Esas Reviewer

DEFINITION OF TERMS ABSOLUTE HUMIDITY - it is the mass of water vapor per unit volume of air ABSOLUTE TEMPERATURE - a measure of the ability to transfer heat to other bodies based on a reference temperature (absolute zero) where a body has given up all the thermal energy it possibly can ADIABATIC PROCESS gain

- is a process whereby no heat loss, no heat

ADMITTANCE - the reciprocal of impedance AMORTIZATION - is any method of repaying a debt, the principal and interest included, usually by a series of equal payments at equal interval if time AMORTIZED LOAN - a loan that is discharged or repaid by a uniform series of payments extending over its duration AMPLIDYNE - is a DC generator which yields a large power output from a small power input, used in servo-mechanism ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY - deals with the analysis and identification of substance ANGSTORM - a unit of length, especially used in expressing the length of light waves equal to one-ten billionth of a meter. (1A = 1 x 10-10 m) ANNUITY - is a series of equal payments occurring at equal period of time APPARENT POWER reactive power

- it is the vector sum of the real power and

ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION - is a sequence of numbers called terms, each of which after the first, is derived from the preceding once by adding to it a fixed number called the common difference ASKAREL - a synthetic non-inflammable insulating liquid which when decomposed by an electric arc, evolves only non-explosive gases

ASSETS - anything of value that is owned by an enterprise AUTO TRANSFORMER - the primary winding is electrically connected with the secondary winding. It is used if both primary and secondary winding voltages are low or high AVOGADRO’S LAW - it is a law stating that the same pressure and temperature, equal volume of all gases contain equal number of molecules BATTERY - is an electro-chemical cell that is used store chemical energy for conservation later to electrical BENEFIT COST RATIO - it is the ratio of the difference between the benefits and the disbenefits to the cost associated with a particular project BLACKBODY - a body which absorbs all the impinging radiant heat BOILER - it is one of the basic components of a steam power plant whereby water is converted from the liquid phase to gas to vapor phase BOILING POINT - it is the temperature of a liquid whereby the vapor pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure BOND - it is a certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation of its subsidiaries BOOK VALUE - it is the worth of the property which is listed on the book of accounts of an enterprise. It is calculated by subtracting the total depreciation at the desired year from the original cost. BORROWED FUNDS OR CAPITAL - are those capital supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and debt must be repaid at a specified time BOYLE’S LAW - states that if the temperature of a confined gas is constant, the volume of the ideal gas is inversely proportional to its absolute pressure

BRAYTON CYCLE - it is the ideal closed system gas turbine cycle. It is characterized by constant pressure heat addition and heat rejection and isentropic compression and expansion processes BREAK-EVEN POINT - it is a point in economic studies whereby there is no profit. It is also known as the point for which the value of common variable for two alternatives when their respective cost are equal BTU - one over one hundred eighty the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound pure water from 32 oF to 212oF under standard atmospheric pressure CALLABLE BOND - a bond that contains clauses permitting repayment before maturity CALORIE - the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by 1oC CANDLE POWER DISTRIBUTION CURVES - since the common light giving sources either alone or in conjunction with the reflecting equipment used with them do not have the same light giving power or candle power in all directions, photometric graphs are employed in order to indicate the candle power of the source in all directions. Curves giving this information for a light source are called power distribution curves CAPITALIZED COST - the sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs of replacement, operation and maintenance for a long time or forever CARNOT CYCLE - it is a gas cycle which is in such a way that it is reversible externally as well as being internally since heat is accepted and rejected across vanishing small temperature differences COMPRESSED LIQUID - is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to its temperature COMPRESSION RATIO - is the ratio of the volume at the bottom dead center to the volume at the top dead center CONDUCTION - is the process of the faster moving (“hotter”) molecules colliding with slower ones and communicating some of their energy

CONSTRUCTION COST - is the sum of all cost necessary to prepare a construction project for operation CORE TYRE TRANSFORMER - it used for any type of voltage application. Usually its KVA rating is high CORONA - it is a luminous discharged caused by the ionization of the gases surrounding a high voltage conductor usually accompanied by a hissing sound CORPORATION - an aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by law as a fictitious person COST ACCOUNTING - it is the determination of the cost of producing a product or rendering a service COUPON BOND - a type bond having a c coupon attached to the bond for each interest payment that will come due during the life of the bond CRITICAL POINT - at this point, the liquid and vapor curves meet an the vapor is indistinguishable from a liquid CURRENT ASSETS - these consist of the cash and account receivables during the next period or any other material which will be sold CURRENT LIABILITY - it represents claim against owners which must be paid in the near future CURRENT TRANSFORMER - used in conjunction with ordinary AC measuring instruments in order to measure high current or power a high current or energy at high current. It is also used in relaying. CHARLES’ LAW - if the pressure of a confined gas is constant, the volume is directly proportional to the absolute temperature CHEMISTRY - is the science that deals with the structure, properties of matter and the principles governing the changes it undergo. CLASS 1 HAZARDOUS LOCATION - those locations in which flammable gases or vapors are or may be present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures

CLASS 11 HAZARDOUS LOCATIONS - those locations which are hazardous because of the presence of combustible dust CLEAT - an assembly of two pieces of insulating material provided with grooves for holding one or more conductors at a definite spacing from the surface wired over from each other, and with holes for fastening in position COAL THERMAL POWER PLANT - a power plant which utilizes coal as fuel COEFFICIENT OF UTILIZATION - is the overall efficiency of the lighting installation; ration of the useful lumens which get down to the total lumens generated by the lamp COLLATERAL BOND - a type of bond whose security is the stocks or bonds of a well-established subsidiary of the corporation COMFORTABLE ROOM TEMPERATURE - it is the temperature which is equivalent to 72°F or 22°C COMMON STOCK - it represents ordinary ownerships without special guarantees of return COMPOUND GENERATOR - a DC generator which has the series field and shunt field windings. This generator is connected either short shunt or long shunt COMPOUND - is a substance with a constant composition that can be broken down into elements by chemical process CYCLE - it is undergone when a certain mass of fluid in a particular state passes through a series of process and returns to its initial state DEBENTURE BOND - a bond without any security behind it except a promise to pay by issuing corporation DECIBEL - unit of attenuation DEFERRED ANNUITY - an annuity where the first payment is made several periods after the beginning of the annuity DEMAND FACTOR - the ration of the maximum demand to the connected load of a system

DENDROTHERMAL POWER PLANT - a power plant which utilizes wood as fuel DENSITY - defined as the mass per unit volume DEPLETION - it is the decrease in the worth or value of the property due to the gradual extraction of its contents DEPLETION COST - annual charge that is made for the maintenance of investment in wasting assets such as gas wells, oil, mines and etc… DEPRECIATION - is the decrease in value of the physical property due to the passage of time DEPRECIATION COST - annual charge that is made during the period of the useful life, for the services rendered by the investment in building, machinery and equipments in producing the products DEVELOPMENT COST - is the sum of all cost incurred by an investor if a project up to the time that the project is accepted by those who will promote it DEW POINT - the temperature to which air must be cooled at constant pressure to produce saturation DIELECTRIC - a medium or substance in which a potential difference establishes an electric field which is subsequently recoverable as electric energy DIFFERENTIAL COST operation or policy

- are cost which arises due to the change in

DIODE - a device which has a high resistance in one direction and a low resistance in the other direction DIRECT LABOR - is the actual work applied directly in the process of manufacturing a certain product. DIRECT MATERIALS - these are materials which are included in the finished product itself DISCOUNT - is the difference between the present worth and the future worth of a negotiable paper

DISTRIBUTION TRANSFORMER - from 3 to 500 KVA in rating. Usually mounted on poles or posts DIVERSITY FACTOR - the ratio of the sum of the individual maximum demands of the various subdivisions of the system to the maximum demand of the whole system DIVIDENDS - profit earned by corporations which are periodically distributed to the stockholders DULONG AND PETIT’S LAW - a law stating that the specific heat of metals is approximately equal to 6.4 divided by the atomic weight of the metal itself DYNAMOMETER - an instrument used to measure AC voltage or alternating current or AC power. This instrument has two coils, one is stationary and the other one is moving EARNING VALUE earnings ECONOMICS distribution

- is the present worth of its probable future net

- is the study of the wealth, its value, creation and

EDDY CURRENT - current that is circulating in the iron core of a transformer or dynamo which causes loss called eddy current loss EFFECTIVE RATE OF INTEREST - is the actual rate of interest on the principal for one year ELECTRIC POWER SUBSTATION - is an assemblage of equipment for the purpose switching and or changing or regulating voltage of electricity ELECTROLYSIS - is the dissociation of the molecules of an electrolyte due to the passage of an electric current ELEMENT - cannot be decomposed into simpler substance by chemical or physical means ENDOTHERMIC REACTION - is a reaction whereby the reactance absorb heat from the surroundings

ENERGY - is the capacity to do work ENTHALPY - it is the sum of internal energy and the product of pressure and volume ENGINEERING ECONOMY - it is the analysis and evaluation of the factors that will affect the economic success of engineering projects to the end that a recommendation can be made which will ensure the best use of capital EQUIPMENT GROUND - a non-current carrying conductor is grounded EQUITY - is the claim of anyone to ownership EQUITY CAPITAL OR OWNERSHIP FUNDS - is the worth of what firm owns EXOTHERMIC REACTION - is a reaction whereby the reactance gives off heat to the surroundings FACE OR PAR VALUE - is the amount stated on the bond FAIR VALUE - is the value of the property which is determined by a disinterested third party in order to establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer FARAD - a unit of capacitance that is defined by the production of one volt across capacitor terminals when a charge of one coulomb is stored FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS - states that the energy can neither be created nor destroyed but it can be transformed from one form to another FIXED ASSETS - these are costs which will exist unaltered whether or not a given change in operation is adopted FIXED COSTS - these are costs which will exist unaltered whether or not a given change in operation is adopted FIXED LIABILITIES - liabilities which are not due for payment until sometime more that one year period

FLASHOVER - is a disruptive discharged around or over the surface of a solid or liquid insulator FLOATING CHARGE - battery or equipment normally connected to the load at all times and charged continuously FLOW ENERGY - also called flow work. It is the work done in pushing a liquid across the boundary, usually into or out of the system FOOT CANDLE - is the unit of illumination when the foot is taken as the unit of length FORCE CONVECTION - the fluid is said to be in forced convection when the work is done to blow or pump the fluid FRANCHISE - the right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain region FRANCHISE VALUE - is an intangible item of value arising from the exclusive right of the company to provide a specified product FREE CONVECTION - occurs when a fluid circulates because the differences in temperatures results in the differences of densities FUNCTIONAL DEPRECIATION - is the decrease in value of the property due to the lessening in the demand for the function of the property GAANT CHART - is a chart showing the activities required in a project and the length of time needed for each activity which are scheduled to be finished GAS TURBINE - is a power generating unit that uses combustion power generator since it is compact and lightweight GAS TURBINE POWER PLANT - a power plant, which basically operates with centrifugal, axial or rotary compressors, which deliver the working gas to a combustion chamber where temperature is raised and expander which is a single or multi-stage axial flow turbine. The work output of the expander exceeds the work input to the compressor. GEOMETRIC PROGRESSION - is a sequence if numbers called terms, each of which after the first, is obtained by multiplying the preceding by a fixed number called the common ratio

GOETHERMAL POWER PLANT - a power plant which utilizes the inherent heat coming from the earth’s crust GROUNDING TRANSFORMER - it is a device which is used to provide a point for connection to ground. It has no secondary binding and also carried no load GOING CONCERN VALUE - it is the difference between the values of a property as it stands possessed of it going elements and the value of the property alone as it could stand at completion of construction as a bare assembly of physical parts GOING VALUE - it is an intangible value, which a business has earned through the favorable consideration and patronage of its customers arising from its well-known and well-conducted policies. HARMONICS - components of the current or voltage in which the frequencies are multiple of the fundamentals HARMONIC PROGRESSION - is a series of terms whose reciprocal forms and arithmetic progression HAZARDOUS LOCATION - are those locations, which contain flammable gases and vapors, combustible dust and intangible fibers or flying HEAT - is energy in transit from one body or system to another solely HEAT OF FUSION - the quality of heat required to change the phase of the substance from solid to liquid without change in temperature HEAT OF FUSION OF ICE - it is equal to 80 cal/g or 144 BTU/lb HENRY - the unit of inductance; it permits current increase at the rate of 1 ampere per second when one volt is applied across the inductor terminals HANRY’S LAW - a law stating that the concentration of gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure at a given temperature HICKEY - a device used to bend small pipes HYDRAULICS - the science dealing with mechanical properties of liquids, as water and their application in engineering

HYDRO–ELECTRIC POWER PLANT - a power plant which converts the inherent energy of water under pressure into electrical energy HYDRODYNAMICS OR FLUID DYNAMICS - deals with the study of the laws of motion of fluids HYDROSTATICS - is that branch of physics which deals with fluids at rest HYSTERESIS LOOP - a graph that shows the relation between magnetizing force and flux density for a cyclical magnetized substance IDEAL FLUID - is often defined as a substance that cannot transmit shearing stresses, and which if not totally confined, shows free horizontal surface when at rest IGNITION COIL OF AN AUTOMOBILE cause combustion

- a coil that causes a spark to

ILLUMINATION METER - an instrument used to measure the intensity of light source IMPEDANCE - the total opposition to the flow of alternating current IMPULSE TEST - is an insulation test in which the voltage applied is an impulse voltage of a specified wave shape INCREMENT COST - are costs that arises as the result of change in operations or policy INDUCTION VOLTAGE REGULATOR - is primarily a step-down transformer, but it is so constructed that the secondary voltage maybe varied from zero to a certain maximum by merely altering the position of the primary coil axis with respect to the secondary coil axis, this is used to regulate the voltage at the load end of a long distribution system INFLATION - is the increase in the number of units of currency necessary to buy a given unit of goods or services INORGANIC CHEMISTRY - is the study of all the properties and characteristics of other elements

IN-PLACE VALUE - is the value considered when the replacement of a piece of equipment is contemplated INTANGIBLE FACTORS - factors which are impossible or difficult to express in terms of monetary value INTEREST - is the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital or the income produced by the money has been loaned INTERNAL ENERGY - is the energy stored within the body or substance by virtue of the activity and the configuration of its molecules and the vibration of the atoms within the molecules INTERRUPTING CAPACITY - is the maximum rms value of the current at the rated maximum voltage and the frequency that the breaker can safely interrupt without damage to itself INVERSE TIME - a qualifying term indicating there is purposely introduced a delay in the tripping action of the circuit breaker which delay decreases as the magnitude of the current increases ISENTROPIC PROCESS - a reversible adiabatic process. called constant entropy process

It is also

ISENTHALPIC PROCESS - is a constant enthalpy process ISOBARIC PROCESS - an internally reversible process of a substance during which the pressure remains constant ISOLATING TRANSFORMER - a series transformer for use with series incandescent street lamps at a different value of current from that of the main series circuit or for isolation of a lamp of the same current value as the main circuit from the main circuit, which operates at a high voltage ISOMETRIC PROCESS - a reversible constant volume process ISOTHERMAL PROCESS - is a reversible constant temperature process JOINT BOND - these are bond which are issued by two or more corporations and are guaranteed jointly by them JOULE’S CONSTANT - it is equivalent to 778.16 ft-lb / BTU

JOURNAL - a book whereby the original record of business transactions are recorded KINETIC ENERGY - possessed by a matter in motion LATENT HEAT - is the heat that does not affect the temperature of a substance but changes its state LATENT HEAT OF FUSION - is the heat per unit mass required to change a solid to liquid at its melting point LATENT HEAT OF VAPORIZATION - the quantity of heat required to evaporate one pound of saturated liquid LAW OF DIMINISHING RETURNS - a law stating that one of the factors is fixed in quantity or may be difficult to increase LAW OF SUPPLY AND DEMAND - states that under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal LEDGER - a secondary book of accounts, the information in which is obtained from the journal LIABILITIES - are those things of monetary value that the firm owns LIGHTING ARRESTER - a device that will conduct the high surge current harmlessly to ground and prevent excessive voltage from appearing on equipment insulation LOAD FACTOR - ratio of the average load over a designated period of time to the peak load occurring in that period LOAD OR BURDEN OF AN INSTRUMENT TRANSFORMER - any instrument or device connected across the secondary winding of the instrument transformer LUXURIES - those products or services that are desired by humans and will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities have been obtained MARGINAL REVENUE - the amount received from the sale of additional unit of product

MARKET VALUE - amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell MAXWELL - unit of magnetic flux MIMIC BUS - a single line diagram of the main connections of a system constructed on the face of a control panel MOLIER CHART - a chart in which the enthalpy is the ordinate and the entropy is the abscissa MONOPOLY - it exists when a unique product or service is available from a single vendor and that can prevent the entry of all others into the market MORTGAGE BOND - the security behind this is a mortgage upon certain specified assets of the corporation in the form of a trust fund NOMINAL RATE OF INTEREST - it specifies the rate of interest and a number of interest periods in one year NOMINAL VOLTAGE - a nominal value assigned to a system or circuit of a given voltage class for the purpose of convenient designation NUCLEAR POWER PLANT fuel

- a power plant which utilizes uranium as

OBSOLESCENCE - refers to changes in connections external to the equipment under consideration OIL THERMAL POWER PLANT - a power plant which utilizes bunker oil as fuel OLIGOPOLY - a situation where there are few sellers and any action taken by one of them may affect the action of the other seller OPERATING COST - the sum of all costs that are incurred periodically and continuously in order that the project in which an investment has been made may be operated, produce a commodity or service and distribute and sell that commodity or service

ORDINARY ANNUITY - one where the payments are made at the end of each period ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - study of carbon compounds ORGANIZATION COST - the amount of money spent in organizing a business and arranging for its financing and building OSCILLOGRAPH - an instrument which will show the current and voltage waves in alternating current circuits during steady conditions OVERHEAD EXPENSE - the burden consist of those expenses which cannot be readily included under direct materials or direct labor OWNERSHIP - the equity of one person who normally possesses the asset PANTOGRAPH - a device that sites on top of electric locomotives and picks up electricity from overhead wires to run the train PARTNERSHIP - an association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging in a business for a profit PASCAL’S LAW - states that the external pressure supplied to a confined fluid increases the pressure at every point in the fluid by an amount equal to the external pressure PERCENTAGE DIFFERENTIAL RELAY - a protective device that senses fault power flow into the line PERPETUITY - a series of equal payments continue indefinitely PETERSON COIL - a coil that is used as a ground fault neutralizer PHANTOM CIRCUIT - additional circuit derived from existing circuits without the use of additional wires PHANTOM LOAD - a device which supplied the various test load currents or for alternating current meter testing PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY - concerned with the natural laws and principles governing both physical and chemical changes

PHYSICAL INVENTORY - consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity or the materials on hand as of a given date PLANT FACTOR - ratio of the aggregate rating of all generating equipments installed in the plant to the average load on the plant for the period of time considered POLARIZATION INDEX - obtained by taking the ratio of the 10 min. to the 1 min. insulation resistance measurement POTENTIAL ENERGY - energy due to position or conditioned stress POWER - work per unit time PRE-PAID INCOME - this arises when a business receives payment for a service before it actually renders service PREFERRED STOCK - the stockholders are guaranteed a definite dividend on their stocks POTENTIAL TRANSFORMER - used in conjunction with ordinary AC measuring instruments in order to measure high voltage or power at high voltage or energy at high voltage. It is also used in relaying POTENTIOMETER - is a voltage divider POWER TRANSFORMER - more than 500 KVA in rating. Usually found in substations PRIME COST - direct material cost plus direct labor cost PRODUCTION COST - direct material cost plus labor cost plus overhead cost minus prime cost plus overhead cost PROPRIETORSHIP - sometimes denotes ownership PURE SUBSTANCE - a form of matter which cannot be separated into two or more other forms of matter except by means of a chemical change

RADIATION - a mode of heat transfer which is dealing with thermal energy flow via electromagnetic waves between two bodies separated by a distance RANKINE SCALE - a cycle whereby the heating and cooling processes occur at constant pressure RATE BASE VALUE - value assigned to the property for the purpose of establishing rates RATE OF RETURN capital

- measure of effectiveness of an investment of

REACTANCE - an opposition to the flow of alternating current based on the reaction of energy storage either as magnetic field or as an electric field RELAY - is a device operated by a change in voltage or current in a circuit which actuates other devices in the same circuit REGISTER RATIO - the number by which the register reading is multiply to obtain kilowatt hours REGULATING TRANSFORMER - a transformer which is built like an induction motor with a coil wound secondary, which is used for varying the voltage delivered to a synchronous converter or AC feeder system REPULSION ROTOR - wound rotor with commutator. Brushes are short circuited creating an induced field which acts similarly to a series field REVERBERATION TIME - the time necessary for the sound to drop to 60 dB ROENTGEN - is the international unit of radiation ROSETTE - an enclosure of porcelain or other insulating material fitted with terminals and intended for connecting the flexible cord carrying a pendant to the permanent wiring SALIENT POLE - shaped pole, you can count the number of poles

SCRAP VALUE - the amount of property would sell for if disposed off as a junk SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS - states that all energy received as heat by a heat engine cycle cannot be converted into mechanical work SERVICE FACTOR (of a motor) - safety factor of a motor, usually 1.15 SHELL-TYPE TRANSFORMER - used for low voltage application. Usually its KVA rating is law SINKING FUND METHOD - this method assumes that a sinking fund is established in which funds will accumulate replacement SKIN EFFECT - is the tendency of the current to move outward the surface of the conductor SPARKOVER - a disruptive discharge between electrodes of measuring gaps, such as sphere gap on oil testing gap SPECIFIC GRAVITY - defined as the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a given standard substance usually water SPECIFIC HEAT - amount of transferred heat required to change the temperature of one unit weight of a substance usually water SPECIFIC LATENT HEAT OF SUBLIMATION - is the heat per unit mass required to convert it from solid to the gaseous state at a given temperature SPECIFIC VOLUME - the reciprocal of density SPINNING RESERVE - is the reserve generating capacity that is connected to the bus and ready to take load SPLIT PHASE MOTOR - a motor which has two stator winding namely the main winding and the auxiliary winding which produces magnetic fields that act together that cause the motor to rotate STEADY FLOW SYSTEM - an open system in which there is no change of stored mass

STRAIGHT LINE METHOD - this assumes that the loss in value is directly proportional to the age of property STOCK AND BOND VALUE - sum of the outstanding bonus multiplied by their current market value plus the issued stock multiplied by each current market price SUBCOOLED LIQUID - one whose temperature is below the saturation temperature corresponding to its temperature SUBLIMATION - a change of state from solid to gaseous without passing the liquid state SUNK COST - represents money which has been spent or capital which has been invested and which cannot be recovered due to certain reasons SWITCHGEAR - a general term covering switching, interrupting, control, metering, protective and regulating devices, also assemblies of these devices with associated interconnections, accessories and supporting structures, used primarily in connection with generation, transmission, distribution and conversion of electric power SYNCHRONOUS CONVERTER - an electromechanical device that changes direct current into pulsating DC SYSTEM GROUND - a current carrying conductor is grounded TANGIBLE FACTORS values

- those which can be expressed in monetary

TELEMETER - an instrument used for measuring various quantities at a distance THERMAL EQUILIBRIUM - the body is said to be in thermal equilibrium in its property ceased to change THERMAL RADIATION - an emanation of the same nature as light and radio waves THERMOCOUPLE - two metals with their two ends heated at different temperature to transform heat energy into electrical energy

THERMODYNAMICS - the science that deals with work and heat and those properties of substances that bears a relation to heat and work such as pressure, volume and temperature THIRD LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS - at absolute zero, the entropy of a pure substance in some perfect crystalline forms become zero THROTTLING PROCESS - is a process when a fluid flows in an uncontrolled manner from a higher pressure region to low pressure region with no work being done. Also called constant enthalpy process. TOTAL FAIR VALUE - consist of the cost of the physical factors and the intangible factor TRANSPOSITION - is the alternating of positions of each phase of a transmission line in equal intervals so that each phase has the same inductance UNHEALTHY POINT - a point in the break even chart which indicate the sales volume at which the enterprise will be able to pay the dividends UNIVERSAL MOTOR - a small series wound motor which can be operated on a DC or AC source VALUATION OF APPRAISAL - the process of determining the value of a certain property for specific reasons VALVE TYPE LIGHTNING ARRESTER - has a series spark gap, normally open but closes immediately when a transient voltage appears quickly after the transient has disappeared. Surge flow as current is passing thru zero VARIABLE COST - cost which vary with the output or any change in the activities of an enterprise VOLT - is the unit of electromotive force

CHEMISTRY 1.

It is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. a. molecular number c. mass number b. proton number d. atomic number

2.

It is the number of protons plus the number of neutrons: a. atomic number c. molecular number b. mass number d. proton number

3.

The _____________ is calculated by adding together all the atomic numbers: a. molecular weight c. formula weight b. compound weight d. none of these

4.

An element may be defined as a substance, all the atoms of which have the same: a. number of neutrons c. atomic weight b. radioactivity d. atomic number

5.

The different types of atoms in a given element are called: a. molecules c. isotopes b. neutrons d. compounds

6.

All isotopes of the same element have: a. Equal no. of protons and neutrons b. Equal no. of protons c. The same atomic mass d. Equal no. of neutrons

7.

What is a substance that cannot be decomposed into simpler substances during ordinary chemical reactions? a. Atom c. Molecule b. Element d. Compound

8.

Salt, water, rubber, iron rust are called ____________. a. mix atom c. element b. chemical compound d. molecule

9.

The particle inside the nucleus is called a. Nucleons c. Nucleic b. Nuclei d. Nuclide

10.

If the volume of a confined gas is constant, the pressure is directly proportional to the absolute temperature. This is known as a. Kelvin’s law c. Boyle’s law b. Charles’ law d. Joule’s law

11.

If the temperature of a confined gas is constant, the product of the pressure and volume is constant. This is known as a. Kelvin’s law c. Boyle’s law b. Charles’ law d. Joule’s law

12.

Which of the following is the Ideal Gas Law? a. V/T =k c. PV = nRT b. P1/T1 = P2/T2 d. V = K x 1/P

13.

The temperature to which the air must be cooled at a constant pressure to produce saturation is called: a. boiling point c. critical point b. dew point d. triple point

14.

The changing of solid directly to vapor without passing through the liquid state is called: a. evaporation c. vaporization b. sublimation d. condensation

15.

