6-phosphatase

II Pompe

Lysosomal α glucosidase

III Cori

Debranching enzyme

IV Andersen

Branching enzyme

V McArdle

Muscle phosphorylase

VI Hers

Liver phosphorylase

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 11. Conversion factor from BUN to urea a. 0.357 b. 0.467 c. 2.14 d. 6.25

Factor

Conversion

0.357

BUN CU to SI

0.467

Urea to BUN

2.14

BUN to Urea

6.25

Nitrogen to Protein

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 12. Adsorbent in Fuller’s earth reagent a. silica gel b. cellulose c. sodium aluminum silicate d. aluminum magnesium silicate

Lloyd’s SAS Fuller’s earth: AMS

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 13. Serum cholesterol moderate risk for 30-39 years old a. >200 b. >220 c. >240 d. >260

Age

Moderate Risk High Risk

2-19

>170

>185

20-29

>200

>220

30-39

>220

>240

40 and above

>240

>260

Age

Moderate Risk High Risk

2-19

>170

>185

20-29

>200

>220

30-39

>220

>240

40 and above

>240

>260

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 14. Which of the following enzymes exhibits the least tissue specificity a. ACP b. AST c. CK d. LD

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 15. Which of the following is an antitussive drug a. Heroin b. Morphine c. Codeine d. Marijuana

Drug/Hormone

Metabolite

Nore/Epinephrine VMA Dopa

HVA

Serotonin

5-HIAA

Heroin

Morphine

Cocaine

Benzoylecgonine

Marijuana

THC

Procainamide

NAPA

Amitriptyline

Nortryptyline

Primidone

Phenobarbital

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 16. Which of the following enzymes has moderate specificity for the liver, heart and skeletal muscles a. CK b. LD c. AST d. ALT

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 17. In pesticide poisoning, cholinesterase activity is a. Increased b. Decreased c. Variable d. No change

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 18. Bilirubin fraction that is covalently attached to albumin and contributes to the conjugated bilirubin value is: a. Indirect b. Direct c. Delta d. None of the above

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 19. Bilirubin disorder characterized by an inability to transport bilirubin from the sinusoidal membrane into the hepatocyte a. Carcinoma of the common bile duct b. Gilbert syndrome c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome d. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 20. The most potent and most active androgen is: a. Testosterone b. DHEA c. Epiandrosterone d. Androstenedione

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 21. Which condition produces the highest elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase? a. Pernicious anemia b. Myocardial infarction c. Acute hepatitis d. Muscular dystrophy

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 22. Apoprotein inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease? a. Apo-A1 b. Apo-B100 c. Apo-B48 d. Apo-C

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 23. Ability of a test to detect a given disease or condition a. Diagnostic specificity b. Diagnostic sensitivity c. Positive predictive value d. Negative predictive value

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 24. The unit IU for enzyme activity is expressed as: a. Moles per liter per second b. Moles per liter per minutes c. μmol of substrate per minute per liter d. µmol of substrate per second per liter

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 25. Bridging effect between beta and gamma globulin fractions observed on an electrophoretic pattern a. Acute inflammation b. Chronic inflammation c. Cirrhosis d. Monoclonal gammopathy

Disease

Electrophoretic Pattern

Acute inflammation

↑ alpha-1 alpha-2

Chronic inflammation

↑ alpha-1, alpha-2, gamma

Cirrhosis

↑ in gamma fraction with betagamma bridging

Monoclonal gammopathy

Sharp ↑ in 1 immunoglobulin

Polyclonal gammopathy

Diffuse ↑ in gamma

Nephrotic syndrome

↓ albumin, ↑ alpha-2

Test yourself

https://quizlet.com/ 89552663/mt-philippinesclinical-chemistry-recallsflash-cards/ Credits to F. Calabarzon

MICRO/PARA

MICRO/PARA 1. CSF transport temperature for bacterial culture a. Room temp b. -70°C c. 37°C d. 4°C