Sublimation refers to: a. the vaporization of solid without first becoming a liquid b. the melting of a solid c. the vaporization of a liquid d. maybe in any or all of the above into a liquid

16.

At the same pressure and temperature, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules. This is known as: a. Faraday’s law c. Boyle’s law b. Lenz’ law d. Avogadro’s law

17.

The number of molecules in a mole of any substance is constant, this number is called a. Thompson’s constant c. Otto cycle b. Rankine cycle d. Avogadro’s number

18.

How many moles are there in one atom? a. 1.66 x 10-23 moles c. 1.66 x 1023 moles b. 1.66 x 10-24 moles d. 1.66 x 1024 moles

19.

The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 gram per gram-atom. What is the mass of a hydrogen atom? a. 1.66 x 10–24 g/atom c. 6.02 x 10–23 g/atom b. 1.0 x 10–10 g/atom d. 1 g/atom

20.

The mole is a basic unit of measurement in chemistry. Which of the following is not equal to or the same as one mole of the substance indicated? a. 22.4 liters of Nitrogen (N2) gas at STP b. 6.02 x 10²³ oxygen (O2) molecules c. 16g of oxygen (O2) molecules d. 1g of hydrogen (H) atoms

21.

The critical point for mixture occurs for which of the following cases? a. the vapor and the liquid have a single form b. the liquid has no absorbed gas c. the vapor phase is stable d. the liquid is completely vaporized

22.

How is “molality” defined? a. the number of moles of solute in 1000 grams of solvent b. the number of moles of solute in 1 liter of solution c. the number of gram-formula weights of solute per liter d. the number of gram-equivalent weights of solute in 1 liter of solution

23.

All gases at the same temperature and pressure under the action of a given value “g” have the same number of molecules per unit volume from which it follows that specific weight of a gas is proportional to its molecular weight is known as: a. Avogadro’s Law c. Torrecillis’s principle b. Boyle’s Law d. Archimedes’ principle

24.

Which are the electrostatic forces that exist between ions? a. ionic bond c. chemical bond b. covalent bond d. atomic bond

25.

What a. b. c. d.

are Van der Waals forces? weak secondary bonds between atoms primary bonds between atoms forces between electrons and protons forces not present in liquid

26.

What a. b. c. d.

are valence electrons? the outer shell electrons electrons with positive charge the electrons with complete quantum shells the K – quantum shell electrons

27.

Strong bonds between hydrogen atoms is known as: a. the ionic bond c. the metallic bond b. ionic and metallic bond d. the covalent bond

28.

Which of the following is the strongest type of bond: a. Van Der Waals c. covalent b. metallic d. ionic

29.

In molecules of the same composition, variations of atomic arrangements is known as: a. polymers c. isomers b. monomers d. crystal systems

30.

In a a. b. c. d.

31.

As the amount of slip increases, additional deformation becomes more difficult and it decreases until the plastic flow finally stops. Slip may begin again only if a larger stress is applied. What is this phenomenon called? a. cooling c. crowding b. strain hardening d. twinning

32.

What causes the vinyl interiors of automobiles to crack when subjected to prolonged direct sunlight? a. the volatilization of plasticizers b. repetitive expansion and contraction of the plastic c. oxidation of the plastic by sunlight and oxygen d. all of the above

crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom? an extra atom sitting at a non-lattice point an atom missing at a lattice point a different element at a lattice point a line defect

33.

Low density polyethylene undergoes extensive elongation (over 100%) prior to rupture, while polystyrene undergoes only 1 to 2 percent elongation. What is the main reason for this difference? a. the polyethylene is less dense b. the large styrene groups in the polystyrene prevent slippage c. more cross linking occurs in the polystyrene d. polyethylene is less crystalline

34.

How a. b. c. d.

is the quality, x, of a liquid-vapor mixture defined? the fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor the fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid the fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor the fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid

35.

It is defined as a measure of the amount of negative ions in the water. a. alkalinity c. turbidity b. acidity d. solubility

36.

The measure of acids in solutions is called: a. alkalinity c. turbidity b. acidity d. solubility

37.

Which of the following is the standard temperature and pressure (STP)? a. 0°K and one atmospheric pressure b. 0°F and zero pressure c. 32°F and zero pressure d. 0°C and one atmospheric pressure

38.

Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form? a. sodium (Na) c. helium (He) b. carbon dioxide (CO2) d. hydrochloric acid (HCl)

39.

A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs? a. it turns red c. it becomes more negative b. it losses electrons d. it gives off heat

40.

Boiling point of water occurs when: a. its vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure b. its vapor pressure is ½ the atmospheric pressure c. its vapor pressure is twice the atmospheric pressure d. none of these

41.

Two major types of chemical bonds are absorbed in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent. Which of the following has a bond that is the least ionic in character? a. NaCl c. CH4 b. H2 d. H2O

42.

In order to assign oxidation states in polyatomic molecules, which of the following rules is followed? a. the oxidation of all elements in any allotropic form is zero b. the oxidation state of oxygen is always –2 c. the oxidation state of hydrogen is always +1 d. all of the above rules are used

43.

Reactions generally proceed faster at higher temperature because of which of the following? a. the molecules collide more frequently b. the activation energy is less c. the molecules are less energetic d. both a and b

44.

It is a process of application of chlorine that results in minimum chloramines residuals? a. breakpoint chlorination b. distillation c. coliform d. electrodialysis

45.

Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of materials? a. the atomic weight expressed in grams per gram-atom b. the electrons, particularly the outermost ones c. the magnitude of electrical charge of the protons d. the weight of the atoms

46.

Which of the following describes diffusion in a crystal structure? a. it is not possible b. it occurs only in alloys, never in pure crystals c. it often uses an exchange or vacancy mechanism d. it occurs primarily as a result of mechanical work

47.

Compare the metallic iron atom Fe and the ferric ions Fe 2+ and Fe3+. Which has the smallest atomic radius? (Assume that all are at the same temperature.) a. Fe c. Fe2+ 3+ b. Fe d. they have the same radii

48.

When Fe++ changes to Fe+++ in a reaction: a. it losses a proton c. it gains a proton b. it gains an electron d. it losses an electron

49.

Which of the following is a line defect in a lattice crystal structure? a. tilt boundary c. screw dislocation b. vacancy d. Schottky imperfection

50.

Cesium (Cs) and sodium (Na) both have the same valence (+1), yet with chlorine (Cl), cesium has a coordination of 8 in CsCl, while sodium has a coordination number of only 6 in NaCl. What is the main reason for this difference? a. the atomic weight of Cs is larger than the weight of Na b. Cs forms covalent bonds in CsCl c. Cs contains more electrons than Na d. Cs is too large to be coordinated by only 6 chloride ions

51.

Which of the following materials is not a visco-elastic material? a. plastic c. metal b. rubber d. glass

52.

Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the following: a. an atactic configuration of side groups b. small side groups c. only one repeating unit d. small chain length

53.

Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of close-packed planes and close-packed directions? a. simple cubic c. close-packed hexagonal b. body-centered cubic d. face-centered cubic

54.

What is transformed in a eutectoid reaction? a. one solid is transformed into two solids different composition b. a solid becomes a liquid at the eutectic temperature c. a liquid becomes a solid at the solidus temperature d. a solid becomes a liquid at the liquidus temperature

of

55.

On an alloy phase diagram, what is the solidus temperature? a. the point at which all solids completely reach the liquid stage b. the temperature of the liquid phase at which the first solid forms for a given overall composition c. the temperature of the solid phase at which the first liquid forms for a given overall composition d. the temperature at which the solid is at equilibrium

56.

What cubic a. b. c. d.

57.

Which of the following statements is false? a. ceramics are inorganic, nonmetallic solids that are processed or used at high temperatures. b. metals are chemical elements that form substances that are opaque, lustrous and good conductors of heat and electricity. c. most metals are strong, ductile and malleable. In general, they are heavier than most other substances. d. polymers are formed from many atoms with low molecular weight, bonded together by primary valence bonds.

are the most common slip planes for face-centered and body-centered cubic structures, respectively? face-centered: (111), body-centered: (110) face-centered: (100), body-centered: (110) face-centered: (110), body-centered: (111) face-centered: (111), body-centered: (100)

58.

Comparing the face-centered cubic lattice with the hexagonal close-packed lattice, which of the following features describes the hexagonal close-packed structure only? a. it has the closest packed lattice structure b. its coordination number is 12 c. its deformation properties are more directional d. its stacking order is ABCABC

59.

Which of the following accurately describes differences between crystalline polymers and crystals? I. Crystalline polymers are made of folded chains of atoms unlike simple crystals. II. Crystal size can be increased by raising the crystallization temperature only in polymers. III. White simple crystal may be totally crystallized, a polymer can reach only partial crystallization. a. I only c. III only b. II only d. I and III

60.

What is the atomic packaging factor for simple cubic crystal? a. 0.48 c. 0.52 b. 1.00 d. 1.92

61.

How many atoms are in the unit cell of a body-centered cubic structure? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4

62.

How many atoms are there per units cell for a face-centered cubic structure? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4

63.

What is the first coordination number of a body-cubic structure? a. 4 c. 6 b. 8 d. 10

64.

What is the first coordination number if a face-centered cubic structure? a. 2 c. 4

b.

8

d. 12

65.

Which of the following statement is false? a. both copper and aluminum have a face-centered cubic crystal structure. b. both magnesium and zinc have a hexagonal closepacked crystal structure. c. all of the alkali metals have a body-centered cubic crystal structure. d. both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal closepacked crystal structure.

66.

How are the close-packed planes in a face-centered cubic metal designated? a. (100) c. (200) b. (110) d. (111)

67.

Which is Fick’s first law for one-dimensional, steady diffusion? C, is the volume concentration of atoms; x, is the distance along diffusion occurs; D, is the diffusion coefficient; and J is the flux or current density. a. J = -D ∂C/∂x c. J = C ∂D/∂x b. J = -∂C/D∂x d. J = 2D ∂C/D∂x

68.

Which of the following are true about Fick’s first law of diffusion? I. It is only applicable to liquids, not solids. II. The law states that the flux moves from high to low concentration. III. J, the flux may be in units of cm³/cm²s. a. I only c. III only b. II only d. II and III

69.

A substance that losses electron during redox act is: a. oxidizing agent c. reducing agent b. catalyst d. solvent

70.

A substance which changes the speed of a chemical action without itself being changed is called: a. catalyst c. reactant b. additive d. product

71.

It is also called the “laughing gas”. a. Methane c. Cyanic acid

b.

Nitrous oxide

d. Ethane

72.

Which of the following is not an important criterion for forming a complete binary solid solution? a. the difference in radii should be less than 15%. b. the constituent elements must have the same crystal structure. c. the atoms should be close to one another in the periodic table. d. the difference in atomic number should be small.

73.

How can an ordered solid solution be distinguished from a compound? a. In an ordered solid solution, the solute atoms occupy interstitial position within the lattice. b. The solute atoms in an ordered solid solution substitute for atoms in the parent lattice. c. The atoms in an ordered solid solution form layers in the lattice structure. d. When heated, an ordered solid solution becomes disordered before melting.

74.

It is a mixture of two or more non-volatile liquids in which separation takes place very slowly. a. suspension c. solutions b. colloids d. emulsion

75.

This hold a. b. c. d.

76.

It is the property of a solution that depends on the number on solute particles present not on the nature of the particles. a. boiling point c. vapor pressure b. colligative d. osmotic pressure

77.

It is the transfer of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane to equalize the solute concentration on both sides of the membrane. a. osmotic pressure c. evacuation

type of solution contains enough solute a solvent can at a given temperature and pressure. unsaturated solution supersaturated solution saturated solution dilute solution

b.

osmosis

d. transformation

78.

Carrier mobility depends on: a. resistivity b. conductivity c. recombination rate d. temperature and the regularity of the crystal structure

79.

The movement of charges from an area of high carrier concentration to an area of low carrier concentration is called: a. gradient c. recombination b. diffusion d. lifetime

80.

The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion. a. saturation c. adhesion b. absorption d. diffusion

81.

The freezing point of water is 0°C. Its melting point is: a. slightly less than 0°C c. 0°C b. slightly more than 0°C d. 32°C

82.

The materials with the highest heat conductivities are the: a. gases c. liquids b. woods d. metals

83.

The quantum number n of the lowest energy state of a hydrogen atom is: a. 0 b. depends on the orbit size c. 1 d. depends on the electron speed

84.

The number of quantum number needed to determine the size and shape of the probability cloud of an atomic electron is: a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4

85.

Each a. b. c.

probability cloud in an atom can be occupied by: one electron two electrons with spins in the same direction two electrons with spins in opposite direction

d.

any number of electrons

86.

The chemical process which occurs when the water is added to cement is: a. hydration c. oxidation b. Brownian movement d. plastic flow

87.

Superheated vapor behaves a. just as gas b. just as ordinary vapor c. just as steam d. approximately as a gas

88.

The molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 10³ N/m² and 27°C will be a. 41.7 m³/kg mol c. 85.3 m³/kg mol b. 4.17 m³/kg mol d. 2.085 m³/kg mol

89.

Antifreeze chemicals are a. same as refrigerants b. those that are added to refrigerants for better performance c. those that lower down the freezing point of liquids d. those that do not freeze at all

90.

Clog a. b. c. d.

91.

Which of the following gas can be used to measure the lowest temperature? a. nitrogen c. oxygen b. helium d. hydrogen

92.

In actual gases, molecular collisions are a. plastic c. inelastic b. elastic d. inplastic

93.

The opposite of alkali: a. acid

point of an oil refers to the point of maximum contamination of oil the level of impurities beyond which oil ceases to flow the temperature at which oil solidifies the temperature at which paraffin and waxes in oil start precipitating

c. none of these

b.

fluid

d. substance

94.

A kilo mole of methane is 16 kg. compute the density of methane at 20oC and 6 – atm pressure: a. 2.66 kg/m3 c. 6.02 kg/m3 b. 3.33 kg/m3 d. 4.80 kg/m3

95.

A tank having a capacity of 2 cu. ft. is filled with oxygen which has a gauge pressure of 60 psi when the temp. is 47 oC. At a later time it is found that because of the leak the pressure has dropped to 50 psi and the pressure has decreased to 27oC. What is the amount of oxygen that has leak out: a. None of these c. 0.0915 b. 0.0583 d. 0.153

96.

In two molecules of Ba(OH)2 oxygen atoms: a. one b. two

there are _______________ c. four d. seven

97.

In a compound MnCl2 there are _______________ different types of atoms: a. five c. three b. two d. four

98.

In a compound Ba3(PO4)2 there are a total of _____________ atoms: a. Five c. Thirteen b. Twelve d. Ten

99.

Removal of electrons from the neutral atoms increases the positive charge resulting in a positively ion called _____________: a. proton c. anion b. cation d. none of these

100. To determine the molecular formula we must know ______________: a. weight percent composition only b. molecular weight only c. both molecular weight and weight percent composition d. weight percent composition and atomic weight

101. One isotope if the element Uranium has 143 neutrons. Uranium has an atomic number of 92. The mass number of this isotope is _________: a. 143 c. 235 b. 82 d. 51 102. Covalent compounds composed of two elements are called __________: a. diatomic c. binary b. polyatomic d. bielementary 103. In ionic compounds, anions and cations are mixed so that the number of electrons lost in cation formation is ________ to the number of electrons gained in anion formation: a. one half c. one third b. equal d. greater 104. Which is the most toxic? a. O2 b. N2

c. CO2 d. CO

105. A 2-liter sample of argon gas at STP is expanded into a 5-liter flask, with the temperature held constant. What will be the new pressure of the gas? a. 0.4 atm c. 1.0 atm b. 2.4 atm d. 0.2 atm 106. Nitrogen oxides from automobiles are chiefly associated with a pollution problem called _____________: a. acid rain c. smog b. green house effect d. annoying 107. Why is water a liquid, even though it has a low molecular weight? a. it is a hydride b. due to dipole forces c. oxygen is a group of elements d. due to hydrogen bonding 108. Which of the following would you expect to have a highest melting point? a. mercury c. potassium

b.

sodium chloride

d. toe

109. An increase in vapor pressure is accompanied by a decrease in _________: a. volatility c. temperature b. boiling point d. partial pressure 110. Neoprene belongs to which class? a. plastic c. elastic-plastic b. elastic d. rubber-like plastic 111. What is the number of semi-conductors in periodic table? a. 3 c. 5 b. 7 d. 13 112. The process of zinc coating used extensively for protecting steel from atmospheric deterioration is called: a. anodizoing c. galvanizing b. parkerising d. colourizing 113. The properties or effects produced, not essentially in the same order are: a. grain refinement c. temper brittleness b. hardenablity d. rust resistance When the following pairs correctly represents the alloying elements and properties or effect produced by it? a. a – (ii) c. c – (iii) b. b– (iv) d. c– (iv) 114. Which of the following material has density closer to that of gold? a. lead c. chromium b. tungsten d. nichrome 115. Thermosetting polymers are generally: a. injection molded c. cast molded b. extruded d. none of the above 116. Which of the ff. method can NOT be used for thermoplastic materials? a. extrusion c. injection molding b. blow molding d. all of the above

117. Ligancy is: a. the number of atoms (or ions) surrounding and touching a central atom b. a covalent bond between two atoms c. the angle between the two closest directional bonds of an atom d. none of the above 118. The melting point of carbon is about: a. 800 oC c. 2150 oC b. 3500 oC d. 6600 oC 119. Gel is: a. a polymer having side groups distributed randomly along s vinyl polymer chain b. a polymer having secondary chains branching from the molecular chains c. particles linked together and containing a fluid is its interstices a solid framework of colloidal d. a polymer in which the repeating unit of each molecule has vinyl group 120. What is the formula of the compound Carbon Diselinide consisting of Carbon (C) and Selenium (Se)? a. CSe2 c. (CSe)2 b. CSe d. C2Se 121. In preparing a metallographic iron specimen the grain boundaries are made most visible by which of the following steps? a. grinding the sample with silicon carbide abrasive b. polishing the sample with powdered diamond dust in oil c. etching the sample in 2% solution of nitric acid in alcohol d. mounting the sample in an epoxy mold 122. The ratio of oxygen available to the oxygen required for stabilization of sewerage is called: a. relative stability b. oxygen-ion concentration c. concentration factor d. biochemical oxygen

123. The crystalline structure of metals can be modified by several processes. Plastic deformation of the crystalline structure resulting in a misalignment of atoms, dislocations and large stresses, and strains in small regions are characteristics of which process? a. cold forming c. tempering b. twinning d. isostatic pressing 124. It has the highest melting point of all metals a. tungsten c. silver b. copper d. aluminum 125. The formula for Dinitrogen Pentoxide is a. N2O5 c. NO5 b. (NO)5 d. none of these 126. Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the ff? a. an atactic configuration b. small sides group c. only in repeating unit d. small chains lengths 127. Coke may be prepared commercially by the destructive distillation of: a. anthracite coal c. peat b. bituminous d. lignite 128. Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperatures because of which of the ff: a. the molecules are less energetic b. the molecules collide more frequently c. the activation energy is less d. the molecules collide more frequently and the activation energy is less 129. Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is false? a. organic substances generally dissolve in high concentration acids b. all organic matter contain carbon c. organic matter is generally stable at very high temperature

d.

organic matters generally do not dissolve in water

130. A deuteron is: a. a neutron plus two protons b. a nucleus containing a neutron and a proton c. an electron with positive charge d. a helium nucleus 131. Determine the molecular weight of the potassium hexachloroiridate (lV) K2 lrCl6 atomic mass: K = 39.1, lr = 192.22, Cl = 35.453 a. 500 g/mole c. 458.21 g/mole b. 483.12 g/mole d. 485.32 g/mole 132. How much 58.0 % sulfuric acid solution is needed to provide 150 g H2SO4? a. 295 g c. 250 g b. 259 g d. 249 g 133. How sand a. b.

many kg of Ca3(PO4) must be treated with carbon and in an electric furnace to make kg of phosphorous? 4.95 kg c. 5.49 kg 5.01 kg d. 4.5 kg

134. How many grams of 5% NaCl solution by weight are necessary to yield 3.2 g NaCl? a. 46 kg c. 45 kg b. 64 kg d. 50 kg 135. How many grams solute are required to prepare 1 liter of 1 MPb(NO3)2? Molecular weight of Pb(NO3)2 = 331.2: a. 330 g c. 332.1 g b. 331.2 g d. 345 g 136. The density of 2.03 M solution acetic acid in water is 1.017 g/ml. Calculate the molality of the solution: a. 22.7 m c. 0.27 m b. 2.27 m d. 0.0227 m 137. An aqueous solution boils at 100.5 °C. What is the freezing point of the solution? a. –0.182 °C c. 1.82 °C b. –1.82 °C d. 0.018 °C

138. A sample gas occupies 2 liters at 760 mmHg. What is its volume at 1.25 atm at the same temperature? a. 1.06 liters c. 0.160 liter b. 1.60 liters d. 10.6 liters 139. The most satisfactory way to separate and identify sugars is to use: a. Buret reagent c. Fractional crystallization b. Chromatography d. Benedict’s solution 140. In a a. b. c. d.

crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom? a different element at a lattice point an extra atom setting at a non-lattice point an atom is missing at a lattice point a line defect

141. Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic? a. the substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found to have no effect on limestone b. the substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure c. analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen d. the substance floats in water 142. By weight, atmospheric pressure is approximately 23.15% oxygen and 76.85% nitrogen. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the air at standard temperature and pressure? a. 3.8 psia c. 3.4 psia b. 4.4 psia d. 3.1 psia 143. Twenty grams of oxygen gas (02) are compressed at a constant temperature of 30 degree C to 5% of their original volume. Find the work done on the system. a. 944 cal c. 924 cal b. 1124 cal d. 1114 cal 144. Water boils when a. its saturated vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure b. its vapor pressure equals 76 cm of mercury c. its temperature reaches 212 centigrade

the

d.

its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm.

145. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal closepacked crystal structure. b. Both magnesium and zinc have hexagonal close-packed crystal structure. c. Both copper and aluminum have face-centered cubic crystal structure d. All of the alkali metals have a body-centered cubic crystal structure. 146. How many dependents properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound? a. 4 c. 2 b. 3 d. 1 147. 100 grams of water are mixed with 150 g alcohol (ρ = 790 kg/m3). What is the specific volume of the resulting mixture, assuming that the two fluids mix completely? a. 0.63 cm3/g c. 0.82cm3/g b. 1.20 cm3/g d. 0.88 cm3/g 148. In an ideal gas mixture of constituents i and j, what is the mole fraction x1, equal to? a.

P i P  P i j

b.

PV i i RT

c.

T i T  T i j

d.

Z i Z Z i j

149. Which of the following statements is false? a. Ceramics are inorganic, non-metallic solids that are processed or used at high temperatures b. Most metals are strong, ductile and malleable. |In general, they are heavier than most other substances. c. Oxides. Carbides and nitrides are considered to be with in the class of materials known as glasses. d. Metals are chemical elements that from substances that are opaque, lustrous and good conductors of heat and the electricity.

150. Whish are the oxidizing and reducing agent in the following reaction? 2CCl4 + K2CrO4  2Cl2CO + CrO2Cl2 + 2KCl a. Oxidizing agent: oxygen; reducing agent: chloride b. Oxidizing agent: chromium; reducing agent: chloride c. Oxidizing agent: oxygen; reducing agent: chloride d. There are no oxidizing or reducing agents in the reaction 151. When 0.5 g of a liquid is completely evaporated and collected in a 1 liter manometer, the pressure is 0.25 atm and the temperature is 27 deg C. Assume ideal gas behavior, find the molecular weight, the gas constant is R = 0.0821 l-atm/mole K a. 49.2 g/mole c. 2.2 g/mole b. 12.3 g/mole d. 64.0 g/mole 152. Which of the following reactions relate to the softening procedure in water purification? a. 2H2O + O2  2H2O2 b. Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3 + H2O c. CO2 + Ca (OH)2  CaCO3 + H2O d. NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O 153. One method of removing moisture from air is to cool the air so that the moisture condenses or freeze out. To what temperature must air at 100 atm be cooled at constant pressure in order to obtain in a humidity ratio of 0.0001? a. 58 degree F c. 35 degree F b. 47 degree F d. 22 degree F 154. A blue color obtained as a result of the borax bead test indicates the presence of: a. cobalt c. aluminum b. magnesium d. nickel 155. In a a. b. c. d.

crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom? A different element at a lattice joint An extra atom setting at a non-lattice joint An atom missing at a lattice joint A line defect

156. The most satisfactory way to separate and identify sugar is to use a. Biuret reagent c. Chromatography b. Frantional crystallization d. Benedict’s solution 157. Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic? a. The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure b. The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found to have no effect on limestone c. Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen d. The substance floats in water 158. Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas? a. PV = nRT b. An increase in temperature causes increases in the kinetic energy of the gas c. The total volume of molecules in a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as a whole d. No attractive forces exist between the molecules of a gas 159. Which of the following statements is true for real gas, but not for an ideal gas? a. pV – nRT b. an increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas c. the total volume of molecules in a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as a whole d. no attractive forces exist between the molecules of a gas 160. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and reform reactants. b. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero c. The differential rate low is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on volume d. The net at which a reaction proceeds from the left to right is equal to the forward rate minus the reverse rate

161. What cubic a. b.

is the first coordination number of BODY-CENTERED structure? 10 c. 6 4 d. 8

162. For an ideal gas, what is the specific molar entropy change during an isothermal process in which the pressure change from 200 kPa to 150 kPa called? a. 2.39 J/mole-K c. 2.00 J/mole-K b. 2.78 J/mole-K d. 3.12 J/mole-K 163. The ores from which the zinc is obtained is: a. Sphalerite c. Pyrite b. Magnetite d. Dolomite 164. Tin is produced from a. Cassiterite b. Bauxite

c. Sphalerite d. Magnetite

165. Determine the volume occupied by 4 grams of oxygen at STP. Molecular weight of oxygen is 32. Standard molar volume of any gas 22.4 liters/mol. a. 4.8 liters c. 2.8 liters b. 3.6 liters d. 1.4 liters 166. Determine the formula weight of potassium hexachloroiridate (IV), K2IrCl6. Atomic weights: K = 39.098; Ir = 1922.22; Cl = 35.453 a. 86.089 c. 387.344 b. 285.799 d. 483.14 167. A seated tank contains oxygen at 27 deg C at a pressure of 2 atm. If the temperature increases to 100 deg C. What will be the pressure inside the tank? a. 4.92 atm c. 2.49 atm b. 4.29 atm d. 9.24 atm 168. An ideal gas at 0.60 atmosphere and at 87 deg C occupies 0.450 liter. How many moles are in the sample? (R = 0.0821 1-atm/mole-K) a. 0.0198 mole c. 0.0091 mole b. 0.0002 mole d. 0.0378 mole

169. When 50 L of air at STP is isothermally compressed to 10 L, how much heat must flow from the gas? (Patm = 100 lPa). a. 8.35 kJ c. 8.05 kJ b. 8.23 kJ d. 8.48 kJ 170. How much 58% sulfuric acid solution is needed to provide 150 gram of H2SO4? a. 240 grams c. 180 grams b. 215 grams d. 259 grams 171. At STP a gas occupies 0.213 liters. How many moles are there in this sample of gas? a. 0.9050 mole c. 0.0890 mole b. 0.0089 mole d. 0.0095 mole 172. A liter of sample of air at 1 atm. Pressure is allowed to expand isothermally into a 20 liters vessel. What will its new pressure be? a. 0.25 atm. c. 2.0 atm. b. 1.5 atm. d. 0.5 atm. 173. In the periodic table of elements, which of the following is NOT a transition metals? a. copper c. silver b. sodium d. nickel 174. In the periodic table of elements, which one of the following elements DOES NOT belong to group IIA? a. calcium c. radium b. sodium d. magnesium 175. A cylinder contains oxygen (O2) at a pressure of 10 atm and a temperature of 300°K. The volume of the cylinder is 10 liters. What is the mass of oxygen? MW of O° is 32 g/mole. a. 120.08 g c. 130.08 g b. 125.08 g d. 135.08 g 176. When 10.0 g of silicon dust, Si, is exploded with 100.0 g of oxygen, O2 , forming silicon dioxide, SiO2, how many grams of O2 remain uncombined? The reaction of the equation is: Si + 02  SiO2. The MW of Si = 28, MW of O2 = 32 a. 85.8 g c. 87.8 g b. 86.5 g d. 88.5 g

177. Which of the following is NOT related to crystallization? a. hot working c. elastic modulus b. cold working d. melting temperature 178. What is the molarity of a solution of 600 g of H 2SO4 (which has a specific gravity of 1.83) dissolved in 3 l of water? a. 1.84 M c. 3.09 M b. 2.04 M d. 4.00 M 179. 0.064 kg of octane vapor (MW = 114) is mixed with 0.91 kg of air (MW = 29.0) in the manifold of an engine. The total pressure in the manifold is 86.1 kPa, and the temperature is 290°K. Assume octane behaves ideally. What is the total volume of this mixture? a. 0.652 m3 c. 0.895 m3 b. 0.722 m3 d. 0.563 m3 180. 0.064 kg of octane vapor (MW = 114) is mixed with 0.19 kg of air (MW = 29.0) in the manifold of an engine. The local pressure in the manifold is 86.1 kPa, and the temperature is 290°K. Assume octane behaves ideally. What is the partial pressure of the air in the mixture? a. 64.8 kPa c. 48.6 kPa b. 84.6 kPa d. 46.8 kPa 181. The RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at N.T.P. is approximately a. 3838 m/s c. 4839 m/s b. 1839 m/s d. 839 m/s 182. What is the RMS velocity of 275°K argon (MW = 39.9) molecules? a. 313.7 m/sec c. 616.7 m/sec b. 515.7 m/sec d. 414.7 m/sec 183. What is the RMS velocity of oxygen at 700F? a. 448 m/sec c. 479 m/sec b. 568 m/sec d. 864 m/sec 184. What is the molarity of ethanol in 90% proof whisky? Density of alcohol = 98g/ml. a. 8.73 M c. 8.37 M b. 3.78 M d. 7.83 M

185. Two liquids mixed together with densities of 500 kg/m 3 and 1500 kg/m3 until the 100liter container was full and their joint density becomes 500 kg/m3. What are the masses of two liquids? a. 49 kg, 50 kg c. 32 kg, 46kg b. 35 kg, 45 kg d. 30kg, 50 kg 186. Acid turns litmus paper into ________. a. red c. blue b. yellow d. green 187. A mixture of 35% ethyl alcohol, 15% sulfuric acid, and 50% water, the molecular weight of the ethyl alcohol is 46. What is the MOL concentration of ethyl alcohol if the total mixture concentration is 3.724? a. 0.314 c. 0.625 b. 0.288 d. 0.204 188. The molecular diameter of CO is 3.19 x 10 –8 mm at 300 K and the given pressure of the 100 mm Hg. What is the mean free path of the gas in the cm? a. 2.86 x 10-3 c. 6.86 x 10-6 -3 b. 6.86 x 10 d. 6.86 x 10-9 189. The molecular diameter of CO is 3.19 x 10-8 at 300 K and pressure of 100 mmHg. What is the number of biomolecular collisions? a. 1.02x1024 c. 2.12x1020 b. 2.12x1026 d. 1.12x1027 190. At STP, the density of chlorine is 3.22 kg/m 3. What weight of gas is contained in a flask of 100 cm3 at 24°C and 100 kPa? a. 0.321 gram c. 0.563 gram b. 0.420 gram d. 0.292 gram 191. Hydrogen peroxide solution for hair bleaching is usually prepared by mixing 5.0 g of hydrogen peroxide (H 2O2) molecular weight = 43 g/mole) per 100 ml of solution. What is the molarity of this solution? a. 1.0 M c. 2.0 M b. 1.5 M d. 2.5 M

192. The miller indices of a crystal is (2,1,0) what does (2,1,0) mean? a. (2,1,0) 1/5 : 1/7 : 1/40 b. (2,1,0) 1 ½ : 1/1 : 1/ c. (2,1,0) 1/9 : 1/6 : 1/10 d. (2,1,0) 1/2 : 1/6 : 1/ 193. What radioactive delay is described by the capture of electron from the inner shells? a. Beta decay c. electron capture b. Gamma decay d. electromagnetic radiation 194. One-half of a molecular weight of a perfect gas exists at a pressure of 100 psia. A heat transfer of 200 BTU at constant volume causes the temperature to change by 100°F. Find the specific heat for constant pressure processes on a molar basis. a. 8 BTU/pmole-°R c. 4 BTU/p/mole-°R b. 6 BTU/pmole-°R d. 12 BTU/pmole-°R 195. Are hydrocarbons containing one or more carbon – carbon triple bonds? a. acid c. alkenes b. alkali d. alkynes 196. Determine the specific gravity of carbon dioxide (150°F, 20 psi) using STP air as a reference: a. 1.7 c. 1.85 b. 1.8 d. 1.87 197. What is the subject which covers the retirement of pure metals from their ores? a. Oreic Metallurgy b. Refinement Metallurgy c. Extractive Metallurgy d. Pure Metallurgy 198. The energy change that a occurs when electron is added to gaseous atom or ion is called… a. Electromotive force c. Electron density b. Electron capture d. Electron affinity

199. A large Molecule with two alternating Mers is know as… a. Monomers b. Elastomer c. Mers d. Copolymer or interpolymer 200. The ore from which aluminum is obtained is a. Bauxite c. Galena b. Cassiterite d. Sphalerite 201. Two thirds of the atom in molecule of water (H 2O) are hydrogen. What percentage of the weight of water molecule is the weight of the two hydrogen atoms? The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1.008g/mole and of oxygen is 16.00 g/mole. a. 12.19% c. 19.00% b. 11.19% d. 19.12% 202. The atomic weight of iron is 55,847 amu. If one has 6.02 g of iron. How many atoms are present? a. 6.49 x 1022 c. 6.49 x 1024 b. 6.49 x 1023 d. 6.49 x 1025 203. Is accomplished by heating raw rubber with small amounts of sulfur? a. Polymerization c. Sulfurization b. Vulcanization d. Monomerization 204. If 20 ml of 0.5N salt solution is diluted to 1 liter, what is the new concentration? a. 0.02 N c. 0.03 N b. 0.04 N d. 0.01 N 205. Which one of the following elements is NOT radioactive? a. Californium c. Plutonium b. Cobalt d. Uranium 206. The number of bonds in the mer that can be broken open for attachment to the other mer is known as the: a. property of the mer b. proportionality of the mer c. functionality of the mer d. crystallinity of the mer

CIVIL ENGINEERING PROBLEMS 207. Which dam can only be used in narrow canyons? a. Gravity c. buttress b. arch d. earth 208. The sheet of water which is flowing over the crest of a dam or weir. a. overtop c. nappe b. overflow d. apex 209. To which of the following is the large discrepancy between the actual and theoretical strengths of metals mainly be attributed? a. heat c. dislocations b. low density d. stress direction 210. A shaft made of good quality steel breaks in half due to fatigue. What would the surface of the fracture site look like? a. like a cup and cone b. quite smooth to the unaided eye, yet ripples are apparent under low power magnification c. smooth over most of the surface although it appears torn at the location of the fracture. d. very jagged and rough 211. Low carbon steels are generally used in the “as roiled” or “as fabricate” state. What is the reason for this? a. they come in many different shapes and thickness b. their strength generally cannot be increased by heat treatment c. they degrade severely under heat treatment d. their chromium content is low 212. In preparing a metallographic iron specimen, the grain boundaries are made most visible by which of the following steps? a. grinding the sample with silicon carbide abrasive b. polishing the sample with Al2O3 c. mounting the sample in an epoxy resin mold d. etching the sample in a 2% solution of nitric acid in alcohol

213. The equilibrium cooling of steel containing 0.8% carbon results in a product with little use because it is extremely brittle. Which of the following is the primary reason for this poor characteristic? a. the material has not been cold-worked b. the austenite grains are too small, carbide grains are too large c. thick layers of iron carbide surround the coarse ferrite grains d. the carbide forms thin plates that are brittle 214. Ductile cast iron and gray cast iron both contain 4% carbon. Ductile cast iron however, has a higher tensile strength and is considerably more ductile. Which of the following is the major difference that accounts for the superior properties of the ductile iron? a. the gray cast iron contains iron carbide, whereas the ductile iron contains graphite b. the gray cast iron contains flakes of graphite, whereas the ductile iron contains spheroids of graphite c. the ductile iron is tempered to give better properties d. the ferrite grains in the gray cast iron are excessively large 215. The simple mathematical statement of the relationship between elastic stress and strain: stress is proportional to strain. What is the law? a. Boyle’s law c. Charles’ Law b. Hooke’s law d. Gas Law 216. For elastic materials, which law relates stress and strain? a. Poisson’s law c. Hooke’s law b. Gauss’ law d. Dalton’s law 217. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is removed, the strain disappears. From this information, which of the following can be deducted about this material? a. it has a high modulus of elasticity b. it is elastic c. it does not obey Hooke’s law d. it is plastic

218. Under which type of loading does fatigue occurs? a. static load c. plane load b. high load d. repeated load 219. In bending of a rectangular beam under axial loading, where is the location of the maximum shear stress? a. at the top edge b. at the bottom edge c. at the natural axis d. at a location between the top edge and the natural axis 220. What type of materials usually has a higher index of refraction? a. lighter materials c. heavier materials b. denser materials d. less dense materials 221. The bulk modulus of elasticity: a. is larger when the fluid is more compressible b. increase with the pressure c. has the dimensions 1/p d. is independent of temperature 222. In general, what are the effects of a cold-working metal? a. increased strength and ductility b. increased strength, decreased ductility c. decreased strength and ductility d. decreased strength, increased ductility 223. Which of the following would most likely require a steel containing 0.6% carbon that has been spheroidized, colddown, and slightly tempered? a. a bridge beam c. a water pipe b. a cutting tool d. a ball bearing 224. Which word combination best completes the following sentence? “Plastic deformation of a single crystal occurs by ______ or by ______, but ______ is the more common method.” a. high pressure; high temperature; high pressure b. high temperature; high pressure; high temperature c. slip; twinning; slip d. twinning; slip; twinning

225. In a stress-strain diagram, what is the correct term for the stress level at Є = 0.2% offset? a. the elastic limit c. the plastic limit b. the offset rupture stress d. the offset yield stress 226. Which of the following best describes the 0.2% offset yield stress? a. it is the elastic limit after which a measurable plastic strain has occurred. b. it is the stress at which the material plastically strains 0.2%. c. it is the stress at which the material elastically strains 0.2%. d. it is 0.2% below the fracture point of the material. 227. Which of the following is true regarding the ductile to brittle transition temperature? I. It is important for structures used in cold environments. II. It is important at which the size of the shear lip or tearing rim goes to zero. III. It is the temperature at which 20 Joules of energy causes failure in a Charpy v-notch specimen of standard dimensions. a. I only c. I and II b. II and III d. I and III 228. The ease with which dislocations are able to move through a crystal under stress accounts for which of the following? I. Ductility II. Lower yield strength III. Hardness a. I only c. II only b. III only d. I and III 229. Which of the following are true statements about the modulus of elasticity, E? a. it is the same as the rupture modulus. b. it is the slope of the stress-strain diagram in the linearly elastic region. c. it is the ratio of stress to volumetric strain. d. it is dimensionless.

230. Which one of these statements is true for twinning? a. it occurs at a lower shear stress than slip. b. it is the most significant form of plastic deformation. c. it cannot be caused by impact or thermal treatment. d. it frequently occurs in hexagonal close-packed structures. 231. What is the proper relationship between the modulus of elasticity, E, the Poisson ratio, v, the bulk modulus of elasticity, K? a. E = K (1-2v) c. E = K (1-v) b. E = 3K (1-2v) d. E = 3K (1-v) 232. Given that d is the distance between dislocations, and b is the Burgers vector, what is the expression for the misorientation angle, θ, of a tilt boundary? a. sin θ = d/b c. tan θ = b/d b. θ = b/d d. θ = d/b 233. Which of the following does cold-working cause? a. elongation of grains in the flow direction, an increase in dislocation density and an overall increase in energy of the metal. b. elongation of grains in the flow direction, a decrease in dislocation density and an overall decrease in energy of the metal. c. elongation of grains in the flow direction, a decrease in dislocation density and an overall increase in energy of the metal. d. shortening of grains in the flow direction, a decrease in dislocation density and an overall decrease in energy of the metal. 234. Which of the following statements is false? a. the amount or percentage of cold-work cannot be obtained from information about change in area or thickness of a metal. b. the process of applying force to a metal at temperatures below the temperature of crystallization in order to plastically deform the metal is called coldworking. c. annealing eliminates most of the defects caused by the cold-working of the metal.

d.

annealing reduces the hardness of the metal.

235. Which of the following statements is false? a. there are considerable increase in the hardness and strength of a cold-worked metal. b. cold-working a metal significantly reduces its ductility. c. cold-working causes a slight decrease in the density and electrical conductivity of a metal. d. cold-working decreases the yield point of the metal. 236. Which of the following statements is false? a. hot-working increases the density of the metal. b. one of the primary goals of hot-working is to produced a fine-grained product. c. in hot-working, no noticeable changes in mechanical properties occur. d. hot-working causes much strain hardening of the metal. 237. Which of the following statements is false? a. grain size is of minor importance in considering the properties of polycrystalline materials. b. fine-grained materials usually exhibit greater yield stresses than coarse-grained materials at low temperature. c. at high temperatures, grain boundaries become weak and sliding occurs. d. grain sliding can cause the formation of voids along the boundary. 238. Which of the following correctly describes atoms located at grain boundaries? a. they are subjected to the same type of interatomic forces that are present in the interior atoms of the crystal. b. they are located primarily in highly strained and distorted positions. c. they are oriented so as to attain a minimum energy state. d. all of the above.

239. Which of the following describe the modulus of elasticity of an elastomer? I. It is directly proportional to the number of cross links in the elastomer. II. Its value increases with temperature. III. It is directly proportional to the number of double bonds in the chemical structure. a. I only c. II only b. III only d. I and II 240. Two pieces of copper are brazed together using a eutectic alloy of copper and silver. The braze material melts at 780°C. If a second braze is attempted in order to attach another piece of copper, which of the following is true? a. the first will melt if the braze temperature is again 780°C. b. the braze temperature must be lowered below 780°C. c. the first braze will partially melt, causing the parts to slide. d. the first blaze will not melt at 780°C, but the second braze will. 241. Which of the following statements is false? a. low-alloy steels are minor group and rarely used. b. low-alloy steels are used in the heat-treated condition. c. low-alloy steels contain small amounts of nickel and chromium. d. the addition of small amounts of molybdenum to lowalloy steels makes it possible to harden and strengthen thick pieces of the metal by heat treatment. 242. Which of the following statements is false? a. high-strength low-alloy steels are not as strong as nonalloy low carbon steels. b. small amounts of copper increase the tensile strength of steels. c. small amounts of silicon in steel have little influence on toughness or fabricability.

d.

additions of small amounts of silicon to steel can cause a marked decreased in yield strength of the steel.

243. Which of the following statements is false? a. stainless steel contain large amounts of chromium. b. there are three basic types of stainless steels: martensitic, austenitic, and ferritic. c. the non-magnetic stainless steels contain large amounts of nickel. d. stabilization of the face-centered cubic crystals structure of stainless steels imparts a non-magnetic characteristic to the alloy. 244. For a completely corrosion-resistant stainless steel, what minimum percentage of chromium in the alloy is required? a. 1.1% c. 3.2% b. 8.3% d. 11% 245. Which term describes a material whose property depends on the direction of the stress? a. anisotropic c. isotropic b. symmetrical d. asymmetrical 246. The property that characterizes a material’s ability to be drawn into a wire is its: a. tensile stress c. ductility b. thermal conductivity d. impact strength 247. Which of the following treatments will result in an increase in fatigue strength of steel? a. annealing c. shot peening b. cold-working d. hot-working 248. Compressive strength of fully cured concrete is most directly related to: a. sand-gravel ratio c. fineness modulus b. water-cement ratio d. aggregate gradation 249. In Mohr’s circle, the distance of the center of the circle from the y-axis is given by:

a.

(px - py)

b.

(px + py)

(px  py) 2 (px  py) d. 2

c.

250. Fixing both ends of a simply supported beams that has only a concentrated load at midspan will increase the allowable load by: a. 25% c. 100% b. 50% d. 200% 251. The ratio of the average shear stress to the maximum shear stress for a circular section is equal to a. 2 c. 3/2 b. 2/3 d. 3/4 252. When a solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces of the same type on all its faces, the ratio of the volumetric strain/linear strain along any of the 3 axes will be equal to a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 3 253. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod during tensile stress is a. a straight line c. a sudden break b. a parabola d. an irregular curve 254. When shear force is zero along a section, the bending moment at that section will be a. zero c. maximum b. minimum d. minimum or maximum 255. The relation between modulus of elasticity, E, modulus of elasticity is shear, G, bulk modulus of elasticity, K, and Poisson’s ratio is given by a. E = Gμ c. E = 2G (μ+1) b. E = G (μ + 1) d. E = 4G (1 + 2μ) 256. The configuration of a column so that it has a uniform strength throughout its length, L, under its own weight (w per unit volume of column material), and an applied stress, p, on its top is given by a. A2 = A1 e x ewL/p c. A2 = A1 x LeT/y b. A2 = A1(wL/p) d. A2 = A1 x ewL/p

257. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel as compared to its ultimate compressive stress will be a. same c. less b. more d. more or less 258. Percentage reduction of area while performing tensile stress test on cast iron may be the order of a. 50% c. 0% b. 25% d. 15% 259. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known as a. unit stress c. modulus of rigidity b. bulk modulus d. modulus of elasticity 260. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in tension is nearly a. same c. one-third b. half d. two-thirds 261. When a part is constrained to move and heated, it develops a. principal stress c. compressive stress b. tensile stress d. shear stress 262. The tensile stress of a material is given by a.

maximum load during test area at the time of fracture

b.

average load during test original cross  sectional area

c.

average load during test area at the time of fracture

d.

maximum load during test original cross  sectional area

263. The size of hole that is drilled in plates for riveting is a. equal to the diameter of rivet shrank b. slightly smaller than the diameter of rivet shrank c. 1.5 to 2 mm smaller than the diameter of rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size d. 1.5 to 2 mm larger than the diameter of rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size

264. The horsepower that can be transmitted by a shaft 60 mm in diameter at 180 rpm with permissible shear stress of 850 kg/cm² shall be approximately a. 30-35 c. 50-60 b. 35-50 d. 60-85 265. If the torsional resisting moment of a section with b as the characteristic parameter and S as stress is equal to 2/9 b³S, then the section must be a. octagonal c. triangular b. hexagonal d. square 266. A column is called short column when a. the length is more than 30 times the diameter b. slenderness ratio is more than 120 c. the length is less than 8 times the diameter d. the slenderness ratio is more than 32 267. Which one is the incorrect statement about true stress-strain method? a. it is more sensitive to change the mechanical condition b. this method can be used for compression test as well c. true stress is load per unit area (actual) and similarly, true strain is determined under actual conditions d. there is no such phenomenon like true stress or true strain 268. The total strain energy stored in a body is called a. impact energy c. proof resilience b. modulus of resilience d. resilience 269. Strain energy stored in a body of volume V with stress s because gradually applied load is given by a. b.

8E v sE² v

sv² E 8²v d. 2E

c.

270. A material that is capable of absorbing a large quantity of energy before fracture possesses the property called a. ductility c. resilience b. toughness d. shock proof 271. Coaxing increases the

a. b. c. d.

strength by reversible cycling corrosion resistance by spraying hardness by surface treatment fatigue resistance by over-stressing the metal by successively increasing loadings

272. For a vertical hanging bar having a length l and weighing w kg/unit length and carrying a load W at the bottom, the tensile force at distance y from support in the bar will be given by y l

a.

W

c. (w + W)

b.

W + wl

d. W + w(l-y)

273. With a punch for which the maximum crushing stress is 4 times the maximum shearing stress of the plate, the biggest hole that can be punched in the plate will have a diameter given by a. b.

plate thickness 4 plate thickness 2

c. plate thickness d. 2 x plate thickness

274. Two shafts made up of mild steel, one having a circular crosssection and the other being hollow circular with inner diameter half of the outer diameter. The ratio of the torque that can be transmitted in the two cases is given by a. 2 c. 17/16 b. 1 d. 15/16 275. The volumetric strain for a thin spherical shell is given by a. b.

pr 1 |1  | 2t m 3pr 1 |1  | 2t m

pr 1 |1  | 3t m 2pr 1 |1  | d. 3t m

c.

276. For a thin walled cylinder, the ratio of the longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is given by a. b.

m 1 3m  4 2m  1 m5

m 1 5m  1 m2 d. 5m  4

c.

277. For a thin walled cylinder, the ratio of the hoop strain to volumetric strain is given by a. b.

m 1 3m  5 4m  5 3m  2

m 1 5m  4 3m  1 d. 5m  4

c.

278. For a circular shaft subjected to torque, the value of shear stress a. is uniform throughout b. has a maximum value at the surface c. varies linearly from axis to surface d. is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a maximum value at the surface of the shaft 279. In laminated springs, the strips are provided in different lengths for a. economy b. reduction in weight c. improved appearance d. equal distribution of stress 280. Select the one for which diamond riveted joints can be adopted. a. all type of joints c. double riveted joint b. lap joint d. butt joint 281. If b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting of diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is given by a. b.

bd b bd b

282. Hoop stress refers to a. longitudinal stress b. radial stress

db b bd d. d

c.

c. compressive stress d. circumferential stress

283. A rectangular plate 8 cm long and 6 cm wide were subjected to normal forces of 600 kg at the 6 cm side and 200 kg at the 8 cm side. The normal and tangential components of the force on the diagonal plane are a. 200 kg and 600 kg c. 520 kg and 360 kg b. 800 kg and 400 kg d. unpredictable

284. For a perfect frame having N joints, the number of members should not be less than a. 2N-1 c. 2N-2 b. 2N-3 d. 2N-5

285. A rigid steel plate is supported by 3 concrete poles each with a 10 cm x 10 cm square cross-section. However, the middle post is 0.5 cm shorter than the other two before a load P is applied. The working stress is concrete in compression is 200 kg/cm³ and the modulus of elasticity E C is equal to 12 x 106 kg/cm². The safe value of load P would be a. 30,000 kg c. 50,000 kg b. 40,000 kg d. 70,000 kg 286. The extension of the circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d1 to d2 is the same as that of uniform circular bar of diameter d1  d2 a. c. d1d2 2 d1  d2 b. d. d12  d22 2 287. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of a. linear stress to longitudinal strain b. stress to volumetric strain c. shear stress to shear strain d. stress to strain 288. A tapered bar of length l has diameters D and d at ends when subjected to axial load F, then the elongation produced will be equal to a.

16

b.

pl Dd

pl Dd

pl Dd pl d. Dd

c.

289. Strain energy is stored in a hollow shaft having outer diameter D and inner diameter d when subjected to shear stress of s. If the modulus of rigidity of the shaft material is C, then the strain energy stored in the shaft will be given by

a. b.

s² | D  d | CD s² | D²  d² | 4CD

c.

s² | D²  d² | 4Cd s²Dd

d. 4C | D  d |

290. The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its center of gravity is given by a. b.

d³ 16 d³ 32

d³ 64 πd³ d. 192

c.

291. 1 Mega Newton per square meter is equal to: a. 1,000,000N/mm² c. 100N/mm³ b. 10,000N/mm² d. 1 N/mm² 292. The value of shear stress change is induced in the shaft because of the applied couple that a. from maximum of the center to zero at the circumference b. from zero at the center to maximum at the circumference c. from maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference d. from minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference 293. In the design of a pulley, key and shaft a. all three are designed for the same strength b. key is made the weaker link c. pulley is made weaker d. shaft is made weaker 294. When a member is subjected to tensile force F and its normal cross-section perpendicular to line of force A, the resulting normal stress in an oblique plane inclined at angle θ to traverse plane will be given by a. b.

P cos 2θ 2A P sin² θ A

c.