  Bacteria Virus

Transport Storage RT

37°C

-70°C

4°C

MICRO/PARA 2. Indicator used in XLD agar a. phenol red b. methyl red c. bromthymol blue d. neutral red

 Indicator

Culture Media

Neutral red (MS)

MAC SSA MSA XLD CTA Urease TSI Citrate HEA OF Hugh Leifson TCBS

Phenol red (MXCUT)

Bromthymol blue (CHOT)

MICRO/PARA 3. CMV is best grown in a. Monkey kidney cells b. Human embryonic fibroblast c. HeLa cells d. A549 cells

MICRO/PARA 4. Smallest but deadliest fluke a. Heterophyes b. Hymenolepis c. Dipylidium d. Echinococcus

MICRO/PARA 5. Agent of explosive watery diarrhea a. Shigella dysenteriae Shiga bacillus b. Shigella flexneri

Flexner’s bacilli

c. Shigella boydii

Newcastle-Manchester bacilli

d. Shigella sonnei

Sonne-duval bacilli

MICRO/PARA 6. Appearance of protozoan cyst cytoplasm in iodine a. colorless b. red-purple c. blue-black d. yellow-brown

Iodine

Trichrome

Troph: destroyed

Glycogen: colorless

Chromatoidal bodies: unstained

Chromatoidal bodies: bright red

Cyst cytoplasm: yellow brown

Nucleus: red-purple Charcot-Leyden: bright red

MICRO/PARA 7. Preservative in trichrome staining a. Polyvinyl alcohol b. Formalin c. Ethyl alcohol d. NSS

MICRO/PARA 8. C. amycolatum isolated in nasopharyngeal swab in non-immunocompromised host a. carrier b. infected c. normal flora d. contaminant

MICRO/PARA 9. All are confirmatory medium for water analysis except a. Levine EMB b. Lactose broth c. BGBL broth d. Endo agar

MICRO/PARA 10. Agent of nongonococcal urethritis a. C. trachomatis b. S. haematobium c. N. gonorrhoeae d. E. coli

MICRO/PARA 11. Media for screening suspected cases of hemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7 must contain a. citrate b. lactose c. sorbitol d. indole

MICRO/PARA 12. When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud dextrose agar, which of the following antibiotics should NOT be in the medium? a. trimethoprim b. vancomycin c. aminoglycoside d. cycloheximide

MICRO/PARA 13. Infective stage of Leishmania to man a. Amastigote b. Promastigote c. Epimastigote d. Trypomastigote

Morphological Form

Other Name

Characteristics

Amastigote

Leishmanial

Intracellular multiplication

Promastigote*

Leptomonad

Anterior KP

Epimastigote

Crithidial

KP near nucleus

Trypomastigote*

Trypanosomal

Posterior KP

MICRO/PARA 14. Which of the following would have a double-walled, wrinkled cyst form? a. Naegleria fowleri b. Entamoeba hartmanni c. Acanthamoeba castellanii d. Dientamoea fragilis

MICRO/PARA 15. What indicates a positive DNase result after 0.1 N HCl is added to the plate? a. gels on refrigeration b. green slant c. agar becomes cloudy d. agar clears around the colony

MICRO/PARA 16. The cause of primary amebic meningoencephalitis is a. Acanthamoeba b. Naegleria fowleri c. Balamuthia mandrillaris d. Trichomonas tenax

MICRO/PARA 17. Organism most often isolated from pulmonary secretions of cystic fibrosis patients is a. E. coli b. Salmonella spp. c. Enterobacter spp. d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

MICRO/PARA 18. Clue cells are usually present when a patient has an infection with a. Group A streptococcus b. Group B streptococcus c. Gardnerella vaginalis d. Lactobacillus spp.

MICRO/PARA 19. Gram positive diplococci, which grew alpha-hemolytic colonies on blood agar showing a “Mexican hat” appearance. a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Streptococcus agalactiae

MICRO/PARA 20. Rust colored sputum in cases of lobar pneumonia is characteristic of a. C. jeikeium b. S. aureus c. S. pneumoniae d. S. pyogenes

TIPS Make it a habit of reviewing ‘weakness areas’ from the previous day’s lecture. On weekends, allot time to consolidate everything you have learned during the weekdays. 3-5 days before the board exam, relax and calmly go over your notes. Have 6-8 hours of sleep. Take good care of your brain if you want it to store and recall long term information.