P sin 2θ 2A P cos² θ d. A

295. Mohr’s circle can be used to find out the following stress in an inclined surface: a. principal stress c. maximum shear stress b. normal stress d. all of the above 296. For a beam of length L that is supported at each end carries a distributed load given by wx  sin

x , where x is measured L

from A. The equation for the bending moment is equation: x L wcoswL L wL x cos  L

wx  wsin

a. b.

c.

wL2 x sin  L

d.

wL2 x sin 2  L

297. The elongation of the conical bar under its own weight is equal to a. that of a prismatic bar of the same length b. one third that of a prismatic bar of the same length c. one fourth that of a prismatic bar of the same length d. one sixth that of a prismatic bar of the same length 298. For a material having E = 11000 tonnes t/cm² and C = 430 t/cm², the Poisson’s ratio will be a. 43/55 c. 31/43 b. 12/43 d. 12/55 299. Section modulus of a rectangular beam is given by a. (BH²)/12 c. (HB²)/6 b. (H²B²)/6 d. (BH²)/6 300. Section modulus of hollow circle, having an average diameter “d” and a wall thickness “t”, is given by a. (5/4) td² c. (4/5) t²d² b. (4/5) dt² d. (4/5) td² 301. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder is a. maximum at the inner and outer surfaces and minimum at the middle b. minimum at the inner and outer surfaces and maximum at the middle

c. d.

minimum at the inner surface and increases towards the outer surface maximum at the inner surface and decreases towards the outer surface

302. Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at any point in the thickness of the cylinder, the radial stress s r and hoop stress sh are related as a. sr/sh = constant c. (sr – sh)/ sh = constant b. sr + sh = constant d. sr – sh = constant 303. According to Lame’s equation, hoop stress for a thick cylinder at any point at a radius r from the center is given by a. b/r + a c. b/r² - a b. b/r – a d. b/r² + a 304. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness t when subjected to internal pressure p, if the Poisson’s ratio of material is μ, the circumferential or hoop strain is a. pd(1/2 – μ)/4tE c. pd(1 - 2μ)/4tE b. pd(1/2 – μ)/2tE d. pd(1 - 2μ)/2tE 305. Auto a. b. c. d.

frottage is the method of calculating stresses in thick cylinders relieving thick cylinders pre-stressing thick cylinders increasing life of thick cylinders

306. Maximum deflection in the cantilever because of pure bending moment M and its end is given by a. MI²/6EI c. MI²/3EI b. MI²/4EI d. MI²/2EI 307. Maximum slope for a cantilever of length l with a load P at its end is given by a. PI²/EI c. PI²/3EI b. PI²/2EI d. PI²/4EI 308. Ties are load carrying members that carry a. torsional loads c. axial tension loads b. axial compressive loads d. transverse loads

309. If D is the diameter of a coil of a close coiled helical spring and total angle of twist is full length be θ, then deflection of spring is given by a. (D/2)θ c. D² θ/2 b. 2Dθ d. Dθ 310. If the areas of cross-sections of square and circular beams are the same and both are put to equal bending moment, then the correct statement is a. the circular beam is more economical b. the square beam is more economical c. both the beams are equally strong d. both the beams are equally economical 311. I a quantity which measure the resistance of the mass to being revolved about the line: a. modulus of elasticity c. strain b. stress d. moment of inertia 312. Bicycle frame pipes are made of: a. cast iron c. hot rolled steel b. cold rolled steel d. carbon-chrome steel 313. Which one is the unit of retentivity? a. Weber b. Weber-meter c. Weber per meter d. Weber per square meter 314. Charpy test is associated with which property of materials? a. Hardness c. Brittleness b. Malleability d. wire drawing 315. Tin-cadmium-zinc solder if preferred for: a. aluminum and its alloys b. copper and its alloys c. platinum and tungsten d. steel 316. Classification f concrete with 1:2.5:5 mix proportion is: a. class AAA c. class A b. class AA d. class B

317. The type of testing in determining the compressive strength of concrete is: a. slump test c. boring test b. cylindrical test d. geotesting 318. The elastic strain of a material based on Hooke’s law is limited within the: a. elastic limit c. ultimate limit b. yield limit d. breaking limit 319. In the Philippines, the standard mass of 1 bag of cement is: a. 40 kg c. 50 kg b. 45 kg d. 60 kg 320. In fresh concrete mix, slump test is the appropriate method of determining the: a. compressive strength of concrete b. consistency of concrete c. tensile strength of concrete d. all of these 321. The weight of a pile driver that depends on the gravity for its striking power and is used to drive piles into the ground is: a. pile dike c. pile cap b. pile hammer d. pile bent 322. For most grade of steel, the modulus of elasticity is: a. 200,000 Mpa c. 200 kPa b. 200 Mpa d. 20 Gpa 323. The type of weld used for a lap joint at the end of the metal places is: a. groove weld c. plug weld b. fillet weld d. slot weld 324. The twisting moment of a shaft is ______________ proportional to horsepower and ______________ proportional to speed: a. inversely, inversely c. inversely, directly b. directly. Directly d. directly, inversely 325. White metal is widely used for a. soldering

c. bearing

b.

brazing

d. painting

326. Galvanizing is the process of coating materials with a layer of: a. aluminum c. zinc b. copper d. nickel 327. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break a. by forming a bulge b. by shearing along an oblique plane c. into large number of pieces d. in the direction along the direction of the load 328. Which of the following is not a cold working process? a. swaging c. knurling b. spinning d. wire drawing 329. The behavior of visco elastic material is: a. time dependent c. ductile b. independent of time d. plastic 330. The phenomenon of age hardening is associated with: a. German silver c. duralumin b. gin metal d. cast iron 331. It is the internal resisting moment of a beam. It is possible in sense to the bending moment but of the same magnitude: a. strain b. moment of resistance c. elastic unit d. modulus of elasticity 332. A foundation 30 ft. long, 12 ft. wide, and 9 ft. deep is to be composed of 1:2:4 concrete. How much gravel in cu.yds. will be required? a. 150 c. 110 b. 120 d. 100 333. The change in length per unit degree rise in temperature a. volume expansibility c. ideal gas temperature b. linear expansibility d. temperature scale 334. Is the change in shape of any materials when subjected to the action of a force: a. moment of inertia c. modulus of elasticity

b.

strain

335. Constantan contains: a. copper and nickel b. copper and tungsten

d. stress c. tungsten and silver d. silver and tin

336. The process which steel is coated by a thin layer of phosphate is called: a. anodizing c. phosphorizing b. parkerising d. sheradizing 337. The material which show the same elastic properties in all direction are known as: a. isentropic c. inelastic b. isotropic d. visco elastic 338. What element is known to be the lightest metal: a. aluminum c. manganese b. magnesium d. lithium 339. A cube wood floating in water the mass is removed, the cube of the cube: a. 20 cm b. 15 cm

supports a 200 g mass, when rises 2 cm. Determine the size c. 10 cm d. 25 cm

340. A gold ring set with a diamond has a mass of 4 grams and when immersed in water, it weighs 3.72 grams. Find the mass of diamond if specific gravity of gold is 19.3 and that of diamond is 3.6: a. 0.831 gram c. 0.511 gram b. 0.311 gram d. 0.711 gram 341. According to Mohr’s scale, diamond is given hardness number of: a. 0 c. 1 b. 10 d. 100 342. Under very slow deformation and at high temperatures, it is possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a shear stress lower than the critical shear stress. What is the phenomenon called: a. bending c. twining b. slip d. creep

343. What is the ratio of stress to strain below the proportional limit called? a. Poisson ratio c. Hooke’s constant b. Young’s modulus d. Modulus of rigidity 344. For Brinell hardness test, we use: a. a ball of 10 mm diameter b. a diamond cone of 120 degree c. a diamond cone of 136 degree d. a ball of 1.5875 mm 345. In general, what are the effects of cold working a metal? a. Decreased strength and ductility b. Increased strength, decreased ductility c. Increased strength and ductility d. Decreased strength and increased ductility 346. To which of the following can the large discrepancy between the actual and the theoretical strengths of metals mainly be attributed? a. stress direction c. low density b. dislocations d. heat 347. The allowable tensile stress for ¼ - 20 bolt of a thread length 7/32 in. is 30,000 psi. The allowable shear stress of the material is 15,000 psi. Where and how will such a bolt be most likely to fail if placed in tension? a. At the root diameter due to tension b. At the root diameter due to shear c. At the thread due to tension d. At the thread due to shear 348. Reinforcing steel is usually shaped on the job. a. On a bar-bending table b. By heating in a forge c. By hand bending d. By cutting and welding 349. Which of the following properties of a metal is insensitive to the microstructure? a. modulus of elasticity c. tensile strengths b. ductility d. hardness

350. Given a shear of τxy = 5000 psi and a shear modulus of G = 1.15 x 107 psi, find the shear strain Єxy: a. 2.5 x 10-5 c. 4.5 x 10-4 b. 8.25 x10-4 d. 4.35 x 10-4 351. What a. b. c. d.

is of the following statements is FALSE? Low-alloy steels are a minor group and are rarely used. Low-alloy steels are used in the heat-treated condition. In the AISI and the SAE steel specifications, the last two digits define the carbon content of the steel in weight percent. Low-ally steels contain small amounts of nickel and chromium

352. A specimen is subjected to a load, when the load is removed, the strain disappears. From this information, which of the following can be deduced about this material? a. It has a high modulus of elasticity b. It is elastic c. It is ductile d. It is plastic 353. If the principal stress on a body are alpha 1 = 400 psi, alpha 2 = 700 psi and alpha 3 = 600 psi, what is the maximum stress shear? a. 650 psi c. 100 psi b. 200 psi d. 550 psi 354. The ability of the material to absorb energy in its elastic range. a. elasticity c. ductility b. resilience d. strain 355. A steel wire is 4.0 long and 2 mm in diameter. How much is it elongated by a suspended body of mass 20 kg? Young’s modulus for steel is 196000 MPa. a. 1.123 mm c. 1.374 mm b. 1.385 mm d. 1.273 mm 356. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break: a. by forming a bulge b. by shearing along oblique plane c. into large number of pieces

d.

in a direction along the direction of the load

357. What element is largely hardened by prescription hardening? a. Nickel c. Nobelium b. Niobium d. Osmium 358. It is obtained as a by-product in the refining of copper and lead: a. none of these c. silver b. nickel d. gold 359. Determine the outside diameter of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a stress of 140 MPa. Assume the wall thickness to be one-tenth of the outside diameter: a. 111.3 mm c. 113.7 mm b. 109.7 mm d. 114.4 mm 360. Find the limiting peripheral velocity of a rotating steel ring if the allowable stress is 140 MN/m 2 and the mass density of steel is 7850 kg/m3: a. 130.62 m/s c. 142.37 m/s b. 129.58 m/s d. 133.55 m/s 361. A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a forming cylinder 150 mm in diameter. Compute the number of turns required to permit an elongation of 100 mm without exceeding a shearing stress of 140 MPa. Use G = 82 GPa. a. 14.61 c. 13.83 b. 12.14 d. 11.58 Ans. 17.9 turns 362. A flexible shaft consists of a 5-mm diameter steel wire encased in stationary tube that fits closely enough to impose a frictional torque of 2 N-m/m. If the shearing stress is not to exceed 140 MPa, what will be the angular rotation of one end relative to the other end? Use G = 83 GPa: a. 32.06 deg c. 33.21 deg b. 34 deg d. 31.21 deg 363. A cylinder of diameter 1.0 cm at 30 deg C is to be slid into a hole on a steel plate. The hole has a diameter of 0.99970 cm

at 30 deg C. To what temperature the plate must be heated? Coefficient of the linear expansion for steel is -5 1.2 x 10 /deg C. a. 62 deg C c. 48 deg C b. 65 deg C d. 55 deg C 364. What is the stress in a thin-walled spherical shell of diameter D and wall thickness t when subjected to internal pressure P? a. A = D/pt c. S = pD/4t b. S = 4D/pt d. S = pD/t 365. What is the useful kW rating of a tin smelting furnace, smelting 150 kg of tin per hour. Initial temperature of metal 18 deg C; sp. heat 0.055; latent heat of liquifaction is 13.3 kCal/kg; smelting temperature of tin is 235 deg C. a. 3.5 kW c. 4.4 kW b. 5.0 kW d. 6.6 kW 366. A cylindrical water tank is 8 m in diameter and 12 m high. If the tank is to be completely filled, determine the minimum thickness of the tank plating if the stress is limited to 40 MPa. a. 11.77 mm c. 13.18 mm b. 10.25 mm d. 12.6 mm 367. Two hollow rods of A to B and B to C are coupled having the same length of 200 mm, and fixed at the wall. A 3 kN force is applied at C. The area of rod AB is 1000 mm 2 and the area of rod BC is 500 mm2. Find the elongation at point B? E = 210 GPa. a. 0.0006425 mm c. 0.0002456 mm b. 0.001805 mm d. 0.0004350 mm 368. If the maximum permissible shearing stress is 10,000 psi, how many 3/8” bolts arranged in a 5” diameter bolt circle are required to transmit 100 hp at 315 rpm through a flanged coupling? a. 6 c. 8 b. 7 d. 9 369. What oxide a. b.

do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron content of the steel? Deodorizers c. Detoxifiers Deorizers d. Deoxidizers

370. What is the decrease in height of 8” round by 16” high concrete cylinder (E = 2.5 x 106 psi) when the unit deformation is 0.0012? a. 392 m c. 355 cm b. 0.0192 in d. 891 mm 371. The purpose of nickel in steel alloying is to increase a. Brittleness b. toughness, hardness, corrosion resistance, and reduce thermal expansion c. high-temperature strength d. strength 372. The effect of manganese in cast iron is to: a. deoxidize molten cast iron b. affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form c. increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature d. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5% 373. An elevator weighs 1000 pounds and is supported by a 5/16” cable 1,500 feet long. When the elevator carries a 1,500 pounds load, the cable elongates 6” more. What is the modulus of elasticity of the cable? a. 460 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi) b. 5.87 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 231 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi) d. 609 X 107 lbf/in2 (psi) 374. The purpose of phosphorus in steel alloying is to a. Increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness b. Reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur c. Increase strength d. Increase hardness and corrosion resistance 375. The purpose of vanadium in steel alloying to a. increase strength b. fix carbon an inert particles martensitic hardness c. increase brittleness d. increase machinability

and

reduce

376. To what diameter does a 0.75” diameter steel punch increase when a force of 40,000 pounds is applied during a punching operation? a. 0.89 in c. 0.75 in b. 0.8 in d. 0.68 in 377. Determine the outside diameter of hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a stress of 140 MN/m2. Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside diameter. a. 112 mm c. 412 mm b. 714 mm d. 214 mm 378. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical spring composed of 20 turns of 20mm diameter wire on mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. a. 140 Mpa c. 121 Mpa b. 115 Mpa d. 160 Mpa 379. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300 mm 2 and a length of 150m is suspended vertically from one end. It supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower end, if the unit mass of steel is 7850 kg/m3 and a stress of 200 x 10 3 MN/m3, find the total elongation of the rod. a. 52.48 mm c. 54.33 mm b. 60 mm d. 56 mm 380. A flanged bolt coupling consists of six-10mm diameter steel bolt circle 300 mm in diameter and four-10mm diameter steel bolt concentrated bolt circle 200mm in diameter. What torque can be applied without exceeding shearing stress of 60Mpa in the bolts? Use  = 60 MPA. a. 8.5 kN-m c. 6.5 kN-m b. 7.5 kN-m d. 5.5 kN-m 381. What is the tip deflection of the cantilever beam that carries a distributed load of 8000 pounds/foot over the first 4 feet (from the support) of its 10-foot length? Neglect the weight of the steel beam, which is a T-bean with a 5-inch width, 12inch total height, and 2-inch web thickness. a. –3.85m c. +5.14mm b. +6.96cm d. –0.108in

382. Steels that are used for axels, gears and similar parts requiring medium to high hardness and high strength are known as: a. Low-carbon steels c. High-carbon steels b. Medium-carbon steels d. Very high-carbon steels 383. Heating of an ore atmosphere. a. smelting b. calcinations

to

bring

its

reaction

with

furnace

c. leaching d. roasting

384. What is the mid-span deflection for the steel beam shown in the figure below if the cross-sectional moment of inertia is 200 in4?

2000 pounds 500 pounds/foot

a. b.

5'

12'

A

–4.5498 in +6.3584 in

c. –0.20262 in d. +14.4228 in

385. The effect of aluminum in cast iron is to: a. deoxidize molten cast iron b. affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form c. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% d. increase hardness above 0.5% 386. The effect of silicon in cast iron is to: a. softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25%, hardens iron above 3.25%, and increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13%. b. increase fluidity and lower melting temperature c. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5% d. deoxidize molten cast iron

B

387. The sum of the strains in the three coordinate directions is known as: a. dilation c. solution b. dilution d. pilation 388. A hollow bronze shaft of 75 mm outer diameter and 50 mm inner diameter is slipped over a solid steel shaft 50 mm in diameter and of the same length as the hollow shaft. The two shafts are then fastened rigidly together at their ends. Find the maximum shearing stress developed in the steel by end torque of 3 kN-m. For bronze G = 35 GPa and for steel G = 83 GPa: a. ts = 59 Pa c. ts = 30 kPa b. ts = 45.2 MPa d. ts = 25.5 GPa 389. Steels that are used for drills, cutting tools, and knives are known as: a. Low-carbon steels c. High-carbon steels b. Medium-carbon steels d. Very high-carbon steels 390. Determine the diameter of a steel member having a tensile load of ,7,000 lbs. Assume safety factor of 5 based on an ultimate strength of 60,000 lb/in2: a. 0.68 in c. 0.74 in b. 0.86 in d. 0.84 in 391. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stresses to 60 MPa when twisted through 4°. Using G = 83 GPa, compute the shaft diameter. a. 0.104 m c. 5.214 m b. 1.174 m d. 9.432 m 392. A high strength steel band saw, 20 mm wide and 0.8 thick ruins over a pulley 600 mm in diameter. What minimum diameter pulleys can be used without exceeding flexural stress of 400 MPa? Use E = 200 GPa. a. 400 mm c. 325 m b. 250 cm d. 150 in. 393. What stainless steel grouped with AlSl 400 series contain no nickel and differ from ferritic stainless steels primarily in higher carbon contents? a. Ferritic stainless steels

b. c. d.

Austenitic stainless steels Martensitic (heat-treatable) Muriatic stainless steels

394. The purpose of phosphorous in steel alloying is to: a. Increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness b. increase hardness and corrosion resistance c. Increase strength d. reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur 395. A steel rod with a cross-sectional area of 150 mm 2 is stretched between two fixed points. The tensile load at 20°C is 500 N. What will be the stress at -20°C? Assume E = 200 Gpa: a. 343.67 Pa c. 325 kPa b. 126.93 MPa d. 20 GPa 396. What is the overload condition that occurs near large concentration loads? a. local buckling c. rotation b. lateral buckling d. superposition 397. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300 mm2 and a length of 150 m is suspended vertically from one end. It supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of steel is 7850 kg/m3 and a stress of 200 x 10 3 MN/m2, find the total elongation of the rod. a. 95.47 m c. 54.33 mm b. 60 mm d. 56 mm 398. A beam of length L has a defection formula of 48Ely = w(2x4 –5Lx3 +3L2x2), where does the maximum deflection occur? a. 0.213L c. 0.654L b. 0.578L d. 0.890L 399. A 90°F, the stress in a steel rod is 2000 psi (C). What is the stress at 0°F? a. 15,500 psi (T) c. 68,000 psi (T) b. 53,210 psi (C) d. 27,000 psi (C) 400. For normal stress, what s the constant of proportionality?

a. b. c. d.

modulus of plasticity modulus of cavity modulus of elasticity modulus of varsity

401. What uniform load will cause a simple bean 10 feet long to deflect 0.3 inch of it is supported (in addition to the end supports) by a spring constant of 30,000 pounds per inch. Assume the beam is steel, 10 inc deep, rectangular and with centroidal moment of inertia of 100 inches4. a. 5440 lbf/ft c. 6000 lbf/ft b. 7000 lbf/ft d. 4550 lbf/ft 402. A 19-foot long beam 10 inches wide and 20 inches high supports 1500 pounds/foot on two supports 14 feet apart. The right end of the beam extends 2 feet past the support. What is the bending stress midway between the supports? a. 730.21 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 248.5 lbf/in2 (psi) b. 573.8 lbf/in2 (psi) d. 683.0 lbf/in2 (psi) 403. A 19-foot long beam supports 1,500 pounds/foot on two support 14 feet apart. The right end of the beam extends 2 feet past the support. If the beam is 10” wide and 20” high. What are the bending stress and shear stress midway between supports? a. 574psi, 20.1psi c. 574psi, 2.01psi b. 478psi, 20.15psi d. 458psi, 2.36psi 404. A 19-foot long beam 10 inches wide and 20 inches high supports 1500 pounds/foot on two supports 14 feet apart. The right end of the beam extends 2 feet past the support. What is the bending stress midway between the supports? a. 1 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 10 lbf/in2 (psi) b. 0 lbf/in² (psi) d. 67 lbf/in2 (psi) 405. What is the maximum stress in the offset link show in figure 7? Neglect stress concentration factors. a. 15,676.6 lbf.in2 (psi) b. 20,534.9 lbf.in2 (psi) c. 12,666.7 lbf.in2 (psi) d. 50,984.2 lbf/in2 (psi) 406. A steel wire 2 meters long has a mass of 20 grams and is stretched with a tension of 1000 Newton. What is the velocity

of propagation of a transverse wave in the wire? Assume the linear density of steel at 0.01 kg/m. a. 422 m/sec c. 316 m/sec b. 329 m/sec d. 300 m/sec 407. What is H1 in aluminum treatment conditions? a. strain hardened by cold working, followed by partial annealing b. strain hardened by working to desired dimensions c. annealed (casting only) d. strain hardened and stabilized 408. What is the H2 in aluminum treatment conditions? a. strain hardened and stabilized b. strain hardened by cold-working, followed by partial annealing c. strain hardened by working to desired dimensions d. annealed (casting only) 409. What is the H3 in aluminum treatment conditions? a. strain hardened and stabilized b. strain hardened by cold-working, followed by partial annealing c. strain hardened by working to desired dimensions d. annealed (casting only) 410. What is the AISI-SAE Steel Designations for chromium-nickelmanganese (non-hardenable, austenitic, nonmagnetic) a. 2XX c. 12XX b. 11XX d. 14XX 411. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for Manganese 1.75 low-alloy steels? a. 11XX c. 12XX b. 14XX d. 13XX 412. A metal is subjected to static loading at elevated temperature continue to elongate with time. What can you call this process? a. Uncontrolled elongation rate b. Expansion rate c. Creep rate d. Extension rate

413. What is the actual hole diameter made by a steel (0.75 inch diameter) that is subjected to a 40,000 lbs Hydraulic press? a. 5.32 m c. 0.75068 in b. 0.96 m d. 3.809 cm 414. A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2 m long is surrounded by a shell cast iron 5 mm thick. Compute the load that will compress the combined bar of 1 mm in the length of 2m. For steel, E = 200Gpa and for cast iron, E = 100Gpa. a. 550 N c. 745 MN b. 240 kN d. 130 GN 415. A 4”wide, 8” deep wood beam is simply supported and loaded as shown. What is the maximum shearing stress? 4000 pounds

3'

4'

5'

4333

a. b.

254.2 psi 284.4 psi

6067

c. 449.1 psi d. 778.7 psi

416. Which type of hardening will work to some extent in all metals? a. work hardening c. martempering b. annealing d. austenitizing 417. What is the subject that encompasses the procurement and production of metals? a. Mining c. Geology b. Metallurgy d. Mechanical 418. A steel member 200 inches long connects two 30,000 pound tensile loads. The maximum allowable stress is 10,000 psi

and the maximum allowable elongation is 0.02 inch. What is the required area? a. 47.1 m2 c. 65 cm2 2 b. 10 in d. 30.6 mm2 419. The refined molted steel batch is known as a. hate of steel c. heat of steel b. hot steel d. heater steel 420. Find the limiting peripheral velocity of a rotating steel ring if the allowable stress is 140 MN/m² and the mass density of steel is 7850 kg/m³. a. 955.33 m/min c. 633 m/hr b. 133.55 m/s d. 255 m/day 421. What is the force required to punch 0.75 inch circular hole through a piece of 5/8 inch thick steel plate (ultimate shear strength of 42 ksi)? a. 43 kip c. 154 kip b. 61.85 kip d. 732 kip 422. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will not twist through more than 30 in a 6m length when subjected to a torque of 14 kN-m? Use G= 83 GN/m2. a. 3.211 cm c. 0.118 m b. 2.18 mm d. 7.91 in 423. Two hollow rods of A to B and B to C are coupled having the same length of 200 mm, and fixed at the wall. A 3 kN force is applied at B and a 1 kN force at C. The area of rod AB is 1000mm2 and the area of rod BC is 500 mm 2. Find the elongation at point B? E = 210 Gpa. a. 0.0006425 mm c. 0.0002546 mm b. 0.001905 mm d. 01.0004350 mm 424. A 14-foot long simple beam is uniformly load with 200 pounds per foot over its entire length. It the beam is 3,625 inches wide and 7.625 inches deep, what is the required section modulus if the allowable stress is 24,000 lbf/in2? a. 3.63 m3 c. 7.52 in3 b. 65.12 cm3 d. 44.80 mm3

425. Two flanges are held together by three bolts. The pipe section is 4’” inside diameter. If the pipe is pressurized tc 900 psig, what is the force exerted by the bolt? a. 3487.5 lbf c. 3248.6 lbf b. 3769.8 lbf d. 3921.4 lbf 426. A 14-foot long simple beam is uniformly load with 200 pounds per foot over its entire length. If the beam is 3.625 inches wide and 7.625 inches deep. What is the maximum bending stress? a. 6332 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 7974 lbf/in2 (psi) b. 1674 lbf/in2 (psi) d. 8205 lbf/in2 (psi) 427. Block A in the figure weighs 100 lb. The coefficient of static between the block and the surface on which it rests is 0.30. The weight W is 20 lb and the system is in equilibrium. Find the friction force exerted on block A.

45°'

A W

a. b.