Test yourself

https://quizlet.com/ 143280513/apollonbacteriology-flash-cards/ Made by yours truly PW: 1

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 1. Manner of reporting for abnormal crystals a. rare, few, moderate, many per HPF b. rare, few, moderate, many per LPF c. average # per LPF d. average # per HPF

Normal crystals: RFMM/HPF Abnormal crystals: ave #/LPF

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 2. Possible causes of xanthochromia I. RBC degradation product II. bilirubin III. carotene IV. protein V. melanoma a. I, II, III, IV

b. II, III, IV

c. I, III, IV

d. I, II, III, IV, V

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 4. Yellow brown stones resembling an old soap, somewhat greasy a. cysteine b. calcium oxalate c. phosphate d. uric acid

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 3. Macrophage that ingested a neutrophil a. synovial lining cell b. LE cell c. Reiter cell d. rice bodies

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 5. Sperm motility grading: 2.0 a. rapid, straight-line motility b. slower speed, some lateral movement c. slow forward progression, noticeable lateral movement d. no forward progression

Grade

WHO Criteria

4.0

a

Rapid straight-line

3.0

b

Slower, some lateral movement

2.0

b

Slow forward, noticeable lateral movement

1.0

c

No forward progression

0

d

No movement

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 6. Grading: epithelial cell 5-20/LPF a. rare b. few c. moderate d. many

Mucus Reporting LPF

Crystals Epith. cells Bacteria HPF LPF HPF

Rare

0-1

0-2

0-5

0-10

Few

1-3

2-5

5-20

10-50

Moderate

3-10

5-20

20-100

50-200

Many

>10

>20

>100

>200

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 7. Degree of hazard: 3 a. Slight b. Moderate c. Serious d. Extreme

Interpretatio Grading n 0

No/minimal

1

Slight

2

Moderate

3

Serious

4

Extreme

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 8. Crystals insoluble in dilute acetic acid a. yeast, WBC, bacteria, protozoan b. carbonates, RBC, amorphous phosphates c. lipids, lymphatic fluid, chyle d. amorphous urates, uric acid

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 9. Characterized by increased retention of water and solutes in large intestine a. bloody diarrhea b. osmotic diarrhea c. secretory diarrhea d. explosive diarrhea

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 10. Concentric striations of collagen-like material seen in benign conditions, also in ovarian and thyroid carcinoma a. rice bodies b. psamomma bodies c. onchronotic shards d. meconium

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 11. Measurement of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glutamine is useful in suspected cases of a. multiple sclerosis b. bacterial meningitis c. Reye's syndrome d. tertiary syphilis

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 12. The normal brown color of the feces is produced by? a. urobilinogen b. urobilin c. pancreatic enzymes d. dietary fiber

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 13. The Amniostat agglutination test is performed on amniotic fluid from pregnant women to detect the presence of: a. lecithin b. phosphatidyl glycerol c. sphingomyelin d. creatinine

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 14. Which of the following reagents below is used to detect urobilinogen in urine a. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde b. p-dinitrobenzene c. p-aminosalicylate d. p-dichloroaniline

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 15. When using a polarized light microscopy, which urinary sediment component exhibits Maltese cross formation? a. RBC’s b. yeasts c. oval fat bodies d. WBCs

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 16. Which of the following is an indirect measure of specific gravity a. Falling drop method b. Refractometry c. Urinometer method d. Harmonic oscillation densitometry

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 17. Daily loss of protein in urine does not exceed a. 30 mg b. 50 mg c. 100 mg d. 150 mg

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 18. Which ketone is not detected by the reagent strip test? a. acetone b. acetoacetate c. B-hydroxybutyrate d. none of the above

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 19. Appearance of glitter cells in SternheimerMalbin stain a. violet b. light blue c. light pink d. colorless

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 20. Uric acid and urates redissolve on warming to a. 20°C b. 40 °C c. 50 °C d. 60 °C

Test yourself

https://quizlet.com/ 89510169/mt-philippinesclinical-microscopyrecalls-flash-cards/ Credits to F. Calabarzon

BREAK TIME

HEMATOLOGY

HEMATOLOGY 1. In the French-American-British (FAB) classification, myelomonocytic leukemia would be: a. M1 and M2 b. M3 c. M4 d. M5

 

 FAB CLASSIFICATION OF ACUTE MYELOID LEUKEMIAS

M0

Acute Myeloid Leukemia, minimally differentiated

M1

Acute Myeloid Leukemia without maturation

M2

Acute Myeloid Leukemia with maturation

M3

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia

M4

Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia

M5a M5b

Acute Monocytic Leukemia, poorly differentiated Acute Monocytic Leukemia, well differentiated

M6

Acute Erythroleukemia

M7

Acute Megakaryocytic Leukemia

HEMATOLOGY 2. Normal platelets have a circulating life span of approximately: a. 5 days b. 20 days c. 10 days d. 30 days

HEMATOLOGY 3. Approximately _______ of the total number of platelets circulate in the systemic circulation? a. two-thirds b. one-third c. one-fourth d. one-half

HEMATOLOGY 4. What is the FAB Classification of Burkitt lymphoma? a. L3

L1

b. L2 c. L1 d. L0

FAB Classification of ALL Small lymphoblast, homogeneous appearance

L2

Large lymphoblast, heterogenous appearance

L3

Large and uniform lymphoblast, with prominent nucleoli

HEMATOLOGY 5. Two HBs that migrate together on cellulose acetate electrophoresis at alkaline pH are a. A1 and A2 b. A1 and E c. S and C d. S and D

Cathode (-)

Anode (+) C A2 E O

S D G

F

A

H

HEMATOLOGY 6. When making a blood film using the spreader slide technique, a thinner film can be obtained by a. increasing the angle of the spreader slide b. using a larger drop of blood c. spreading the blood at a slower speed d. all of the above

HEMATOLOGY 7. The correct maturation order of erythrocyte morphologic stages is a. prorubricyte, rubricyte, rubriblast, metarubricyte b. rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte, metarubricyte c. rubriblast, metarubricyte, rubricyte, prorubricyte d. rubriblast, rubricyte, prorubricyte, metarubricyte

HEMATOLOGY 8. The Hb that is composed of four gamma chains is a. Hb H b. Hb Bart c. Hb S d. Hb C

HEMATOLOGY 9. Laboratory test that is abnormal due to intravascular hemolysis, but usually normal with extravascular hemolysis is a. fecal urobilinogen b. urine urobilinogen c. reticulocyte count d. plasma hemoglobin Intra: Plasma Hb Extra: urobilinogen

HEMATOLOGY 10. The most immature stage of neutrophil maturation which is no longer capable of mitosis is the a. promyelocyte b. myelocyte c. metamyelocyte d. band

HEMATOLOGY 11. If a manual leukocyte count is anticipated to be less than 3.0 x 109/L, the recommended dilution is a. 1:200 b. 1:100 c. 1:20 d. 1:10

Dilution for Manual WBC Count 1:10

< 3.0 x 109/L

1:20

Normal count

1:100

> 30.0 x 109/L

1:200

> 100 x 109/L

HEMATOLOGY 12. Centrifugation for microhematocrit a. 5,000 to 10,000g for 5 minutes b. 5,000 to 10,000g for 30 minutes c. 10,000 to 15,000g for 5 minutes d. 10,000 to 15,000g for 30 minutes

HEMATOLOGY 13. Photo-optical detection of fibrin clot a. Electra b. Coag-A-Mate c. Ortho-Koagulab d. all of the above Electromechanical: Fibrosystem, Fibrometer, BBL Manual detection: Tilt tube, wire loop