23 lb 20 lb

c. 27 lb d. 19 lb

428. The rigid bar AB is pinned at O and connected with two rods. The distance from O to A is 3m, and from B to O is 4m. If the bar AB is horizontal at any temperature, determine the ratio of the areas of the two rods so that bar AB will be horizontal at any temperature. Neglect the mass of bar AB. (The rod at A is aluminum, = 23 m/(m0C), E= 70 GPa, L = 8m, and the rod B steel,  = 11.7 m/ (m0C), E = 200 GPa, and L = 8 m). a. 0.662 c. 0.455 b. 0.516 d. 0.423 429. A reinforced concrete column 250 mm in diameter is designed to carry an axial compressive load of 400 kN. Using allowable stresses for concrete of 6 MPa and for steel of 120 MPa, find

the required area of stresses of reinforcing steel. Assume Ec = 14 GPa and Es = 200 GPa a. 1322.7 mm3 c. 242.56 m2 3 b. 5233.9 cm d. 8452.8 in2 430. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. Use G = 83 GPa. a. 100 cm c. 746 in b. 85 m d. 98.7 mm 431. The purpose of Molybdenum in steel alloying is to? a. increase brittleness b. increase dynamic and high temperature strength and hardness c. reduce brittleness combine with sulfur d. increase corrosion and resistance 432. The greatest stress which material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from acceptable stress to strain is called _______. a. Elastic limit c. Elongation b. Yield point d. Proportional limit 433. Determine the maximum shearing stress is supporting stress spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. a. 529 GPa c. 25 kPa b. 121 MPa d. 370 Pa 434. What is the stress of an 8” round by 16” high concrete cylinder (E =2.5 x 106 psi) when the unit deformation is 0.0012? a. 1,500psi c. 2,500psi b. 2,000psi d. 3,000psi 435. An elevator weighs 1,000 lbs and is supported by a 5/16” cable. 1,500 ft. long. When the elevator carries a 1,500lb load, the cable elongates 6” ore. What is the modulus of elasticity of the cable? a. 97.8 x 106 psi c. 28.7 x 106 psi

b.

58.7 x 106 psi

d. 47.8 x 106 psi

436. What kind of steel is used drilling? a. very high carbon c. medium carbon b. high carbon d. low carbon 437. Determine the diameter of a steel member having a tensile load of 7,000 lbs. Assume safety factor of 5 based on an ultimate strength of 60,000 lbm/in2. a. 0.68 in c. 0.74 in b. 0.86 in d. 0.84 in 438. A steel beam having a length of 14 ft is uniformly loaded with 200 lbs/foot distributed entirely through its length. The beam is 7625 inches deep and 3.625 inches wide. Determine the required section modulus if allowable stress is 24,000 lb/in 2. a. 65.12 cm3 c. 44.80 mm3 3 b. 7.52 in d. 3.63 m3 439. A flanged bolt coupling consists of six-10 mm diameter steel bolt on a bolt circle 300 mm in diameter and four-10 mm diameter steel bolt concentrated bolt circle 200 mm in diameter. What torque can be applied without exceeding shearing stress of 60 MPa in the bolts? Use τ = 60 MPa. a. 8.5 kN-m c. 6.5 kN-m b. 7.5 kN-m d. 5.5 kN-m 440. A flanged bolt coupling consists of six – 10 mm diameter steel bolts evenly spaced around a bolt circle 300 mm in diameter and four – 20 mm diameter aluminum bolts on a concentric bolt circle 20 mm diameter. What torque can be applied without exceeding a shearing stress of 60 MN/m 2 in the steel or 40 MN/m2 in the aluminum? a. 9.75 N-cm c. 5.94 kN-m b. 2.8 MN-mn d. 4.5 GN-in 441. What group of steel are air-hardened, medium-alloy cold work tool steels? a. Group M c. Group H b. Group A d. Group D 442. What group of steels are water-hardened tool steels? a. Group O c. Group T b. Group S d. Group W

443. What group of steels are hot-work tool steels, capable of being used in 1100°F - 2000°F (600°C - 1100°C) range? a. Group A c. Group H b. Group D d. Group M 444. What group of steels are tungsten high-speed tools steels that maintain a sharp hard cutting edge at temperature in excess of 1000F (550C)? a. group O c. group T b. group S d. group W 445. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels? a. Group A c. Group II b. Group D d. Group M

ELECTRONICS AND PROBLEMS

COMMUNICATIONS

ENGINEERING

446. A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 600 kilohertz. The corresponding wavelength is closest to which of the following values? Assume the velocity of wave is 300 m/s and the velocity of light is 3x108 m/s. a. 500 meters c. 2x10-3 meters b. 5x10-4 meters d. 2000 meters 447. All data processing systems involve the following operation regardless of the kind of data processed or the kind of device or equipment used. Which one of the following are these? a. analyzing, logic determination and coding b. input, processing and output c. input, storage and processing d. processing, storage and distribution 448. A mercury-arc rectifier rated 5 A peak value, from a sinusoidal voltage is used as single phase, half-wave rectifier to change a 6 V battery having 0.02 internal resistance. The AC supply is a 20 V rms source. The tube breakdown and tube drop voltages are 10 V. The value of resistor will be needed in the circuit and output currents are ________ respectively: a. 2.46 ohms and 1.401 A b. 2.44 ohms and 1.041 A c. 4.626 ohms and 4.01 A d. 6.426 ohms AND 0.14 A 449. What a. b. c. d.

causes electric current to flow in a vacuum tube? repulsion of protons by the cathode attraction of protons to the anode space charge repulsion and attraction of electron by the charge object

450. What must be the velocity of an electron in cm/s in order to emit from the tungsten material? Assuming work function for tungsten is 4.52 eV: a. 1.26 x 106 cm/s c. 2.16 x 106 cm/s b. 1.26 c 105cm/s d. 1.26 x 108 cm/s 451. The maximum rectifier efficiency of a 1-phase, full wave rectifier is: a. 40.6% c. 89% b. 50% d. 81.2% 452. The basic reason why a full wave rectifier has twice the efficiency of a half wave rectifier is that _________” a. it makes use of transformer b. its ripple factor is much less c. it utilizes both half cycle of the input d. its output frequency is twice the line frequency 453. Which statement regarding conduction band is false? a. it is the lowest unfilled energy band b. it represents the energy of conduction electrons c. it lies below the valence band d. it may be either empty or partially filled 454. The leakage current of a P=N diode is caused by: a. heat energy c. chemical energy b. 1 barrier potential d. majority carriers 455. The total leakage current for a P-N junction diode is 12 μA at 20oC. Determine the current in the circuit when the applied voltage is 0.2 V: a. 30 Ω and 150 Ω c. 300 Ω and 1500 Ω b. 3 Ω and 15 Ω d. 0.3 Ω and 1.5 Ω 456. A simple half-wave rectifier consists of a diode and load. If the internal resistance of the diode is 1 Ω and the total load is 5 Ω/ What is the DC load current if the supply voltage is 12 V AC? a. 2.7 A c. 2.4 A b. 2.0 A d. 3.6 A 457. If a half-wave rectifier has a ripple voltage of 20 V. What will be its value in a full-wave rectifier? a. 10 V c. 7.5 V

b.

12.5 V

d. 30 V

458. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on ______: a. collision c. doping b. ionization d. recombination 459. A 3-phase, half wave rectifier circuit with each diode rated at 1200 A peak to peak with 700 V as peak inverse voltage. What is the average values of current and voltage? a. 496 A and 334 V c. 505 A and 340 V b. 649 A and 343 V d. 764 A and 460 V 460. An unregulated power supply which consist of a transformer, a rectifier and a filter has some characteristics which are as follows EXCEPT one. Which is it? a. it has a good voltage regulation b. it is relatively inexpensive c. the output voltage varies with the load d. the output voltage depends on the input voltage 461. The effective βT of a Darlington pair using transistors of β values of 50 and 100 is ________: a. 5000 c. 150 b. 33.33 d. 2 462. In mercury-arc rectifiers the cathode voltage drop is because of ________: a. surface resistance b. expenditure of energy of energy in liberating electrons from mercury c. expenditure of energy in ionization d. expenditure of energy in overcoming the electrostatic field 463. A SCR (silicon controlled rectifier) behaves as a ______ switch: a. bi-directional c. unidirectional b. mechanical d. three-way 464. A TRIAC can pass a portion of _______ half cycle through the load: a. only positive b. both positive and negative c. only positive

d.

none of these

465. The device that does not have a gate terminal is _____: a. TRIAC c. SCR b. FET d. DIAC 466. The input and output voltages of an amplifier network are 1 V and 8 V respectively. If the input impedance are equal. What is the voltage gain (or loss)? a. –3 dB c. –6 dB b. 3 dB d. 6 dB 467. Piezoelectricity principle is applied in one of the following: a. ultrasound equipment c. microphones b. thermometer d. TV sets 468. TV signal is transmitted to the air thru _________: a. electron transmitter c. antenna b. cyclon d. senders 469. Tubes are preferred to transistors in the following applications EXCEPT one. Which one is this? a. high power c. high voltage b. high frequency d. long life 470. The peak inverse voltage of a diode vacuum tube is defined as the maximum allowable ________: a. negative voltage across the load resistor b. negative voltage applied to plate with respect to cathode c. positive voltage applied to plate with respect to cathode d. none of these 471. The maximum rectifier efficiency of a 1-phase, half wave rectifier is ______: a. 40.6% c. 89% b. 50% d. 81.2% 472. A resistor connected across an AC supply of 220 V. The power drawn is 1000 watts, if the diode was connected in series with the resistor, what would be the power absorbed by the resistor? a. 850 watts c. 250 watts b. 200 watts d. 500 watts

473. The peak inverse voltage (PIV) of a half wave rectifier circuit with a shunt capacitor filter is ________: a. 2 VSM c. VSM b. ½ VSM d. 3 VSM 474. The ripple factor of a power supply is a measure of _____: a. its filter efficiency b. diode rating c. its voltage regulation d. purity of power output 475. A rectifier has an output voltage of 80 V with a ripple factor of 5%. What is the ripple output? a. 4V c. 0.2 V b. 5.65 V d. 2 V 476. In a then a. b.

full wave rectification, if the the output has a frequency of 100 Hz c. 25 Hz d.

input frequency is 50 Hz, ________: 50 Hz 200 Hz

477. A full wave peak rectifier (using capacitor input filter) has a percentage of 2 and load resistance of 10 KΩ. Minimum filter capacitance required is _______ μF: a. 12 c. 50 b. 24 d. 100 478. Without DC source, a clipper acts like a _______: a. rectifier c. clamper b. demodulator d. chopper 479. The primary function of a clamper circuit is to ______: a. suppress variations in signal voltage b. lower negative half cycle of the signal c. raise positive half-cycle of the signal d. introduce a DC level into an AC signal 480. When used in a power supply, the function of zener diode is to maintain a constant: a. output voltage b. input voltage c. output current irrespective of the load resistance d. supply current

481. The phase difference between the input and output voltage in a common base arrangements is ________: a. 90° c. 180° b. 0° d. 270° 482. A negative resistance microwave diode having an thin slice of semiconductor material sandwiched between two metal conductors is called: a. Schottky c. PIN b. Gunn d. varactor 483. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor connected in common emitter: a. 0° c. 180° b. 270° d. 90° 484. If a transistor is operated in such a way that the output current flows for 160o of the input signal, then it is _______ operation: a. class A c. class C b. class B d. class AB 485. When the transistor is fully switched ON, it is said to be_______: a. shorted c. saturated b. open d. shut off 486. It is a very powerful small component of a computer. Which one? a. diode c. chip b. triode d. internet 487. The gate voltage in a FET at which the drain current I becomes zero is called ________ voltage: a. active c. cut off b. saturation d. pinch off 488. The only a. b.

main factor which differentiates a DE MOSFET from EMOSFET is the absence of ________: insulated gate c. electrons channel d. P-N junctions

489. A Silicon Control Switch (SCS) has _________: a. four layers and three terminals b. two anodes and two gates c. three layers and four terminals d. one anode, one cathode and two gates 490. A LASCR is just like a conventional SCR, except that it ______: a. cannot carry large current b. has no gate terminal c. can also be light-triggered d. cannot be pulse-triggered 491. Voltage Dependent Resistor (VDR) are usually made from ________: a. nichrome c. silicon carbide b. graphite d. carbon 492. In a crystal, an atom vibrates at a frequency determined by ________: a. the heat content of the crystal b. the stiffness of the bond it makes with neighbors c. the temperature of the crystal d. the valence of the crystal 493. An electronic oscillator is __________: a. just like an alternator b. an amplifier with feedback c. nothing but an amplifier d. a converter of AC to DC energy 494. An oscillator produces __________ oscillation, and as well as employs _______ feedback: a. undamped, positive b. modulated, both positive and negative c. damped, negative d. unmodulated, negative 495. Which of the following Logic circuits is the fastest? a. Resistor-transistor logic (RTL) b. Transistor-transistor logic (TTL) c. Variable-threshold-logic (VTL) d. Diode-transistor-logic (DTL)

496. It is the maximum frequency in which the human ear can hear. a. 30,000 Hz c. 10,000 Hz b. 40,000 Hz d. 20,000 Hz 497. Silicon doped with gallium acts as: a. intrinsic semi-conductor b. extrinsic semi-conductor c. p-type semi-conductor d. n-type semi-conductor 498. The termination of an unloaded telephone line is made equal to the characteristic impedance of the line in order to: a. increase the velocity of propagation of signals b. equalize the velocity of propagation of signals of all frequencies c. reduce the frequency discrimination in the transmission d. reduce standing waves in the line 499. Overhead telephone wires are made of: a. copper wires c. ACSR conductors b. steel wires d. aluminum wires 500. How is the sensitivity of a feedback system defined? a. The ratio of a percentage change in the loop transfer function to the percentage change in the forward transfer function b. The ratio of the change in forward transfer to the ratio of the loop transfer change c. The ratio of the input signal to the output signal d. The ratio of the output signal to the input signal 501. _____________ is a microscopic piece of silicon that contains thousands of micro-miniature electronic circuit components, mainly, transistor: a. microchip c. capacitor b. resistor d. IC 502. ________ is a tiny electrically operated switch that can alternate between on and off many million of times per second: a. transistors c. capacitors b. resistors d. microchip

503. Communication channel that can communicate in 2 directions but 1 direction at a time. a. transmission speed c. narrow band b. nibbles d . duplex communication COMPUTER RELATED PROBLEMS 504. If a project that has diminishing returns with scale is modeled using a linear program, which basic assumption of the linear programming will be violated? a. certainty c. additivity b. divisibility d. proportionality 505. If all variables in a linear programming problem are restricted to integers, which, if any, basic assumption of linear programming is violated? a. certainty c. additivity b. divisibility d. proportionality 506. A state of the art technology designed to private supervisory, control and data acquisition capability for industrial, commercial and utility power factor substation and systems. a. Mini SCADA c. COBOL b. SCADA d. Monitor 507. Most of the inexpensive personal computers do not have any disk or diskette drive. What is the name of such computers? a. home computers b. dedicated computers c. diskless computers d. general-purpose computers 508. Pick out the item that does not belong to computer: a. Mouse c. MICR b. OCR d. plotter 509. Processors of all computers, whether micro, mainframe must have: a. primary storage c. control unit b. ALU d. all of these 510. Which of the ff. terms is related to a monitor? a. screen c. RGB monitor

mini

or

b.

monochrome monitor

d. video display

511. The basic components of a modern digital computer: a. central processor c. output device b. input device d. all of these 512. Which kind of storage device can be carried around? a. hard disk c. diskette b. system cabinet d. main memory 513. Which of the following devices allows user to add components and capabilities to a computer system? a. keyboards c. system boards b. diskettes d. expansion slots 514. Where does a computer add, compare and shuffle its data? a. memory chip c. floppy disk b. CPU chip d. hard disk 515. The pieces of equipment that are attached to the CPU of computer and which it can access are known as: a. output devices c. peripherals b. control units d. ALU 516. Which of the ff. is a part of the Central Processing Unit: a. keyboard c. tape b. printer d. arithmetic logic unit 517. A collection of eight bits is known as: a. byte c. record b. word d. file 518. Data management systems may be implemented as: a. system software c. computer programs b. application software d. all of these 519. Which unit of hardware an operator uses to monitor computer processing? a. card reader c. line printer b. CPU d. console 520. Which one of the following can read data and convert them to a form that a computer can use? a. logic c. control

b.

storage

d. input devices

521. Which of the following is used interchangeably with diskette? a. diskette cartridge c. floppy disk b. disk pack d. packette disk 522. List of detailed instructions that directs a computer is called which one of the following: a. logic c. memory b. storage d. program 523. ROM is made of: a. magnetic cores b. micro processors

c. photo-electric cells d. floppy disks

524. Which peripheral device is used to a word processing system? a. floppy disk c. CRT b. magnetic card reader d. all of these 525. Binary 101010 is equivalent to decimal number: a. 26 c. 45 b. 42 d. 60 526. How many binary different numbers can be stored in a register consisting of six switches? a. 16 c. 64 b. 32 d. 128 527. A binary system has radix of: a. 0 b. 1

c. 2 d. none of these

528. Give the number of bites present in a 48 K computer memory: a. 17256 c. 48512 b. 48000 d. 48152 529. Which one of the ff. is generally used where lowest power consumption is essential? a. CMOS c. PMOS b. NMOS d. any of these 530. Syntax is connected with: a. the format

c. compositional structure

b.

well formedness

d. all of these

531. Which of the following is applicative language? a. LAMBDA c. COBOL b. PASCAL d. FORTRAN 532. Which of the following logic gate is similar to the function of two parallel switches? a. AND c. OR b. NAND d. NOR 533. In PASCAL, free identifier occurrences are bound in the environment of the abstract. This is called: a. static binding c. secondary binding b. auxiliary binding d. dynamic binding 534. In PASCAL actual parameters are always evaluated _______________ the procedure is invoked: a. after c. with b. before d. simultaneously with 535. Which of the following is not a HIGH LEVEL computer programming language? a. FORTRAN c. COBOL b. MODEM d. ALGOL 536. Which of the following is a low level language? a. FORTRAN language c. basic language b. machine language d. none of these 537. Which of the following is a high level language? a. BASIC c. PASCAL b. COBOL d. all of these 538. The process of determining the phrase structure of text is known as: a. branching c. pasing b. syntacting d. any of these 539. Syntactic classes: a. commands b. definitions

c. sequence d. all of these

540. In PASCAL the Boolean values: a. are not expressible by literals b. are defined by the symbols true and false c. both a and b d. none of these 541. The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number E5 is: a. 279 c. 229 b. 325 d. 295 542. For the following decimal numbers, 9’s complement are given. Point out the incorrect relation: a. 5436 c. 45.15 b. 1932 d. 18.293 543. The hexadecimal number B6C7 is equal to the decimal number: a. 49761 c. 47691 b. 46791 d. 49671 544. How many different BCD numbers can be stored in a register containing 12 switches using an 8,4,2,1 code? a. 99 c. 999 b. 100 d. 1000 545. Decimal number 5436 when converted to 9’s complement will become: a. 4356 c. 4563 b. 4653 d. 4655 546. Which of the following binary number is equal to octal number 66.3? a. 101110.100 c. 100111.111 b. 111111.111 d. 110110.011 547. Which of the following octal number is equal to the decimal number 545.375? a. 5000 c. 1041.3 b. 1640 d. 1170.7 548. 10 in the BCD code is represented as: a. 10100 c. 1100 b. 010111 d. none of these

549. In each address represents one byte of the storage space how many address lines are required to access RAM chips arranged in a 4 x 6 array, where each chip is 8K x a bits? a. 13 c. 16 b. 15 d. 17 550. In digital computer, the number 127 is stored as: a. 1111111 c. 11000111 b. 10001 d. 00010010011 551. The decimal number 5436 when converted complement will become: a. 4356 c. 4563 b. 4653 d. 4555

to

one’s

552. What will be the simplified complements of the function CD + BD? a. B + CD c. D + BC b. CD + BD d. BCD 553. In case of OR gate, no matter what the number of inputs, a? a. 1 at any input causes the output to be at logic 1 b. 1 at any input causes the output to be at logic 0 c. 0 at any input causes the output to be at logic 0 d. 0 at any input causes the output to be at logic 1 554. The simplified form of the Boolean expression (A+B)(B+C) is a. A+B+C c. BC+A b. AB+C d. AC+B 555. (A + B + AB) is the same as that of? a. 0 c. A b. 1 d. none of these 556. In Fortran language which of the ff. statement is correct? a. IF (X, L, Y) Z = W c. IF A, G, T, B, X = 2 b. IF (A + B) a = SQRT (B) d. none of these 557. In BASIC, which of the following GOTO statement is NOT correctly written? a. 10 goto 50 c. 70 goto 35 b. 110 goto N d. none of these

558. Which of the following BASIC string has not been correctly written? a. TWENTY SEVEN c. SYMBOL IS ‘X’ b. 2+7=9 d. 84.56 559. Select incorrect GOTO statement: a. 75 GOTO K + 1 c. 55 GOTO 400 b. 100 GOTO 12 d. none of these 560. IN Fortran, which of the following is acceptable as real variable? a. ANSWER c. ENEMY b. X21 d. all of these 561. In Fortran, select the GOTO statement that is valid: a. GOTO A c. GOTO 123456 b. GOTO 72 d. none of these 562. In Fortran, the expression ez where z=x+iy is represented by: a. EXP (X, Y) c. CEXP (X, Y) b. Complex Z EXP (Z) d. Complex Z CEXP (Z) 563. Which of the following is not correctly written in Pascal? a. 123, 765 c. 11, 22, 33 b. 137 d. all of these 564. Which of the following is not a reversed word in PASCAL? a. WHILE c. REPEAT b. PLAY d. FILE 565. Which of the following operations is probably not an instruction in a low level programming language (e.g. assembly language): a. AND c. STOP b. LDA d. FETCH 566. The term that refers to the physical equipment or components of an electronic data processing system is: a. software c. firmware b. CPU d. hardware

567. Which of the following is the corresponding format statement for the output? )Denotes a blank space) a. 10 FORMAT (5X, ‘SUM = ‘, 1X, F5) b. 10 FORMAT (5X, ‘SUM = ‘,F6, 1) c. 10 FORMAT (5X, ‘SUM = ‘, 1X, F5.0) d. 10 FORMAT (5X. ‘SUM = ‘, s2230) 568. What is the base 19-eqiuvalent of the binary number 0101110? a. 18 c. 46 b. 47 d. 30 569. What is the one’s complement of 10101? a. 10001 c. 00010 b. 01010 d. 10010 570. In a computer work, an anti-virus is: a. a software full of virus in order to minimize a software against a specific defect b. a specific virus that protects a program from other unprecedented attacks by other viruses c. a software that scans a computer system to detect viruses or other harmful software d. a vaccine injected by the operator into the hard disk of a computer to remove interferences 571. Decimal number 5436 when converted to 1’s complement will become: a. 4555 c. 4563 b. 4356 d. 4653 572. Which of the following best defines a micro-operation? a. An elementary operations performed on information store in one or more registers during one clock pulse. b. The complex operations that are performed by the CPU during one microsecond. c. An elementary operation performed on information stored in one or more registers during one cycle. d. An operation that takes the smallest amount of time to operate.

573. What would be the value printed as a result of the ff, instructions? 10 DEF FNA (X) = X**2 + 1 /X 20 PRINT FNA (2) 30 END a. 3.2 c. 6.5 b. 7.2 d. 4.5 574. Which is the correct Dimension statement for 9x9 matrix, A, and a vector, B with 9 elements? a. DIMENSION A (9.9), B (9) b. DIMENSION. A (9.9), B (9) c. DIMENSION, A (9,9), B (9) d. DIMENSION A (9,9), B (9) 575. A megabyte is a computer term which means a. a thousand kilobytes b. a million kilobytes c. a group of characters that can fill a computer storage d. a hundred thousand bytes 576. Given a linear programming maximization problem, as the simplex algorithm progresses from one solution to the next, what will happen to the value of the objective function? a. It will increase and then decrease. b. It will decrease or stay the same. c. It will increase or stay the same. d. It will decrease and then increase. 577. How does a CPU know whether it is executing instructions from a commercial database management or from a program executing from an on-online programmer? a. The micro-operations used are different fro the two programs b. One of the programs uses compiled code while the other uses interpreted code c. The CPU doesn’t know where instructions originate d. One of the programs uses memory references while the other uses register references 578. What value is assigned to A in the following expression? A = 3.4(18*(4**2 + 17.2*8/6))-2/4 a. 900.1 c. 178.01

b.

703.7

d. 92.5

579. What is the base 10 equivalent of the binary number 0101110? a. 18 c. 46 b. 47 d. 30 580. What is the one’s complement of (10101)? a. 10001 c. 00010 b. 01010 d. 10010 581. All data processing system involve the following operations regardless of the kind of data processed or the kind of device or equipment used. Which one of the following are these? a. Analyzing, logic determination and coding b. Input, processing, and output c. Input, storage, and processing d. Processing, storage, and distribution 582. Given A = true, B = true, and C = false, what is the value of the following logical expression? ((A.AND.B).AND.(C.OR.A)) a. Either true or false c. Neither true nor false b. False d. True 583. Which of the following is not reserved word in PASCAL? a. while c. file b. repeat d. play 584. Which of the following terms is related to a monitor? a. video display c. monochrome monitor b. screen d. RGB monitor 585. In the program below, what is the value assigned to N? 10 N=0 15 GO TO 50 20 FOR X = - 1 TO 7 25 N=6 30 FOR Y = 3 TO 6 40 NEXT Y 45 NEXT X 50 PRINT N 55 END

a. b.

98 –356

586. What is binary is a BASE 16? a. 1011 b. 1000

c. –3678 d. 0 c. 1010 d. 1110

587. Decimal number 5436 when converted to 1’s complement will become: a. 4555 c. 4563 b. 4356 d. 4653 588. The hexadecimal number B6C7 is equal to the decimal number: a. 46791 c. 49761 b. 47691 d. 49671 589. Find the value of J in the following program: I=0 I=0 15 J = J **2 + I ** IF (1.EQ.3) GO TO 16 I=I+I GO TO 15 16 continue a. b.

34 9

c. 40 d. 15

590. A __________ is one in which all microcomputers and other communication devices are connected to a central hub, such a file server or host computer: a. Bus Network c. Ring Network b. Star Network d. Hybrid Network 591. A flowchart: a. Is a sequence of instructions to perform operations b. Is alphabetic code to instruct the computer what to do c. Defines basic operations and decision required d. Is a series of human language statements and common math symbols

592. The binary (100101)2 in octal is: a. 45 c. 54 b. 24 d. 26 593. 128, the equivalent decimal number is ______: a. 20 c. 10 b. 12 d. 100 594. A parity bit is also called ____ which is used to check accuracy. a. check bit c. silicon type b. RAM capacity d. driver 595. A two-way parallel paths which connects the processor and memory containing addresses. a. cache memory c. address bus b. control bus d. buffer 596. Transmission protocol serial asynchronous 8 bits ASCII, 1 parity bit, 9600 bps. How long will it take for a kilobyte file to be transmitted through the link? a. 0.96 sec c. 1.07 sec b. 0.85 sec d. 1.17 sec 597. A non-impact printer using little dots to produce high quality image. a. ink-jet printer c. card printer b. dot-matrix printer d. computer printer 598. A software that allows you fast and flexible access to the large information and documents. a. internet c. hypertext b. e-mail d. hyperlink 599. _______ is a device converting computer digital signals to analog signals for transmission over copper telephone wires ad back to digital signals. a. modem c. telegram b. fax machine d. telephone 600. ________ is a secondary storage medium, generally nonremovable disk made out of metal and covered with a magnetic recording surface. It holds data in the form

magnetized spots and are usually built into the computer system cabinet. a. Hard disk c. Compact disk b. Floppy disk d. CD ROM 601. What in binary is A base 16? a. 1011 b. 1000

c. 1010 d. 1110

602. For the base 10 number of 30, the equivalent binary number is _________: a. 0111 c. 1110 b. 11110 d. 1111 603. ___________ is a piece of silicon that contains thousands of micro-miniature electronic circuit components: a. Chip c. Resistor b. PCB d. Capacitor 604. __________ is a process of using microcomputer, mouse scanner, laser printer that combines highly digital text and images to produce a high quality output. a. CAM c. CAD b. Desktop Publishing d. CAE 605. Taligent systems is an operating system that will work on multiple platforms, meaning on different processor types. This statement is ___________. a. TRUE for UNIX only c. TRUE if successful b. FALSE d. TRUE for MS DOS only 606. In a logic ckt with the input A & B in an OR gate. If A = 0 and B = 1. What is F{f = A + B} a. 0 c. 1 b. 01 d. 0 607. In digital codes, how do you identify codes running from 0 to 1 or run from 0 – 7? a. Base 10 c. Binary b. Octal d. Gray 608. What is the equivalent of the digital octal code 2 to gray code?

a. b.

1000 1100

c. 0011 d. 1001

609. Transmission protocol serial asynchronous, 8 bits ASCll, 1 stop, 1 parity bit, 9600 bps. How long will it take to a 1 kilobyte file to be transmitted through the link? a. 1.17 sec c. 0.96 sec b. 1.07 sec d. 0.85 sec 610. ___________ is a device converting a computer digital signals to analog signals for transmission over copper telephone wires and back to the digital signals: a. modem c. telegram b. fax machine d. telephone 611. Determine the decimal value of 23.4 base 8: a. 27.5 c. 17.5 b. 17.0 d. 19.5 612. What is the binary equivalent with sign bit of –5 in 2’s complement? a. 1.0011 c. 1.0000 b. 1.1011 d. 1.0001 613. The binary representation 10101 corresponds to which base 10 number a. 8 c. 21 b. 16 d. 10,101 614. Convert the Octal (3458) to the equivalent binary coded decimal (BCD16) select the nearest answer. a. 001000101001 c. 11100101 b. 001101000101 d. 1011011001 615. In digital codes, how do you identify codes running from 1 to 10 or run from 0 - 9? a. binary c. gray b. standard base 10 d. octal 616. On personal computer, the data storage device with the largest capacity is most likely to be a. hard disk c. Random Access Memory b. 3 ½ “ DD Disk d. 3 ½ “ HD Diskette

617. Resides in the main memory while the computer is on and directs other application. a. Files c. Supervisor b. Storage d. Options 618. Convert (17)8 to base 2. a. 1011 b. 1111

c. 1101 d. 1001

619. Convert (30)10 to base2. a. 11011 b. 11001

c. 11010 d. 11110

620. Binary equivalent of A to base –16. a. 1110 c. 1010 b. 1000 d. 1011 621. Convert 347 base 8 to (16) BCD. a. 10010010001 c. 10010010011 b. 1000110001 d. 110100110110 622. Which of the following is NOT an octal number? a. 19 c. 77 b. 105 d. 15 623. Convert 345 Base 8 to (16) BCD. a. 100100101001 c. 001000101001 b. 001010010100 d. 110100110100

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 624. A comfortable room temperature is 72°F. the temperature expressed in degrees centigrade is: a. 27 degrees c. 44 degrees b. 22 degrees d. 30 degrees 625. For circuits of 2.0mm² or 3.5mm² conductors, the minimum insulator resistance shall be a. 50,000Ω c. 150,000Ω b. 100,000Ω d. 500,000Ω 626. The unit lighting for a dwelling unit expressed in watts per square meter shall be a. 8 watts c. 16 watts b. 24 watts d. 40 watts 627. For the kitchen small appliance load in dwelling occupancies, the code requires not less than: a. two 20A circuits c. one 15A circuit b. two 15A circuits d. one 20A circuit 628. The service or feeder capacity necessary to provide for six 5kW household electronic clothes dryer is a. 18 kW c. 24kW b. 27,500 kW d. 19.5kW 629. Carbon materials used in the field of electrical engineering are manufactured mostly from: a. Dolomite c. manganese b. Manganetite d. graphite

630. When using optional calculation method for dwelling unit service, all other loads above the initial 10 kW is to be assessed at: a. 30% c. 40% b. 50% d. 60% 631. Conductors must have a clearance from windows, porches, and fire escapes of not less than: a. 600 mm c. 1000 mm b. 800 mm d. 900 mm 632. For service drop conductors not exceeding 600 volts, its minimum clearance over commercial areas parking lots subject to truck traffic is: a. 3100 mm c. 3700 mm b. 4600 mm d. 5500 mm 633. Service conductors passing over roofs must have a clearance over the roof, which they pass, of: a. 1000 mm c. 1500 mm b. 2000 mm d. 2500 mm 634. When the voltage between service conductors does not exceed 300 volts, and the roof has a slope of not less than 100 mm, the clearance can be reduced to: a. 500 mm c. 800 mm b. 600 mm d. 1000 mm 635. Services using copper conductors shall have capacity and shall not be smaller than a. 5.5 sq. mm c. 8.0 mm b. 14 sq. mm d. 22 sq. mm

sufficient

636. The minimum diameter of a steel ground electrode is a. 10 mm c. 12 mm b. 14 mm d. 16 mm 637. Code requires that the minimum area are exposed surface offered by a place electrode shall be: a. 1/8 square meter c. 1/4 square meter b. 3/8 square meter d. 1/2 square meter

638. A single grounding electrode is permitted when the resistance to ground does not exceed: a. 5 ohms c. 10 ohms b. 15 ohms d. 25 ohms 639. The code specifies that one equipment is “in sight from” another equipment if it is visible and at a distance of: a. not more than 15 meters b. not more than 20 meters c. not less than 15 meters d. not less than 20 meters 640. The minimum size of a copper equipment grounding conductor require for equipment connected to a 40 ampere circuit. a. 5.5 mm² c. 8.0 mm² b. 14 mm² d. 22 mm² 641. The length of free conductors at outlet and switch point for splices and connection of fixture and devices must be at least: a. 80 mm c. 100 mm b. 120 mm d. 150 mm 642. In a concealed knob and tube wiring, the clearance to be maintained between conductors is: a. 45 mm c. 50 mm b. 76 mm d. 66 mm 643. Supports of AC cable should have intervals not exceeding: a. 1000 mm c. 1300 mm b. 1500 mm d. 1400 mm 644. In rigid metal conduit wiring, the minimum electrical trade size is: a. 15 mm c. 20 mm b. 25 mm d. 32 mm 645. In rigid metal conduit wiring, conduit shall be supported at least every: a. 2000 mm c. 2500 mm b. 3000 mm d. 3500 mm 646. Branch circuit conductors supplying a single motor shall have an ampacity in terms of full load current of not less than

a. b.

100% 125%

c. 115% d. 130%

647. This device includes any switch used or device used to start and stop the motor. a. Rheostat c. relay b. circuit breaker d. controller 648. A material used for insulation a. rubber b. all of these

c. asbestos d. mica

649. Hazardous location because of the presence of combustible dust. a. Class 1 c. Class 2 b. Class 3 d. Class 4 650. Location under Class III that are hazardous because of the presence of a. pulverized sugar c. packing machinery b. magnesium d. textile mills 651. Gas manufacturing plant where flammable gases may escape is considered as: a. Class 1, Division 1 area b. Class 2, Division 1 area c. Class 1, Division 2 area d. Class 2, Division 2 area 652. A storage battery supplying emergency lighting and power shall maintain not less than 87.5 percent of full voltage at total load for a period of at least: a. 2.5 hours c. 2 hours b. 1.5 hours d. 1 hour 653. The disconnecting means for motor circuits rated 600 volts or less shall have an ampere rating in terms of full load current of: a. 110% c. 115% b. 125% d. 130% 654. The voltage of a galvanic cell does not depend on which of the following parameters? a. concentration of solution c. temperature

b.

pressure

d. volume

655. Which of the following is not a good application of network analysis? a. electrical engineering c. information technology b. cybernetics d. inventory theory 656. A material whose electrons cannot be excited across the band gap is considered to be: a. metal c. an insulator b. a semiconductor d. a superconductor 657. A basic electrical system is composed of two subsystem elements A and B in series, with reliabilities over an operational period of 0.95 and 0.80 respectively. What is the reliability of the basic system? a. 0.5 c. 0.7 b. 0.6 d. none of the above 658. It refers to the installed capacity of an alternating current (A.C.) electric plant or supply equipment, or the connected load of industrials plants, commercial establishments, institutional buildings expressed in kilovolt-amperes. a. Substation c. KW b. KVA d. KVAR 659. ________ is any building room or separate place which houses or encloses electric supply equipment connected to transmission or distribution lines and the interior of which is accessible, as a rule, only to properly qualified persons. a. Power plant c. Substation b. Electrical room d. Power house 660. A ferromagnetic material must: a. be permanent magnet b. contain iron c. have ionic bonding d. have a large saturation magnetization 661. A three phase induction motor has the following data on its nameplate: 10 Hp, 440 volts, 14.1 Amperes, 60 cps, 1750 rpm. If the motor is operated from a 370-volts, three phase, 50-cps source, the rotor speed when delivering its plate rated torque will be approximately:

a. b.

1750 rpm 1500 rpm

c. 1460 rpm d. 1420 rpm

662. A 5 Hp, 220 volts dc shunt motor draws 21.0 A at rated load and speed. Manipulating the field control rheostat so as to increase the shunt field circuit resistance by approximately 10% will: a. decrease the line voltage b. increase the line voltage c. increase the speed d. decrease the speed 663. An alternator operating at 1.0 power factor, is in parallel with a large system. Increasing the field current will: a. decrease the line voltage b. increase the line voltage c. increase the speed d. decrease the line current 664. A 10 kVA, 2400/4160 – 120/240 volt distribution transformer when given a short-circuit test had 100 volts applied with rated current flowing in the short-circuited winding. The per unit impedance of the transformer is approximately: a. 0.06 c. 0.042 b. 0.02 d. 0.055 665. In starting a 500 Hp, 2300 V, 3 synchronous motor, the field winding is initially short-circuited so as to: a. produce much larger starting torque b. increase acceleration time c. lower voltage produced between layers of the field winding d. shorten acceleration time 666. It is with a. b. c. d.

a transformer that accomplishes voltage transformation a single winding only. Scott connected transformer distribution transformer autotransformer three-winding transformer

667. What is the coefficient of coupling of two coils whose mutual inductance is 1 Henry and whose self-inductance are 1.2 and 2 henrys? a. 0.646 c. 1.549 b. 0.417 d. 2.041 668. When an electric current is flowing in a conductor, heat is developed at a rate proportional to the square of its intensity of current. The proportionality factor is the resistance of the conductor. This relation is known as: a. Joule’s law c. Coulomb’s law b. Faraday’s law d. Ohm’s law 669. A single-phase inductive load factor lagging. The amount improve the power factor to 1.0 a. 10 kilovars b. 40 kilovars

takes 10 kVA at 0.6 power of capacitance required to is: c. 20 kilovars d. 22.5 kilovars

670. It is an assemblage of equipment for the purpose of switching and/or changing or regulating the voltage of electricity. a. Switchgear c. generating station b. Substation d. none of the above 671. A power plant that uses bunker oil as fuel. a. thermal power plant b. gas turbine c. coal thermal power plant d. oil thermal power plant 672. It is used for any type of voltage application. Usually, its voltage rating is high. a. potential transformer b. core type transformer c. distribution transformer d. shell type transformer 673. The ratio of the maximum load to the rated plant capacity is called a. load factor c. maximum load factor b. utilization factor d. capacity factor 674. The continuous power available from a hydro-electric plat under the most adverse hydraulic conditions is called

a. b.

base power utilization factor

c. primary power d. secondary power

675. Substances which are characterized by strong attraction and repulsion by the magnetized bodies: a. diamagnetic substance c. paramagnetic substance b. ferromagnetic substance d. none of these 676. The resistance formed between two electrodes in a gas which is exposed to constant ionization: a. Brinell resistance c. Bohr resistance b. Bunsen resistance d. Bronson resistance 677. An instrument for comparing the luminous intensities of two point sources: a. Quart’s fiber electroscope b. footcandle meter c. photometer d. none of the above 678. The first step in removing a generator from parallel operations: a. increase the cycle of the generator b. turn off all electrical equipment c. trip the generator off the bus bar d. remove the load from the off going generator 679. Complete establishment for the generation, transmission and/or distribution of electric energy: a. power plant b. power system c. electric generating plant d. electrical installation 680. High frequency inductor in which the rapid rotation of a slotted rotor induces current in the stator coils: a. Synchronous alternator b. Alexanderson alternator c. Induction motor d. None of these

681. High pressure sodium lamps latest development in the high intensity discharge lamps which are now marketed under the trade name: a. Unalox c. Lucalox b. All of these d. Ceramalux 682. In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are provided. If one lamp goes dark and the others remain bright when the test button is pushed: a. this is a normal condition b. there is a ground on the line with the dark lamp c. there are grounds in the line with the bright lamps d. the dark lamps must be replaced 683. One Professional Electrical Engineer and one Associate Electrical Engineer re required for generating plants of any capacity employing voltages up to: a. above 4800 volts c. 4800 volts b. above 6600 volts d. above 6900 volts 684. A 7.5 hp, 220 volt, dc shunt motor draws 31.5 A at rated load and speed, manipulating the field control rheostat so as to increase the shunt field circuit resistance by approximately 10% will: a. increase line voltage c. increase speed b. decrease speed d. decrease line voltage 685. A DC generator supplying direct current to maintain an AC generator field is known as: a. exciter c. rotor b. stator d. armature 686. A megohmmeter is connected to the ends of motor winding, what will a low ohm reading indicate? a. Continuity c. dirty coil b. loose coil d. open coil 687. Defined as the ease with which the flux passes through the magnetic material. It is the reciprocal of reluctance: a. Permeance c. ampere-turns b. relative permeability d. absolute permeability 688. Obligations are extinguished by:

a. b.

Confusion all of these

c. compensation d. novation

689. The reciprocal of resistance: a. Capacitance b. Conductance

c. inductance d. susceptance

690. A given series motor has 2 poles with 95 turns per pole, and with the two coils connected in series. The total resistance of the field coils is 3.02 ohms. With a 60-cycle current of (f 3.55 A, the voltage drop across the field coils is 62 V. Assuming sinusoidal flux and current, find the field reactance: a. 15.21 Ω c. 17.21 Ω b. 20.21 Ω d. 19.21 Ω 691. Code requires that the minimum area exposed surface offered by a plate electrode shall be: a. ½ m2 c. 1/8 m2 b. ¼ m2 d. 3/8 m2 692. Electrical installation not covered by the Philippine Electrical Code: a. tennis court wiring c. substantial wiring b. residential wiring d. motor vehicles 693. Select the material conductivity: a. steel b. aluminum

that

has

the

highest

electrical

c. silver d. lead

694. How is high purity copper is obtained? a. Rolling c. electric refining b. Casting d. induction heating 695. A three phase motor driven pump at 1,800 rpm is discharging 500 gpm of water at a head of 25 meters, the efficiency is 75%. Determine the hp of the motor: a. 14 c. 17 b. 16 d. 15 696. Is the annoying brightness of light sources in a person’s normal field of vision: a. contrast c. diffuseness b. reflected glare d. direct glare

697. An electromagnetic device electrical sorting of their ions a. isocline b. isotron

for

separating

isotopes

by

c. isometer d. isotopes meter

698. A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is: a. lagging c. leading b. zero d. unity 699. Conducting power for the line of force as compared to air: a. flux density c. magnetic induction b. permeability d. field intensity 700. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to: a. keep it fresh and fully charged b. increase its reserved capacity c. prevent sulphation d. proper electrode level 701. It refers to the magnitude of the auditory sensation produced by the sound: a. loudness c. pitch b. intensity d. tone 702. Three equal impedances are first connected in wye across a balance 3-phase supply. If it is connected in delta across the same supply: a. line current will become 1/3 of the original line current b. power consumed will increase three-fold c. phase current will be double d. phase current will be tripled 703. According to this theorem in any linear bilateral network having a number of resistance, batteries of generators, each source can be assumed to be independent of the other: a. Reciprocity theorem b. Thevenin’s theorem c. Superposition theorem d. Norton’s theorem 704. Heating above the critical range and cooling slowly: a. Tempering c. relieving

b.

Annealing

d. normalizing

705. The luminous intensity of a lamp is expressed in: a. candela c. lux b. watts d. lumens 706. Which of the electricity? a. iron b. diamond

following

would

you

expect

to

conduct

c. dry toe d. all of these

707. The change in length per unit per degree rise in temperature: a. volume expansivity c. linear expansivity b. ideal gas temperature d. temperature scale 708. If a self excited dc generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run, the first thing to do is to: a. reverse field connections b. check armature insulation c. increase the speed of the prime mover d. increase the field resistance 709. Is one with rigid boundaries exchanging neither energy nor mass with it as surroundings: a. ideal gases c. heat b. isolated system d. entropy 710. A device which automatically controls the speed of an engine: a. Speedometer c. governor b. Odometer d. none of these 711. Lux is expressed in: a. lumens per sq. meter b. lumens per sq. cm

c. lumens per sq foot d. lumens per sq mm

712. It is a device which is used to provide a point for connection to ground. It has no secondary winding and also carried no load: a. voltage transformer c. autotransformer b. isolating transformer d. grounding transformer 713. If a motor has a slip of two percent at rated voltage, determine the approximate value of the slip when developing the same torque at ten percent above rated voltage:

a. b.

1.8-% 1.55%

c. 1.75% d. 1.65%

714. Resistivity of carbon is approximately: a. 10 – 70 μ ohm-cm c. 800 – 1300 μ ohm-cm b. 80 130 μ ohm-cm d. 80-00 – 3000 μ ohm-cm 715. Silicon steel is widely used for which of the following? a. transformer cores c. bushing b. commutators d. tank fabrication 716. Which of the following will not conduct electricity? a. molten NaCl c. graphite b. iron d. quartz 717. Calculate the current taken by a motor at 440 volts having an efficiency of 90%. Moreover, the motor is used to drive a pump which lifts 240,000 kg. of water per hour to a height of 30 meters. The pump is given to be 80% efficient: a. 58 A c. 75 A b. 83 A d. 62 A 718. Select poorest conductor of electricity: a. Aluminum c. steel b. carbon d. silver 719. What is the value of dielectric constant of vacuum? a. Infinity c. 1 b. 100 d. zero 720. The photoelectric current depends on which of the following? a. intensity of incident light b. wavelength of the incident beam c. both a and b d. none of the above 721. Which of the following material is used for cathode in photoemissive cells? a. zinc c. copper b. goid d. silver 722. Metals approach superconductivity conditions: a. near absolute zero temperature

b. c. d.

near critical temperature at triple point’ under the conditions of high temperature and pressure

723. A good electric contact material should have all of the ff. properties: a. high melting point b. good thermal conductivity c. high resistivity d. high resistance to erosion 724. Electric breakdown strength of a material depends in its: a. composition c. thickness b. moisture content d. all of the above 725. Select the odd one out: a. Polyester b. Phenolic

c. Silicon d. PVC

726. Powder metallurgy technique is widely used for which one of the ff? a. transistors c. cutting tool b. ferrite magnets d. porcelains 727. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment is zero? a. ferromagnetic material b. anti-ferromagnetic material c. ferromagnetic material d. all of the above 728. A magnetic material above Curie point exists as: a. diamagnetics c. paramagnetic b. ferromagnetics d. ferrite 729. To provide for small appliance load in dwelling units, the feeder should be computed at: a. 1500 watts c. 2400 watts b. 3000 watts d. 3600 watts 730. For service drop contractors not exceeding 600 volts its minimum clearance over commercial areas parking lots subject:

a. b.

service drop service raceway

c. service entry d. service lateral

731. The rigid metal conduit, electrical metallic tubing, or other raceway that enclose service entrance conductors: a. service drop c. service entry b. service raceway d. service lateral 732. A switch that is intended for isolating an electric circuit from its source of power. It has no interrupting rating and is intended to be operated only after the circuit has opened by some other means: a. circuit breaker c. knife switch b. isolating switch d. key switch 733. The minimum clearance fir service drop over buildings: a. 10 ft. c. 12 ft. b. 8 ft. d. 14 ft. 734. The minimum clearance for service drop over sidewalks: a. 8 ft. c. 12 ft. b. 10 ft. d. 14 ft. 735. The minimum clearance of service drop over driveways, alleys and public roads: a. 10 ft. c. 20 ft. b. 18 ft. d. 30 ft. 736. What position must a knife switch with fuse be mounted? a. horizontal c. diagonal b. vertical d. inclined position 737. What is the maximum voltage rating of plug fuses? a. 110 V c. 200 V b. 125 V d. 220 V 738. A dual element fuse with special threads so that fuses of larger than what a circuit was designed for may not be used. They are designed to make tampering or bridging difficult: a. P-type c. Eagle type fuse b. S-type d. N-type 739. Why are system and circuit grounded? a. to protect from excessive current

b.

to limit the excess voltage to ground which occur from lighting or exposure to other higher voltage source to acquire more power from grounding circuit precautionary measure of the system

c. d.

740. On an alternator, what parts must be laminated? a. shunt field winding c. stator b. rotor d. commutator 741. How much wire must be allowed at outlets and switch boxes for connection and splices? a. 6 in. c. 5 in. b. 4 in. d. 8 in. 742. A device that transforms electrical energy from one or more circuits at the same frequency but usually at a different voltage and current: a. Motor c. transformer b. circuit breaker d. appliances 743. Why a. b. c. d.

are system and circuit grounded? grounding system grounding electrode conductor grounding wires grounding cable

744. Open a. b. c. d.

wiring on insulators commonly known as: knob and tube wiring split knob and receptacle wiring duplex wiring common wiring

745. Is a type of cable in which one or more electrical conductors are insulated with a highly compressed refractory mineral insulation (magnesium oxide) and enclosed in a liquid tight and gas tight metallic sheathing: a. type MI cable c. type AC cable b. type MC cable d. type DC cable 746. The process by which one conductor produces, or induces a voltage in another conductor, even though there is no mechanical coupling between the two conductors:

a. b.