HEMATOLOGY 14. Specimen for sugar water test for PNH a. citrated whole blood b. defibrinated whole blood c. heparinized whole blood d. no anticoagulant SUCROSE HEMOLYSIS TEST: Citrated whole blood ACID SERUM TEST: Defibrinated whole blood

HEMATOLOGY 15. Hypochromia grading: hemoglobin staining that appears as thin rim on periphery of the cell a. 1+ b. 2+ c. 3+ d. 4+ 1+ central pallor occupying 1/3 to 2/3 of cell diameter 2+ to 3+ more than 2/3 4+ Hb staining that appears only thin rim on periphery of the cell

HEMATOLOGY 16. Cutaneous lymphoma that causes skin itching, leading to ulcerative tumors: a. Burkitt lymphoma b. Mycosis fungoides c. Hairy Cell Leukemia d. Hodgkin Lymphoma

HEMATOLOGY 17. RBC that is thinner than normal and shows a peripheral rim of hemoglobin with a dark central hemoglobin containing area a. Dacryocyte b. Leptocyte c. Microcyte d. Schistocyte

HEMATOLOGY 18. Diluting fluid used in counting platelets using phase contrast microscopy is: a. 1% Ammonium Oxalate b. Heparin c. 0.105 M Sodium Citrate d. None of the above

HEMATOLOGY 19. Lysosomal storage disorder characterized by enlarged macrophages in the bone marrow that have a wrinkled-appearing cytoplasm containing excess glucocerebroside a. Gaucher disease b. Niemann-Pick disease c. Sandhoff's disease d. Tay-Sachs disease

HEMATOLOGY 20. Which of the following assays is used to assess the presence of a factor inhibitor? a. DRVVT b. APCR c. Fibrinogen level d. Bethesda assay

ISBB

ISBB 1. CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation between T cells and sheep RBCs a. CD2 b. CD3 c. CD4 d. CD5

ISBB 2. Hepatitis A family a. Picornaviridae

A

b. Hepadnaviridae

B

c. Flaviviridae

C

d. Caliciviridae

E

ISBB 3. Indicates active replication of hepatitis B and high infectivity a. HBeAg

Infectivity

b. HBsAg

Active infection

c. Anti-HBe

Recovery

d. Anti-HBs

Immunity

ISBB 4. Most frequently transmitted virus from mother to fetus a. HIV b. HSV c. CMV d. EBV

ISBB 5. Process of notifying donors who test positive for viral markers, and notifying prior recipients of the possibility of infection, and quarantine or discarding implicated components in inventory a. Chain of evidence b. Look-back c. Quarantine d. Donor screening

ISBB 6. Most severe HTR is caused by a. Rh incompatibility b. ABO incompatibility c. Kell antibodies d. Kidd antibodies

ISBB 7. Gamma irradiation requires a minimum of _____ to the center of container a. 25 Gy b. 15 Gy c. 10 Gy d. 5 Gy

ISBB 8. Transfusion reaction characterized by hypertension and 1°C increase in temperature a. Anaphylactoid b. TA-GVHD c. TRALI d. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction Anaphylactoid – non-IgE mediated release of mast cell mediators TRALI – donor anti-HLA vs recipient HLA TA-GVHD – donor lymphocyte vs recipient immune system

ISBB 9. Shelf-life of blood stored with CPD-A1 a. 21 days b. 28 days c. 35 days d. 42 days

ISBB 10. % RBC viability after leukoreduction a. 70% b. 75% c. 80% d. 85% 70 post storage 75 post transfusion 80 deglycerolized (80 Harm 85 Turgeon) 85 leukoreduced

ISBB 11. McLeod phenotype is associated with what RBC morphology a. acanthocytes

McLeod

b. elliptocytes

Leach

c. ovalocytes

Diego

d. stomatocytes

Rh null

ISBB 12. Blood groups enhanced by enzyme treatment a. Kidd, Lewis, I, Rh, P

enhanced (KLIRP)

b. MNSs, Duffy, ChRd, Yt, Xg destroyed (MD CRYX) c. Kell, Lutheran

resistant (KeLu)

d. MNSs, Duffy, Lutheran, Kidd, Rh

ISBB 13. Antibody associated with chronic active hepatitis a. anti-mitochondrial b. anti-centromere c. anti-smooth muscle d. anti-dsDNA