Induction system

c. cutting of flux d. short circuit

747. The property of a coil in a circuit to oppose any change if existing current flow: a. Resistance c. capacitance b. Inductance d. diode 748. What is the phase relation between phases in a two phase circuit? a. they are 360 electrical degree b. they are 180 electrical degree c. they are 120 electrical degree d. they are 90 electrical degree 749. One complete alternation, or reversal of alternating current is called: a. revolution c. cycle b. straight line d. direction 750. Number 000 wire (AWG) has an area of 167,000 CM. What is its diameter? a. 83,900 mils c. 60 mils b. 55 mils d. 409.6 mils 751. Current that continually reverse its direction of flow: a. alternating current b. direct current c. pulsating direct current d. pulsating alternating current 752. A transformer built like the ordinary isolation transformer, except that the extra precaution are taken to assure that the winding ratios are exact. Also, the primary winding is connected in parallel with the circuit to be measured: a. potential transformer c. three-phase transformer b. current transformer d. booster transformer 753. A transformer that is the equivalent of three single phase transformer which are all wound on one core and enclosed within one common base: a. single-phase transformer b. two-phase transformer

c. d.

three-phase transformer booster transformer

754. The circuit conductors between the service-entrance equipment or isolated generating plant and the branch circuit overload device or devices: a. feeder c. overcurrent protector b. disconnecting switch d. motor controller 755. When current passes through a path lesser resistance thereby destroying the fuse in a circuit, we say that the circuit is: a. infinity c. lagging power factor b. open circuited d. short circuited 756. Is the contact device installed at the outlet for the connection of a single attachment plug: a. switch c. female plug b.

receptacle

d. male plug

757. A point in the wiring system at which current is taken to be used in some equipment: a. grounded c. outlet b. service entrance d. conductor 758. It is the greatest effective difference of potential that exist between any two conductors of a circuit: a. current c. resistance b. power d. voltage 759. An instrument that measures frequency: a. frequency counter c. oscillator b. frequency modulator d. rectifier 760. The circuit element that opposes any change in current: a. capacitor c. resistance b. admittance d. inductor 761. The opposition of a conductor to the flow of electric current: a. admittance c. capacitive reactance b. impedance d. resistance 762. A short circuit has a resistance of

a. b.

half-wave infinity

c. purely resistive d. zero

763. An instrument used to measure resistance, voltage and current: a. ammeter c. multimeter b. voltmeter d. ohmmeter 764. What is the minimum size of rigid metal conduit? a. ¼ in. trade size c. 3/8 in. trade size b. ½ in. trade size d. ¾ in. trade size 765. The circuit element that opposes any change in voltage: a. inductor c. siemens b. capacitor d. admittance 766. What is the maximum number of bends (in degrees) permitted in rigid metal conduit between outlets? a. 180 o c. 45 o o b. 350 d. 75 o 767. What ways wires a. b.

is the maximum number of conductors permitted in wire at any cross section, signal circuit or starter control are not included? 25 conductors c. 40 conductors 30 conductors d. 50 conductors

768. In order to protect a personnel and prevent shock, the equipment should be connected good earth ground through: a. conduit pipe c. cold water pipe b. hot water pipe d. rigid conduit pipe 769. Connecting a resistor in parallel with a meter will: a. increase the measuring range of voltmeter b. increase the measuring range of ammeter c. decrease the measuring range of ammeter d. decrease the measuring range of voltmeter 770. Connecting a resistor in series with a meter will: a. increase the measuring range of voltmeter b. increase the measuring range of ammeter c. decrease the measuring range of ammeter d. decrease the measuring range of voltmeter

771. Who is the father of electricity? a. William Gilbert c. Gustav Hertz b. Voltzman d. Gustav Kirchoff 772. Who formulated Ohm’s law? a. William Jorge Ohm b. Jorge Simon Ohm

c. Gustav Hertz d. Beil Bohr

773. What should you do to prevent shock when working on a high voltage power supply? a. charge the filter capacitor b. open the filter capacitor c. close the filter capacitor d. discharge the filter capacitor 774. Two identical capacitors are connected in parallel. What is the resultant capacitance? a. half the value of one capacitor b. thrice the value of one capacitor c. twice the value of one capacitor d. the value of one capacitor 775. Two identical capacitors are connected in series. What is the resultant capacitance? a. half the value of one capacitor b. thrice the value of one capacitor c. twice the value of one capacitor d. the value of one capacitor 776. An alternator is operating at 1.0 power factor in parallel with a large system. Increasing the field current will: a. decrease the line voltage b. increase the speed c. increase the line current d. decrease the line current 777. Equipment for hazardous location shall be approved for the ff. properties, except: a. durability c. ignitability b. combustibility d. explosibility

778. Refers to a school building, hospitals, museums, display centers, government buildings and the like: a. institutional buildings b. business establishments c. industrial plant d. commercial establishments 779. What is the item usually connected across relay contact to minimize arcing? a. reactor c. capacitor b. resistor d. spring 780. Conductors must have a clearance from windows, perches, fire escapes of not less than: a. 900 mm c. 1000 mm b. 700 mm d. 800 mm 781. It refers to choice of electrical systems, including planning and detailing of requirements for protection, control, monitoring, coordination and interlocking of electrical systems among others: a. system utilization design b. practice of electrical engineering c. power of plant design d. electrical system design 782. Determine the minimum appliance and laundry load required for a dwelling unit: a. 4000 VA c. 3000 VA b. 1500 VA d. 2000 VA 783. It is any equipment which produces, regulates, or controls the supply of electrical power: a. electric motor b. electric supply equipment c. rectifier d. inverter 784. It is an establishment or a system for production and modification of electric energy: a. electric plant c. substation b. generator house d. industrial building

785. This refers to planning, specifying, coordinating and layouting of electrical equipment in power plants, substations and the like: a. electrical design b. construction planning management c. power plant design d. plant specification 786. This is the highest effective potential difference between any two conductors of the circuit concerned: a. voltage c. ampacity b. wattage d. power factor 787. It refers to the installed capacity of a direct current electric plant on board watercraft: a. KVA c. KVAR b. KV d. KW 788. It refers to the installed capacity of an alternating current electric plant or supply equipment., or the connected load of industrial plants, commercial establishments, and institutional buildings: a. KW c. KVA b. KVAR d. KV 789. It is any building, room or separate place which houses or encloses electric supply equipment connected to transmission lines and interior of which is accessible, as a rule, only to properly qualified persons: a. battery room c. power plant b. substation d. electrical room 790. This refers to energy-consuming equipment including motors, heaters, furnaces, light sources and other devices which utilize electric energy for any purpose: a. electric devices b. utilization equipment c. resistors d. electrical appliances 791. This refers to manufacturing assembly plants, including engineering shops, shipyards or other business endeavors where electrical machinery and equipment are installed: a. power plant

b. c. d.

industrial plant of factory substation warehouse

792. These are department stores, supermarkets, shopping malls, office buildings, hotels, theaters, stadiums, condominiums, convention centers, restaurants, and the like, used for business or profit: a. recreational centers b. business centers c. commercial establishments d. institutional buildings 793. It is any waterborne unit which is designed and built to have an electric plant: a. water vessel c. submarine vessel b. ship d. watercraft 794. This refers to the power plant mounted on wheels as used in the railroad transportation industry: a. electric train c. light rail transit b. electric locomotive d. bullet train 795. Of the different kinds of starting a large squirrel cage motor, which method is the most effective? a. transformer reduced voltage method b. star delta switching c. dropping resistors d. partial winding method 796. The following wiring raceways maybe installed underground, EXCEPT: a. electrical metallic tubing c. flexible metal conduit b. rigid metal conduit d. rigid non-metallic conduit 797. The following are the advantages of motor-generator set over rotary converter EXCEPT one: a. it can be used for power factor correction purposes b. DC output voltage can be controlled easily by adjusting the field regulator c. it has a comparatively high efficiency d. provided supply voltage

798. When a rotary converter is started by means of a small auxiliary motor, the power of motor must be _______. a. less than the DC output of converter b. slightly more than the value of friction and windage losses at rated speed c. half of DC output of converter d. more than the DC output of the converter 799. The AC line current at slip-rings in a 6-phase, rotary converter having 90% efficiency and 0.92 power factor is _______ times dc current: a. 0.943 c. 0.472 b. 0.236 d. 0.570 800. A 3-phase supply can be converted into 6-phase supply by joining the 6 secondaries of the 3-phase transformer in ____: a. double-delta c. double-wye b. diametrical d. any of these 801. In a 500 kW motor-generator set, the induction motor has 6 poles and the dc generator has 4 poles. If the supply frequency is 60 Hz. The mechanical power transmitted to the shaft and electrical power transmitted are ________ respectively: a. 200 and 300 kW c. 100 and 400 kW b. 300 and 200 kW d. 350 and 150 kW 802. If you try to start a DC compound motor with the shunt field open. What would happen? a. it will over speed b. the direction of rotation will reverse c. the fuse will blow d. it will not start 803. The frequency of the output voltage of an AC generator depends on which of the following factors? a. speed c. power factor b. load d. excitation current 804. The PEC code allow a maximum voltage to be used in dwelling places. What voltage is this? a. 150 volts c. 250 volts b. 230 volts d. 277 volts

805. Electrical equipment should not be mounted on a concrete wall by which of the ff? a. lead plug c. plastic plug b. wooden lug d. expansion volt 806. A pump driven 1100 cubic feet of its motor are of the motor is motor? a. 458 A b. 632 A

by 440 V, three-phase induction motor lifts of water. The efficiency of the pump and that 0.75 and 0.92, respectively. The power factor 0.90. What is the line current drawn by the c. 328 A d. 583 A

807. A 3-phase motor draws 50 amperes at full load. What shall be the maximum inverse time circuit breaker that may be used for short circuit protection? a. 50 amp c. 125 amp b. 100 amp d. 75 amp 808. To obtain an accurate mounting of panel maters, which one of the following is the procedure? a. drill from the back of the panel b. use a template c. use the meter to mark the hole center d. drill oversized 809. What can possibly happen in a battery room where there are hot spots due to loose connections or sparkling? a. an explosion might occur b. the electrolyte might over heat c. a short circuit may occur d. an electrician may get shock 810. What is the exception in the advantages when comparing solid wires with stranded wires of the same cross-sectional area? a. It is longer in over-all diameter b. It is better for high voltages c. It is easier to skin off the insulation d. It has a higher current rating 811. Communication cables and wires shall have a voltage rating not less than ________. a. 400 volts c. 600 volts

b.

300 volts

d. 250 volts

812. Which one of the following raceways is not suitable for installation in wet locations? a. rigid non-metallic conduit b. rigid metal conduit c. flexible metal conduit d. intermediate metal conduit 813. What is the item usually connected across relay contacts to minimize arcing? a. reactor c. capacitor b. resistor d. spring 814. The frequency of the output voltage of an AC generator depends on which of the following factors? a. speed c. power factor b. load d. excitation current

815. If you try to start a DC compound motor the shunt field of which is open. What would happen? a. it will over speed b. the direction of rotation will reverse c. the fuse will blow d. it will not start 816. Of the different kinds of starting a large squirrel cage motor, which method is the most effective? a. Transformer reduced voltage method b. Star-delta switching c. Dropping resistors d. Partial winding method 817. The following wiring raceways may be installed underground, EXCEPT: a. Electrical metallic tubing b. Rigid metal conduit c. Flexible metal conduit d. Rigid non-metallic conduit

818. Where receptacles are connected to a 20-ampere branch circuit. What should be the maximum allowable rating of a cord-and-plug connected load? a. 15 amperes c. 30 amperes b. 10 amperes d. 23 amperes 819. Equipment for hazardous locations shall be approved for the following properties, except: a. durability c. ignitability b. combustibility d. explosibility 820. What is the size in square millimeter (mm2) is the cable of 250 MCM size? a. 118.656 mm2 c. 112.565 mm2 2 b. 126.675 mm d. 132.348 mm2 821. For service drop conductors not exceeding 600 volts it’s minimum clearance over commercial area parking lots subject to truck traffic is: a. 3700 mm c. 5500 mm b. 4600 mm d. 3100 mm 822. In rigid metal wiring conduit, the minimum electrical trade size is: a. 25 mm c. 15 mm b. 20 mm d. 32 mm 823. For a person to be considered to be a member of the Board of Electrical Engineering, he must: Be a natural born Filipino citizen and a resident of the Philippines for a t least _____ consecutive years; Be at least _____ years of age, of proven integrity with high moral values in his personal as well as his professional conduct. Have practiced electrical engineering for a period of not less than _____ years prior to his appointment, with sworn statement as such a. 5, 45, 10 c. 10, 35. 5 b. 5, 35, 10 d. 5, 45, 15 824. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of ____ years from the date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified. a. 4 c. 3 b. 6 d. 5

825. Section 5 Article 1 states that: a. An Electrical Engineer shall discharge his duties with absolute fidelity to his clients and employers, and shall at all times, act with optimum margin of safety and with fairness and impartiality to all, having due regard to public interest and welfare.] b. An Electrical Engineer shall uphold the honor and dignity of his profession and, therefore, shall avoid association or business dealings with any person or enterprises of questionable character. c. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his work or merit in a simple manner and avoid any practice that will discredit or do injury to the dignity and honor of his profession. d. An Electrical Engineer endeavor to extend knowledge of electrical engineering to the public and shall discourage spreading the untrue, unfair, and exaggerated statements regarding electrical engineering.

826. Who is the Chairman of the Board of Electrical Engineering when RA 7920 was approved? a. Engr. Roy F. Gil b. Engr. Paul Woo c. Engr. Rafael F. Florentino d. Engr. Gerardo V. Gaor 827. Section 4 Article 1 states that: a. An Electrical Engineer shall discharge his duties with absolute fidelity to his clients and employers, and shall at all times, act with optimum margin of safety and with fairness and impartiality to all, having due regard to public interest and welfare. b. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his work or merit in a simple manner and avoid any practice that will discredit or do injury to the dignity and honor of his profession. c. An Electrical Engineer shall uphold the honor and dignity of his profession and, therefore, shall avoid association or business dealings with any person or enterprises of questionable character.

d.

An Electrical Engineer shall strive to upgrade his skill and knowledge in electrical engineering information and experiences with other engineers, and by unselfishly contributing to the mission of engineering societies, institutes, schools ad engineering and scientific media, and other public institutions.

828. The Board of electrical Engineering is empowered to look into the conditions affecting the practice of the electrical engineering profession, adopt measures for the enhancement of the profession and maintenance of the high professional, technical and _______ standards. a. Theoretical c. U.S. b. Acceptable d. ethical 829. Sec 17 (b) of Art III: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of applicants for Registered Electrical Engineer, states that an applicant is a least be ______ years of age: a. 21 c. 24 b. 23 d. 25

830. Sec 5 (b) Qualifications of Members of Art II Board of Electrical Engineering is ___________. a. Be a natural born Filipino citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at least five (5) consecutive years. b. Be at least thirty (35) years, of proven integrity with high moral values in his personal was well as his professional conduct. c. Be a person with no final conviction by the court of an offensive involving moral turpitude d. Have practiced electrical engineering for a period of not less than ten (10) years prior to his appointment, with a sworn statement as such. 831. Article III, Rule 7: a. Enforcement and execution b. Promulgation of Decisions, Rules, etc. c. Official Business with the Commission d. Assignment of Duties 832. Article IV, Rule _____ Requirements for examination as a RME

a. b.

14 15

c. 16 d. 17

833. Article IV, Rule _____ Requirements for registration as PEE: a. 12 c. 14 b. 13 d. 15 834. RISC a. b. c. d.

means? Reduce Instruction Set Computing Reduce Instruction Set Computer Reduce instruction Set Component Reduce Information Set Capacity

835. Article I, Section 6 states that: An Electrical Engineer shall have due regard at all _____ times for the safety of the life and health of his employees, other workers, as well as of the general public and to the protection of life and property that may be affected by the work under his responsibility. a. Buildings c. office b. times d. work area 836. Article 1, Section 3: a. An Electrical Engineer shall endeavor to extend knowledge of electrical engineering to the public and shall discourage spreading the untrue, unfair, and exaggerated statements regarding electrical engineering b. An Electrical Engineer shall discharge his duties with absolute fidelity to his clients and employers and shall, a t all times, act with optimum margin of safety and with fairness and impartiality to all, having due regard to public interest and welfare. c. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his work or merit in a simple manner and avoid any practice that will discredit or do injury to the dignity and honor of his profession. d. An Electrical Engineer shall strive to upgrade his skill and knowledge in electrical engineering in order to give the best possible service to the public which could be attained by exchanging information and experiences with other engineers, and by unselfishly contributing to the

mission of engineering societies, institutes, schools and engineering and scientific media, and other public institution 837. Article III, section 4 states that: a. An Electrical Engineer shall give credit to the engineering work of the person to whom the credit is legally due. b. An Electrical Engineer shall live up to the standards of professional practice of electrical engineering. c. An Electrical Engineer shall not directly or indirectly injure the professional reputation, prospects, or practice of his colleagues in the profession. Wherever he finds Electrical Engineer violating the rules of ethical or professional practices, he shall bring the matter of the attention of the proper forum for disciplinary or for other appropriate action. d. An Electrical Engineer shall not malign, vilify, or destroy the good name and reputation of others.

838. Article 2, Section 2: a. An Electrical Engineer shall honestly advice his clients or employer if specialized work is called for to engage the services of competent experts and specialists, and once engaged he shall cooperate with them in the interests of his client or employer b. An Electrical Engineer shall present clearly the known possible consequences or limitations of the work for which he will be responsible. c. An Electrical Engineer shall, before undertaking any engagement or entering into any contract which calls for his professional service that will require or need the use of apparatus, other equipment or things in which he has financial interest, have such situation clarified in the contract or agreement to avoid conflict of interests. d. An Electrical Engineer shall be vigilant in guarding against conditions that may be dangerous or threatening to life, health, or property on work for

which he is responsible, or to bring to the attention of those responsible for such conditions. 839. The Board of Electrical Engineering is empowered to look into the conditions affecting the practice of the electrical engineering profession. Adopt measures for the enhancement of the profession and maintenance of the high professional, technical and _______ standards. a. Theoretical c. U.S. b. Acceptable d. Ethical 840. Section 4 (p) Powers and Duties of the Board of Article II Board of Electrical Engineering is _______: a. Adopt an official seal b. Issue subpoena or subpoena duces tecum to secure the attendance of respondents or witnesses relative to the investigation conducted by the Board c. Prosecute or institute criminal action against any violator of the Act and or the rules and regulations of the board d. Supervise and regulate the practice of electrical engineering in the Philippines. 841. Section 4 (r) Powers and Duties of the Board of Article II Board of Electrical Engineering is _______. a. promulgate rules an regulations including a code of ethics, administrative policies, orders and issuances to carry out the provisions of this Act b. coordinate with the Commission and the Department of Education, Culture and Sports (DECS) in prescribing amending and/or revising the courses c. supervise and regulate the practice of electrical engineering in the Philippines d. determine and evaluate the qualifications of the applicants for registration with or without licensure examinations for special permits. 842. Sec. 18(1) of Art. 3: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electricians states that: ______________. a. He has completed at least three (3) years of fiveyear BSEE program or three-year course in

b.

c.

d.

electrical engineering technology from an engineering school and has one (1) year of practice of electrical wiring and installation, operation and maintenance of utilization devices and equipment He has graduated from a two-year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational school recognized by the Philippine government, and, in addition, has at least three (3) years of electrical practice. He has completed a one (1) year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational school recognized by the Philippine government and, in addition, has at least three (3) years of electrical practice. He has completed a four year high school education or its equivalent and, in addition, has a subsequent record of at least five (5) years of electrical practice.

843. All papers, communications, certificates, decisions or other documents shall be solely and exclusively acted upon by the Board within the premises of the _________. a. President c. Commission b. DECS d. CHED 844. Section 4 Article 1 states that: a. An Electrical engineer shall discharge his duties with absolute fidelity to his clients and employers, and shall at all times, act with optimum margin of safely and with fairness and impartially to all, having due regard to public interest and welfare. b. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his work or merit in a simple manner and avoid any practice that will discredit or do injury to the dignity and honor of his profession. c. An Electrical Engineer shall uphold the honor and dignity of his profession and, therefore, shall avoid association or business dealings with any person or enterprises of questionable character. d. An Electrical Engineer shall strive to upgrade his skill and knowledge in electrical engineering in order to give the best possible service to the public which could be attained by exchanging information and experiences with other engineers, and by unselfishly contributing to the mission of engineering societies, institutes, schools

and engineering and scientific media, and other public institutions. 845. IN Rule 2 (c) defining? a. Syllabi b. Commission c. Commissioner – the chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission d. Board –Board of Electrical Engineering 846. Sec 5 (b) Qualifications of Members of Art. II Board of Electrical Engineering is _____________ a. Be a natural born Filipino citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at least five (5) consecutive years. b. Be at least thirty five (35) years of age, of proven integrity with high moral values in his personal as well as his professional conduct. c. Be a person with no final conviction by the court of an offensive involving turpitude. d. Have practiced electrical engineering for a period of not less than ten (10) years prior to his appointment, with a sworn statement as such. 847. Sec 17 (b) of Art. III: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Electrical Engineer, states that an applicant is at least be _____ years of age. a. 21 c. 24 b. 23 d. 25 848. Sec. 23 of Art. III: Issuance of Certificate of Registration. The professional is required to renew license every _______ years upon payment of registration fees: a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 6 849. Sec 33 of Art. IV: Sundry Provisions Relative to Practice of Electrical Engineering, states that _______: a. Personnel required b. Preparation of plans, supervision of installation, application of PEC code. c. Practice not allowed for firms and corporation d. Prohibitions is the Practice of Electrical Engineering

850. Section 4 (0) Power and Duties of the Board of Art II Board of Electrical Engineering is ________: a. Promulgate rules and regulations including a code of ethics, administrative policies, orders and issuances to carry out the provision of this Act. b. Coordinate with the commission and tre Department of Education, Culture and Sports (DECS) in prescribing, amending or revising the courses. c. Administer oaths in connection with the administration, implementation, or enforcement of this Act. d. Submit an annual report on the proceedings and accomplishments during the year and on recommendation of the Board to the commission after the close of fiscal year. 851. Sec. 18 (b) of Art. III: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electrician states that ______: a. He is a citizen of the Philippines b. He is at least eighteen (18) years of age c. He is of good reputation with high moral values d. He is at least twenty-one (21) years of age 852. Sec. 16 (d) of Art. III: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered as Professional Electrical Engineer states that __________: a. He is of good reputation with high moral values b. He is a citizen of the Philippines c. He has not been finally convicted by the court of an offense involving moral turpitude d. He is holder of the degree of BSEE from a university, school, college, etc. recognized ad accredited by Philippine government. 853. Sec. 18 (4) of Art. III: Examination and Registration, qualifications of applicants for Registered Electrician states that _________: a. He has completed at least three (3) years of a five-year BSEE program or three year course in electrical engineering technology from an engineering school and has one (1) year of practice of electrical wiring and installation, operation and maintenance of utilization from a vocational school

b.

c.

d.

He has graduated from a two-year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational school recognized by the Philippine government, and in addition has at least three (3) years of electrical practice. He has completed a one (1) year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational school recognized by the Philippine government and, in addition has at least three (3) years of electrical practice. He has completed a four year high school education or its equivalent and, in addition, has a subsequent record of at least five (5) years of electrical practice.

854. Sec. 17 (e) of Art. 3: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Electrical Engineer, states that: a. He is at least twenty-one (21) years of age. b. He is of good reputation with high moral values c. He is a holder of the degree of BSEE from a University, school, college, etc. recognized and accredited by the Philippine government. d. He is a citizen of the Philippines.

855. Sec. 17 (b) of Art. III: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of applicants for Registered Electrical Engineer, states that an applicant s at least be _______ years of age: a. 21 c. 24 b. 23 d. 25 856. Sec. 18 (2) of Art. III: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electrician states that: ___________. a. He has completed at least three (3) years of a five-year BSEE program or three-year course in electrical engineering technology from an engineering school and has one (1) year of practice in electrical wiring and installation, operation and maintenance of utilization devices and equipment b. He has graduated from a two-year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational school recognized by the Philippine government, and in

c.

d.

addition has a t least two (2) years of electrical practice. He has completed a one (1) year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational school recognized by the Philippine government and, in addition has at least three (3) years of electrical practice. He has completed a four year high school education or its equivalent and in, addition, has a subsequent record of a t least five (5) years of electrical service.

857. Section 29 of Art. III: Revocation of Certificates of Registration and Suspension from the practice of the Profession. The Board shall have the power, upon notice of hearing, revoke and certificate of registration of any registrant, to suspend him from the practice of his professions, for fraud, deceit, gross negligence or incompetence. Which will satisfy the above policy? a. Rules and regulation, policies, and code of professional ethics of this Act b. Order of court c. PRC ruling d. Act of government

858. Sec. 1 Art. II - Relations with Client and Employer, states that: An Electrical Engineer shall be fair, impartial and reasonable in rendering professional service to his clients, employers and contractors regarding contract or other agreements: a. True c. false b. partly true d. partly false 859. Sec. 2 of Art. II – Relations with Client and Employer, states that: An Electrical Engineer shall, before undertaking any engagement or entering into any contract which calls for his professional service that will require or need the use of apparatus, other equipment or things in which he has financial interest, have such situation clarified in the contract or agreement to avoid __________: a. confusion c. disagreement b. conflict of interest d. violation

860. Section 4 (a) Powers and Duties of the Board of Art. II Board of Electrical Engineering is __________: a. Issue permits to individual foreign electrical engineers and electricians. b. Supervise and regulate the practice of electrical engineering in the Philippines c. Determine and evaluate the qualifications of the applicants for registration with or without licensure examinations for special permits d. Promulgate rules and regulations including a code of ethics, administrative policies, orders and issuances to carry out the provisions of this Act. 861. Article 1 is for the title and definition of terms. What is Sec 2 (3a) of this Article? a. Consultation, investigation, valuation and management of services requiring electrical engineering knowledge b. Supervision of erection, installation, testing and commissioning of power plants, substations, transmission lines, industrial plants and others. c. Teaching of electrical engineering professional subjects d. Taking charge of the sale and distribution of electrical equipments and systems requiring engineering calculations or applications of engineering data. 862. RA 7920 is an act providing for a more responsive and comprehensive ________ for the practice, licensing, and registration of electrical engineers and electricians. a. control c. regulation b. evaluation d. enactment 863. Vacancies of the board shall be filled by the _____ from list of recommendees selected by the Commissioner who was chosen from the list of nominees submitted by the integrated and accredited association for unexpired terms only. a. IIEE b. President of the Philippines c. Chairman of the Board d. Commissioner 864. Sec. 18 (1) of Art. Ill: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electricians, states that an applicant has completed at least three (3) years of a five-year Bachelor of Science in Electrical

Engineering (BSEE) program or a three-year course in Electrical Technology with _____ years of practice in electrical wiring installation, operation and maintenance. a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 5 865. The issuance of Electrical Permit need not to be issued immediately. The delay shall not be longer than ________________ after which time the application together with the accompanying plans shall be considered as complying with all the requirements and the electrical permit shall be issued thereafter. a. 7 working days c. 5 working days b. 10 working days d. 3 working days 866. The member of the board shall hold office for a term of _____ years from the date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified: a. 4 c. 3 b. 6 d. 5 867. The New Electrical Engineering Law is referred to: a. PD 1123 c. PD 185 b. RA 7920 d. RA 184 868. Which of the following may cause a member of the Board to be removed by the President of the Philippines? a. incompetence c. neglect of duty b. malpractice d. all of these 869. CPE means: a. Commission on Professional Education b. Continuing Program of Education c. Continuing Professional Education d. Continuing Professional Engineering 870. What percent of the maximum fees for all the applications for oral examinations for professional electrical engineer and written examinations for registered electrical engineer and registered master electrician shall be treated as special fund for the programs, projects and activities of the commission? a. 90% c. 70% b. 50% d. 10%

871. A person is deemed to be in practice of electrical engineering when he renders or offers professional electrical engineering services in the form of: a. consultation b. design and preparation c. teaching of electrical subjects d. all of the above 872. The Board of Electrical engineering shall be composed of how many members? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 873. The Board shall be vested with the following specific powers, duties and responsibilities except one. Which one is this? a. supervise and regulate the practice of electrical engineering in the Philippines b. must keep in touch with the Deans and President of some universities to give information regarding test question c. determine and evaluate the qualifications of the applicants for registration with or without licensure examinations and for special permits d. adopt an official seal 874. Each Board member must be at least _________ years of age at the time of his appointment: a. 30 c. 40 b. 35 d. 28 875. Each Board member must be a natural-born Filipino citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at least _____________ consecutive years at the time of his appointment: a. 10 c. 5 b. 12 d. 15 876. Each Board member must have practiced electrical engineering for a period of not less than _________ years prior to his appointment, with a sworn statement as such: a. 10 c. 15 b. 5 d. 20 877. Each Board member must not be an official nor a member of the faculty of, nor have a pecuniary interest in, any

university, college, school, or bachelor’s degree in electrical __________ years prior to his connected with a review center: a. 5 c. b. 10 d.

institution conferring a engineering for at least appointment and is not

878. Any member of the Board may be of the Philippines, upon the commissioner for: a. neglect of duty c. b. incompetence d.

removed by the President recommendation of the

3 7

unethical all of the above

879. The Chairman and members of the Board shall receive compensation of no less than _______: Provide, that the Chairman shall receive __________ more: a. P 10,000.00, 5% c. P 10,000, 10% b. P 12,000.00, 10% d. P 12,000, 5% 880. How many percent of the examination fees shall be treated as a special fund for the programs, projects and activities of the commission? a. 10% c. 50% b. 90% d. 30% 881. How many percent of the examination fees shall be set aside as a trust for the establishment and maintenance of the center for continuing education and research? a. 90% c. 10% b. 50% d. 60% 882. How many percent of the registration fees, license fees, and fines shall be set up in a special fund for the supervisory and regulatory functions of the Board? a. 50% c. 90% b. 10% d. 30% 883. The ___________ shall be the executive officer of the Board and shall conduct the examination given by the Board: a. Board Chairman b. President of the Philippines c. Secretary of DECS d. Commissioner of PRC