Autoimmune Disease

Antibody

SLE

Anti-dsDNA, anti-Sm

RA

RF

DM Type I

Anti-insulin, anti-beta cells

Pernicious anemia

Anti-parietal cells

AIHA

Cold/warm autoantibodies

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Anti-thyroglobulin, anti-thyroid peroxidase

Grave’s disease

Anti-TSH receptor

Autoimmune Disease

Antibody

Goodpasture syndrome

Anti-glomerular basement membrane

Wegener’s granulomatosis

Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody

CREST

Anti-centromere

Multiple sclerosis

Anti-myelin sheath

Myasthenia gravis

Anti-acetylcholine receptor

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Anti-mitochondrial

Chronic active hepatitis

Anti-smooth muscle

ISBB 14. Serum sickness and Arthus reaction are examples of what type of hypersensitivity a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV

ISBB 15. All of the following diseases are characteristic of type I hypersensitivity except: a. Asthma b. Contact dermatitis c. Hives d. Anaphylaxis

 

Type I

A.k.a.

Anaphylactic HS

Ag inv.

Allergen

C’ inv. Mech.

No Release of inflammatory mediators Anaphylaxis Hay fever Food allergies Asthma

Type II

Cell-bound/ Cytotoxic HS Imm. Med. IgE IgM, IgG Effector cell Basophil, mast cell RBC, WBC, Plt

Ex.

Cell-bound antigen YES Cell lysis

AIHA HDN

Type III

Type IV

Immunecomplex HS IgM, IgG Host tissue cell

Delayed/ Cell-mediated T cell APC, macrophage, T cell Soluble antigen Sensitized antigen YES No Deposition of Release of Ag-Ab complex cytokines Serum sickness Contact Arthus reaction dermatitis SLE Tuberculin test Poison ivy

ISBB 16. CA 15-3 is a tumor marker for a. ovarian carcinoma b. breast carcinoma c. pancreatic carcinoma d. gastric carcinoma

Tumor Marker

Carcinoma

CA 125

Ovarian carcinoma

CA 15-3

Breast carcinoma

CA 19.9

Pancreatic carcinoma

CA 72-4

Gastric carcinoma

PSA

Prostatic carcinoma

ALP

Bone carcinoma

Beta-HCG

Testicular carcinoma

Calcitonin

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

Gastrin

Gastric carcinoma

CYFRA

Lung carcinoma

ISBB 17. CD markers of early B-cell development include: a. CD10 b. CD19 c. Both d. Neither

ISBB 18. The function of the complement system includes which of the following? a. Clearance of cellular debris b. Chemotaxis c. Lysis of bacteria d. All of the above

ISBB 19. Antigens that make very good immunogens include which of the following? a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Both d. Neither

ISBB 20. Which antibody can cross the placenta and play a significant role in hemolytic disease of the newborn? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgD

HISTOPATH /
 MTLE

HISTOPATH/MTLE 1. Autopsy technique characterized by in situ dissection a. Technique of Virchow b. Technique of Rokitansky c. Technique of Ghon d. Technique of Letulle Virchow: organ removed one by one Roki: in situ Ghon: en bloc Letulle: en masse

HISTOPATH/MTLE 2. All are secondary signs of death except a. autolysis b. livor mortis c. respiratory failure d. putrefaction Primary: circulatory, respi, CNS failure Secondary: algor, rigor, livor mortis, dessication, putrefaction, autolysis, postmortem clotting

HISTOPATH/MTLE 3. Microtome knife recommended for frozen sections or for cutting extremely hard and tough specimens embedded in paraffin blocks a. plane-concave knife b. biconcave knife c. plane-wedge knife d. diamond knife Plane-concave: less concave sides for celloidin-embedded tx Biconcave: paraffin embedded Plane-wedge: frozen sx, extremely hard sx

HISTOPATH/MTLE 4. If a laboratory manager wishes to determine the number of phlebotomists needed to provide emergency room coverage on Sunday nights during the night shift. Which one of the decision-making procedures may prove the most useful? a. probability analysis b. queuing theory c. linear programming d. simulation

HISTOPATH/MTLE 5. First phase of the management process a. setting objectives b. directing c. planning d. gathering feedback Planning: identifying goals, eval current situation, establish time frame, set obj, forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback Organizing: formal hierarchy, informal relationships Directing: leadership, time allocation Controlling: instructions, follow up, modifications

HISTOPATH/MTLE 6. In Pap’s smear, a suggestive but not conclusive diagnosis of malignancy belongs to: a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV

Papanicolaou Classification Class I

Absence of atypical or abnormal cell

Class II

Atypical cytology, but no evidence of malignancy

Class III

Suggestive but not conclusive

Class IV

Strongly suggestive

Class V

Conclusive

HISTOPATH/MTLE 6. Clearing agent recommended for CNS but becomes milky upon prolonged storage a. CCl4 b. THF c. Chloroform d. Cedarwood oil

HISTOPATH/MTLE 7. Ripening of phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin is usually accelerated by adding: a. Dilute nitric acid b. Gentle heat for 1 hour c. Potassium permanganate d. Glacial acetic acid

HISTOPATH/MTLE 8. Von Ebner’s fluid recommended as a good decalcifying agent for teeth contains this acid a. HCl b. H2SO4 c. H3PO4 d. H2CrO4

HISTOPATH/MTLE 9. Rossman’s fluid (picric acid + formaldehyde) is used as a fixative in what type of special processing technique? a. Freeze drying b. Freeze substitution c. Fresh frozen section d. Quenching

HISTOPATH/MTLE 10. Washing out is a processing of removing excess fixative from the tissue after fixation. To remove excessive mercuric fixative, one would use: a. Alcoholic iodine b. 50-70% alcohol c. Tap water d. 70-95% ethanol

HISTOPATH/MTLE 11. Carnoy’s fluid recommended for fixing chromosome, lymph glands & urgent biopsies contain all of the following, except a. Absolute alcohol b. Chloroform c. Glacial acetic acid d. Picric acid

HISTOPATH/MTLE 12. Recommended fixative for mucopolysaccharide acting as both nuclear and histochemical fixative a. Bouin’s b. Newcomer’s c. Osmium tetroxide d. Heidenhain’s susa

HISTOPATH/MTLE 13. This is a semisynthetic wax recommended for embedding eyes a. embeddol b. paraplast c. ester wax d. bioloid

HISTOPATH/MTLE 14. Which among the following hematoxylin solutions are used for the study of spermatogenesis? a. alum b. iron c. copper d. sodium

HISTOPATH/MTLE 15. Alum hematoxylin stains are recommended for what type of staining procedure a. progressive b. regressive c. supravital d. intravital

HISTOPATH/MTLE 16. The policies on admission of foreigners to the licensure examination and the practice of their professions are embodied in PRC Resolution No. a. 270 b. 338 c. 323 d. 217

HISTOPATH/MTLE 17. Which section in RA 5527 mentioned about foreign reciprocity: a. 25 b. 27 c. 29 d. 31

HISTOPATH/MTLE 18. When was PAMET created? a. September 20, 1964 b. October 1, 1945 c. September 15, 1963 d. June 21, 1969

HISTOPATH/MTLE 19. According to AO 55 s 1989, all HIV serum reactive samples in screening tests by private laboratories shall be referred to: a. San Lazaro Hospital Laboratory b. Bureau of Food and Drugs c. RITM d. Bureau of Research and Laboratories

HISTOPATH/MTLE 20. The penalty of revocation of a certificate of registration may be imposed by the board if there is a. Chairman’s vote only b. Majority vote c. Unanimous vote d. Secretariat’s vote

Thank You! #TGBTG