884. Exemption from examination and registration imposed to which of the following? a. foreign electrical engineers b. engineering students c. erection/commissioning/guarantee engineers d. all of these

may

be

885. The exemption herein granted shall be good only for _______ renewable for another _______ at the discretion of the Board. a. 1 year, 1 year c. 2 years, 6 months b. 6 months, 6 months d. 6 months, 1 year 886. To qualify applicants for examination, notice of admission shall be issued not later that ________ days prior to the first day of examination: a. 20 c. 10 b. 15 d. 5 887. Any person applying or admission to the registered electrical engineer’s examinations shall be a Bachelor of Science in Electrical Engineering (BSEE) and at least _______ years of age: a. 23 c. 20 b. 18 d. 21 888. A duly licensed and registered electrical engineer (REE) shall be allowed to take an oral examination for a professional electrical engineer provided he has _____ years or more of active practice reckoned from the date of his registration as REE: a. 5 c. 6 b. 4 d. 3 889. A person shall not be required to register if he is in charge of or supervising the operation, tending and maintenance of an electric generating set for private use employing voltages not exceeding ___________ and capacity not exceeding _______. a. 250 V, 50 KVA c. 230 V, 50 KVA b. 220 V, 100 KVA d. 240 V, 100 KVA

890. Any person applying for admission to the registered master electrician’s (RME) examinations shall establish to the satisfaction of the Board and be at least ______ years of age: a. 21 c. 23 b. 18 d. 25 891. For the purpose of confirming the service record and clarifying the technical report, an applicant for registration as professional electrical engineer (PEE) shall present ________ certifications signed by _______ PEEs. a. 1, 1 c. 2, 2 b. 3, 3 d. 4, 4 892. The applicant for registered electrical engineer’s examinations shall pass the written examinations on Mathematics, Engineering Science and Applied Subjects, and Electrical Engineering Professional Subjects with a weight of ________, ________, ________, respectively: a. 30%, 30%, 40% c. 25%, 30%, 45% b. 25%, 35%, 40% d. 25%, 45%, 30% 893. The passing general weighted average shall be _______ with on grade below ________ in any subjects: a. 70%, 50% c. 75%, 50% b. 70%, 70% d. 70%, 60% 894. An applicant who obtained a general weighted average of 70% or above but with a rating of less than 50% on any subject shall be allowed to take ________ only on the subject he failed: a. two times c. four times b. three times d. none of the above 895. The applicant for registered master electrician shall pass the written examinations on Technical subjects and Philippine Electrical Code (PEC) Parts 1 and 11 weighing _________ and ________, respectively: a. 30%, 30% c. 60%, 40% b. 50%, 50% d. 40%, 60% 896. Any person shall be admitted to take the examinations for registered master electrician provided he has completed at least _______ years of a five-year Bachelor of Science in

Electrical Engineering (BSEE) program and has a subsequent specific record of ______ year practice in electrical wiring and installation and maintenance of utilization devices and equipment: a. 3, 3 c. 3, 1 b. 2, 5 d. 3, 2 897. Any person shall be admitted to take the registered master electrician’s course of instruction from vocational or trade school recognized by the Philippine government and has at least ______ years of apprenticeship after the completion of the course instructions: a. 5 c. 2 b. 3 d. 4 898. Any person shall be admitted to take the registered master electrician’s examinations provided he has completed a oneyear electrician’s course and at least _____ years of apprenticeship after the completion of the course instruction: a. 3 c. 4 b. 5 d. 2 899. The new “Electrical Engineering Law” has been approved and took effect last: a. February 14, 1995 c. February 24, 1995 b. March 24, 1995 d. March 14, 1995 900. Any person shall be admitted to take the registered master electrician’s examinations provided he has completed a fouryear high school education or its equivalent and has a subsequent specific record of at least _____ years of apprenticeship: a. 6 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5 901. The Board of Electrical Engineering, within _____days after the date of completions of the examinations, report the rating obtained by each candidate to the Commission: a. 7 c. 90 b. 150 d. 14 902. A professional license shall be renewed by the licensee every ________ years prior to the date of registration and shall

comply with the requirements of the continuing professional education (CPE): a. 3 c. 2 b. 5 d. 1 903. A registered master electrician shall be allowed to practice his profession as granted by this Act provided the installation of the machinery is rated of not more than _______ of _______: a. 250 KVA, 250 V c. 500 KVA, 250 V b. 500 KVA, 600 V d. 250 KVA, 500 V 904. Revocation of certificates of registration and supervision from the practice of the profession whenever: a. Being a professional electrical engineer, he has signed ad similar documents or work not prepared by him or not executed under his immediate supervision. b. He has represented himself as having taken charge of or supervised: any electrical construction or installation; operation, tending and maintenance of any electric plant; manufacture or repair of electrical equipment, teaching of electrical engineering subjects, etc. without actually doing so. c. Both a and b d. None of the above

905. A new certificate of registration may be re-issued after the expiration of _______ year(s) from the date of revocation: a. 3 c. 4 b. 2 d. 1 906. Any person who shall violate any provisions of this Act shall be sentenced to a fine or not less than ______ nor more than ______ or imprisonment for a period of ________ months to _______ years or both at the discretion of the court: a. P 10,000.00, P 50,000.00, 6, 5 b. P 5,000.00, P 10,000.00, 6, 10 c. P 10,000.00, P 50,000.00, 6, 10 d. P 5,000.00, P 10,000.00, 6, 5 907. Assistant and Associate Electrical Engineer with professional license issued under RA 184 shall register within 2 years from

the effectivity of RA 7920 and shall be issued new certificate of registration and professional license as: a. Professional Electrical Engineer b. Registered Master Electrician c. Electrical Engineer d. Registered Electrical Engineer 908. Mater Electrician with professional license issued under RA 184 shall register within two years from the effectivity of this Act and be issued new certificate of registration and professional license as: a. Professional Electrical Engineer b. Registered Master Electrician c. Electrical Engineer d. Registered Electrical Engineer 909. It is an act providing for more responsive and comprehensive regulation for the practice, licensing and registration of electrical engineers and electricians: a. RA 2320 c. RA 3290 b. RA 7920 d. RA 6657 910. Before any person is allowed to practice electrical engineering in the Philippines, he must have first a valid: a. certificate of registration c. none of the above b. professional license d. both (a) and (b) 911. A decision of suspension, revocation of the certificate of registration, or delisting from the roll by the Board as provided herein, may be appealed initially to the Commission within ________ days from the receipt thereof: a. 30 c. 20 b. 60 d. 15 912. The Board of Electrical Engineering is here referred as : a. commission c. board b. department d. bureau 913. The Professional Regulation Commission is called: a. bureau c. agency b. commission d. department

914. The number of questions for the registered electrical engineer shall be such that the examinations can be finished in _______ consecutive ______ hour days: a. 3, 8 c. 3, 6 b. 2, 8 d. 2, 6 915. The Board of Electrical Engineering shall not issue a certificate of registration to any person: a. convicted by the court for criminal offense or moral turpitude b. guilty of immoral or dishonorable conduct c. unsound mind d. all of the above 916. The Board of Electrical Engineering may suspend a professional from his profession for unprofessional or dishonorable conduct. Among these are, except: a. Signing and sealing electrical plans brought to him for approval b. Represented himself as having taken charge of or supervised any electrical construction without actually having done so. c. For perpetration of fraud or deceit in obtaining a certificate of registration d. Signing technical reports, estimates or specification not prepared by him 917. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Membership in the integrated organization like the llEE shall not be a bar to membership in other associatins of the electrical engineering profession. b. A professional who has bee suspended by the Bard of Electrical Engineering may appeal his case within 30 days with Regional Trial court. c. In the event of refusal to issue certificate of registration, Board shall give the applicants a written statement of the reason for refusal. d. A firm or corporation ma file charges after taking cognizance of acts constituting cause for suspension of a professional. 918. The power and functions of the CPE council are the following EXCEPT:

a. b. c. d.

Accept, evaluate and approve applications fro accreditation of CPE providers Approve recommendations of CPE providers for the number of CPE credit units of their programs Assess periodically and upgrade criteria for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs, activities or sources. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for exemptions from CPE requirements.

919. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Membership in the integrated organization like the llEE shall not be a bar to membership in other associations of the electrical engineering profession. b. A professional who has been suspended by the Board of Electrical Engineering may appeal his case within 30 days with the Regional Trial Court. c. In the event of refusal to issue a certificate of registration, the Board shall give the applicant a written statement of the reason for refusal. d. A firm or corporation may charges after taking cognizance of acts constituting cause for suspension of a professional 920. Rule 2(P), Article I defines: a. IIEE b. DECS

c. CHED d. TESDA

921. RA 7920, Rule 3: a. PRC Seal b. DECS Seal

c. PEE Official Seal d. CHED Seal

922. Sec. 18(3) of Art. III: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electricians states that: _____? a. He has completed a four-year high school education of its equivalent and, in addition, has a subsequent record of at least five (5) years of electrical practice. b. He has graduated from a two-year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational school or trade school recognized by the Philippine government, and n addition, has at least two (2) years of electrical practice.

c.

d.

He has completed a one (1) year electrician’s of instruction from a vocational school recognized by the Philippine government, and in addition, has at least three (3) years of electrical practice. He has completed at least three (3) years of a five-year BSEE program or three-year course in electrical engineering technology from an engineering school and has one (1) year of practice in electrical wiring and installation, operation and maintenance of utilization devices and equipment.

923. Sec. 5(b) Qualifications of Members of Art. II Board of Electrical Engineering is _____________________. a. Be a holder of the degree of Bachelor of Science in Electrical Engineering (BSEE) from a university, school, college, academy or institute of a duly constituted, recognized and accredited by the Philippine government. b. Be at least thirty-five (35) years of age, of proven integrity with high moral values in his personal as well as his professional conduct. c. Be a person with no final conviction by the court of an offense involving moral turpitude. d. Be a professional electrical engineer with a valid certificate of registration and a valid professional license duly qualified to practice electrical engineering in the Philippines. 924. Section 6, Article III of the Code of Ethics for the Electrical Engineer states that: a. An Electrical Engineer shall live up to the standards of professional practice of electrical engineering. b. An Electrical Engineer shall give credit to the engineering work of the person to whom the credit is legally due. c. An Electrical Engineer shall not alter, modify or improve the whole electrical plan or any portion thereof prepared and/or signed and sealed by another Professional Electrical Engineer without the latter’s written consent or permission. d. An Electrical Engineer shall not directly or indirectly injure the professional reputation prospects, or practice of his colleagues in the profession. Whenever he finds an Electrical Engineer violating the rules of ethical or

professional practices, he shall bring the manner to the attention of the proper forum for disciplinary or for other appropriate action. 925. Allowing a foreign engineer to take board examinations and be given certificate of registration provided the same will be granted to a Filipino in such county is called: a. foreign reciprocity c. Winchester Agreement b. Paris Treaty d. none of the above 926. What sections are included in Article V, Transitory Provisions: a. 40 to 41 c. 41 to 44 b. 41 to 42 d. 41 to 43 927. Sec. 5(e) Qualifications of Members of Art. II Board of Electrical engineering is ________. a. Be a person with no final conviction by the court of an offense involving moral turpitude. b. Be a professional electrical engineer with a valid certificate of registration and a valid professional license duly qualified to practice electrical engineering in the Philippines. c. Be a natural-born Filipino citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at least five (5) consecutive years. d. Be at least thirty-five (350 years of age, of proven integrity with high moral values in his personal as well as his professional conduct. 928. In the Article I, Section 2(a)(3) states that: a. Teaching of electrical engineering professional subjects. b. Taking charge of the sale and distribution of electrical equipment and systems requiring engineering calculations or application of engineering data. c. Consultation, investigation, valuation and management of services requiring electrical engineering knowledge. d. Supervision of erection, installation, testing and commissioning of power plants, substation, transmission lines, industrial plants and others. 929. In Article II, Section 4r states that: a. Submit an annual report. b. Administer oath in connection with the administration, implementation, or enforcement of this act.

c.

d.

Coordinate with the commission and the Department of Education Culture and Sports (DECS) in prescribing, amending or revising the courses. Issue subpoena or subpoena duces tecum.

930. Article II, Section 4. Powers and Duties of the board. What is meant by quasi-legislative? a. Supervision c. Investigate b. Evaluation d. Rule making 931. Sec. 18(b), Art. III-Qualifications of Applicants for registered Electrician. a. 18 c. 21 b. 20 d. 23 932. Article I is for title and definition of terms. What is Sec. 2 (Ia) of this article? a. Consultation, investigation, valuation and management of services requiring electrical engineering knowledge. b. Supervision of operation and maintenance of electrical equipment in power plants, industrial plants, watercrafts, electric locomotives and others. c. Teaching of electrical engineering professional subjects. d. Taking charge of the sale and distribution of electrical equipment and systems requiring engineering calculations or applications of engineering data. 933. In Article III, Section 18(3) states that: a. Has Completed at least three (3) years of five-year Bachelor of Science in Electrical Engineering (BSEE) program of engineering school recognized by the Philippine government and, in addition, has a subsequent specific record of one (1) year practice in electrical wiring installation, operation and maintenance of utilization of devices and equipment. b. Has a graduate from a two-year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational or trade school recognized by the Philippine government and, in addition, has at least two (2) years of apprenticeship after completion of the course of instruction on electrical installation, operation and maintenance of utilization devices and equipment.

c.

d.

Has completed a one-year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational school recognized by the Philippine government and, in addition, has at least three (3) years of apprenticeship after completion of the course of instruction on electrical installation, operation and maintenance of utilization, devices and equipment. Has completed a four-year-high school education of its equivalent and, in addition, has a subsequent specific record of at least five (5) years of apprenticeship in electrical wiring installation, operation and maintenance o utilization devices and equipment.

934. Sec. 4 of Art. II states the powers and duties of the board. What does it mean by quasi-legislative powers? a. Control c. Rule-making b. Evaluation d. Supervisory

935. Sec. 18(2) of Art. III: Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electricians states that: __________ a. Has completed a four year high school education or its equivalent, and in addition, has a subsequent record of at least five (5) years of electrical practice. b. Has completed at least three (3) years of a five-year BSEE program or three-year course in electrical engineering technology from an engineering school and has one (1) year of practice of electrical wiring and installation, operation and maintenance of utilization devices and equipment. c. Has graduated from a two-year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational or trade school recognized by the Philippine government,

d.

and in addition, has at least two (2) years of apprenticeship after completion of the course of instruction on electrical installation, operation and maintenance of utilization devices and equipment. Has completed a one-year electrician’s course of instruction from a vocational school recognized by the Philippine government, and in addition, has at least three (3) years of apprenticeship after completion of the course of instruction on electrical installation, operation and maintenance of utilization devices and equipment.

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING 936. What is the process involved in the transfer of moisture from the sea to the land and back to the sea? a. hydrologic cycle c. evaporation b. precipitation d. evapotranspiration 937. What is the graph showing stream flow vs. time? a. rating curve c. infiltration curve b. hydrograph d. all of these 938. It is the small channel in the invert of a large combined sewer for dry weather flow? a. cunette c. inverted siphon

b.

sag pipe

d. holes

939. It is the phenomenon where air is forced to rise over a mountain barrier? a. wind upsurge c. convective lifting b. frontal lifting d. orographic lifting 940. What is the area tributary to a given point on a stream and is separated by a divider? a. river basin c. watershed b. river delta d. lake 941. What a. b. c. d.

are the type(s) of rain gauge? precipitation gauge staff gauge weighing rain gauge and tipping bucket gauge all of the above

942. What is the map that shows contours of equal precipitation? a. isohyetal map c. topographic map b. hydrolic map d. none of these 943. Which statement is true? a. effluent streams have a perennial flow of water. b. influent streams have intermittent flow of water. c. most river basins contain both effluent and influent streams. d. all of these. 944. What is the graph that plots the measured steam flow discharge vs. water surface elevation? a. hydrograph c. rating curve b.

infiltration curve

d. none of these

945. What are the method(s) of measuring steam flow? a. price current meter c. rating curve b. open-channel formulas d. all of these 946. The hot wire anemometer is used to measure: a. gas velocity b. wind velocities at airports c. pressure in gases

d.

pressure in liquids

947. What is the evaporation of water from the leaves of plant? a. interception c. depression storage b.

transpiration

d. basin recharge

948. What is the map that shows the average annual lake evaporation values? a. isohyetal map c. hydrologic map b. topographic map d. evaporation potential 949. What is the term for rainwater collected by the leaves and stems vegetation or structure? a. Interception c. basin recharge b. depression storage d. soil moisture 950. What is the term for water retained as puddles? a. interception c. basin recharge b. depression storage d. soil moisture 951. What is the term for capillary water in the smaller pore surface of the soil? a. interception c. basin recharge b. depression storage d. soil moisture 952. What flows a. b.

is the term for water that penetrates into the soil and laterally in the surface soil to stream channel? runoff c. percolation interflow d. all of these

953. What are the methods for rainwater to reach a stream? a. surface runoff c. percolation b. inter flow d. all of these 954. What is the combination of a Direct Runoff? a. precipitation, basin recharge and ground water accretion b. surface runoff, inter flow and percolation c. interception, depression storage and basin recharge d. all of these

955. What is the term required to the rate of surface runoff and the rate of rainfall to reach equilibrium? a. runoff coefficient c. overflow b. infiltration rate d. time of concentration 956. What is the amount of water, which can be supplied from a reservoir in a specific interval of time? a. specific yield c. secondary yield b. reservoir yield d. none of these 957. What is the maximum quantity of water can be guaranteed during a critical dry period? a. specific yield c. safe yield b. reservoir yield d. secondary yield 958. What is the volume of water that will drain freely from the aquifier? a. specific yield c. safe yield b. reservoir yield d. secondary yield 959. What is the water available in excess of safe yield during periods of high flow? a. specific yield c. safe yield b. reservoir yield d. secondary yield 960. Which of the following are type(s) of flood mitigation reservoirs? a. Quay walls b. dikes c. levees d. storage reservoirs and retarding basins 961. What is the line defined by the static level of water in the wells penetrating the zone of saturation? a. water table c. piezometric surface b. specific yield d. all of these 962. What is the line defined by the water level in a group of artesian walls? a. water tale c. specific yield b. piezometric surface d. none of the above

963. Which is the best topography? a. flooding b. sprinkling

method

of

irrigation

for

irregular

c. furrow d. sub-irrigation

964. Which is the best method of irrigation for row crops? a. flooding c. furrow b. sprinkling d. sub-irrigation 965. Which is the best method of irrigation for irregular areas? a. flooding c. furrow b. sprinkling d. sub-irrigation 966. Which method of irrigation which requires an impermeable core beneath the soil? a. flooding c. furrow b. sprinkling d. sub-irrigation 967. Which method of irrigation has the best control of water supplied? a. flooding c. furrow b. sprinkling d. sickle irrigation 968. Which is not a physical characteristic of water? a. total, dissolved and suspended solids b. turbidity c. color d. hardness 969. What are the principal impurities found in water? a. ionic and dissolved c. gases b. non-ionic non-dissolved d. all of these 970. What are the principal impurities found in the evaluation of water? a. physical c. chemical b. biological d. all of these 971. Which is not a chemical characteristic of water? a. pH level b. alkalinity c. conductivity d. total suspended and dissolved solids

972. What methods are used to remove tastes and odors? a. aeration c. oxidation b. adsorption d. all of these 973. What are the points to be considered for an area suitable for irrigation? a. Soil must have high water holding capacity and soil must be readily penetrable by water. b. Infiltration rate low enough to avoid excess loss of water and soil must be deep enough to allow root development and permit drainage. c. Soil must not be sodium saturated and free of salts susceptible to removal by leaching and soil must have an adequate supply of plant nutrients and free of toxic elements. d. all of the above 974. What is the maximum velocity in a sewer flowing full? a. 0.6 m/sec. c. 0.9 m/sec. b. 1.2 m/sec. d. 1.8 m/sec. 975. What wastewater treatment that involves the removal of course and settleable by interception? a. Screening c. comminution b. flow equalization d. mixing 976. What wastewater treatment method promotes the aggregation of small particles into larger particles to enhance the removal by gravity sedimentation? a. screening c. comminution b. flow equalization d. flocculation 977. What is a wastewater treatment method that involves grinding of course solids to a more-or-less uniform size? a. screening c. comminution b. flow equalization d. mixing 978. What wastewater treatment involves removal of settleable solids and thickening of sludges? a. sedimentation c. filtration b. flotation d. microscreening

979. What wastewater treatment involves removal of settleable solids of finely divided suspended solids and particles with densities close to that of water, also thickens biological sludges? a. sedimentation c. flotation b. filtration d. microscreening 980. What method of wastewater treatment involves removal of fine residual suspended solids remaining after biological or chemical treatment? a. sedimentation c. flotation b. filtration d. microscreening 981. What wastewater treatment method involves of algae from stabilization pond effluents? a. sedimentation c. flotation b. filtration d. microscreening 982. Which is a chemical wastewater treatment? a. chemical precipitation c. gas transfer b. absorption d. all of these 983. Which is a biological wastewater treatment? a. activated sludge c. trickling filter b. rotating biological disks d. all of these 984. The mass of water vapor per unit volume of air. a. absolute humidity c. specific humidity b. relative humidity d. critical humidity 985. The main source of ground water is: a. precipitation c. evaporation b. spring water d. underground water 986. Deep ground water deposits where underground water are available for water supply and irrigation is known as: a. aquifers c. water wells b. water table d. saturated zone 987. A tidal phenomenon apparent in a large lake, when there may be a rise of several feet in a few hours. a. high tide c. seiche b. seale d. scupper

988. It is the shape of the water table around a well during and immediately after use. a. cone of depression c. forebay b. plat d. submain 989. These are sewer inspection holes large enough to lower a lamp into but too small for a man. a. lamp holes c. light hole b. man hole d. none of these 990. In water purification, aeration is used to remove a. objectionable gases c. turbidity b. dissolved oxygen d. sediment 991. The interviewing channels of a braided stream is known as: a. anabranch c. aquifuge b. Aquifer d. Artesian well 992. A portion of an exposed aquifer (usually on a slope) between two impervious layers is called: a. anticlinal spring c. anabranch b. aquifer d. aquiclude 993. It is an underground source of water capable of supplying a well or other use. a. aquifer c. aquiclude b. pheartic zone d. water table 994. An underground source of water with insufficient porosity to support any sufficient removal rate is known as: a. aquiclude c. piezometric level b. Artesian formation d. vaclose water 995. An underground geological formation that has no porosity or openings at all through which water can enter or be removed is called? a. aquifuge c. zone of aeration b. water table d. aquiclude 996. It is a spring in which water flows naturally out of the earth’s surface due to pressure placed on the water by an impervious overburden and hydrostatic head. a. Artesian well c. base flow

b.

Artesian formation

d. anticlinal spring

997. Artesian formation is an aquifer in which the piezometric height is: a. greater than the aquifer thickness b. equal to the aquifer thickness c. less than the aquifer thickness d. none of the above 998. It is a process of mixing water with air either by spraying water or diffusing air through it. a. aeration c. coagulation b. Infiltration d. evaporation 999. These are solids from aerated settling tanks which are rich in bacteria. a. activated sludge c. aerated lagoon b. seed d. zooglea 1000. A holding basin into which air is mechanically introduced to speed up aerobic decomposition is known as: a. aerated lagoon c. seed b. zooglea d. activated sludge 1001. Which of the following statement is true? a. an algae is a one-celled plant life b. an algae is a multi-celled plant life c. an algae is a two-celled plant life d. none of these 1002. A wide, shallow stream with many branches is referred to as: a. braided stream c. blind drainage b. base flow d. drainage 1003. Runoff which percolates down to the water table and then discharge into a stream is called: a. base flow c. blind drainage b. braided stream d. drainage 1004. A process using sedimentation, trickling filter, and secondary sedimentation before adding activated sludge. a. bioactivation c. biota b. Biosorption d. chemical precipitation

1005. It is a process that mixes raw sewage and sludge which have been pre-aerated in a separated tank? a. biosorption c. digestion b. chemical precipitation d. bioactivation 1006. It refers to the flora and fauna of the region. a. biota c. cunnete b. zooglea d. algae 1007. The chief source of energy in the world today is: a. coal c. oil b. natural gas d. uranium 1008. The source of energy whose reserves are greatest is: a. coal c. oil b. natural gas d. uranium 1009. The lowest portion to storage basin from where the water is not drawn is a. bottom storage c. spring reserve b. sub-soil storage d. dead storage 1010. The ratio of oxygen available to the oxygen required for stabilization of sewage is called: a. relative stability b. oxygen-ion concentration c. concentration factor d. bio-chemical oxygen 1011. Rocks having excessive spalling are called a. swelling rocks b. popping rocks

internal

stresses

may

produce

c. crushed rocks d. stratified rocks

1012. It measures the magnitude of an earthquake: a. Rossie scale c. Richter scale b. Rossie-Forel scale d. Mercallis scale 1013. In the troposphere, ozone is produced during the daylight and consumed during the darkness. Find the half-life of ozone it is depleted to 10% of its initial value after 10 hours of darkness. a. 4.0 hr c. 4.5 hr b. 3.0 hr d. 3.5 hr

1014. Which of following is usually used in industry? a. Plastic c. Metal b. Rubber d. Wood 1015. The effect of constructing a dam across a natural stream is to raise the water surface at various sections upstream. The resulting water surface profile is known as: a. backwater curve c. upstream water surface b. tall water curve d. headwater surface

ENGINEERING ECONOMY 1016. Amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital. a. interest c. rate of interest b. simple interest d. principal 1017. The charge of which the borrower pays to the lender for the use of his money is a. principal c. annuities

b.

depreciation

1018. Time Value of money a. Capital b. Interest

d. interest c. Rate and Interest d. Investment

1019. What is work-in-process classified as? a. an asset c. a revenue b. owner’s equity d. an expense 1020. The total income equals the total operating cost. a. Break-even-no-gain-no-loss b. Interest Rate c. In-piece-value d. Scrap Value 1021. A secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the journal. a. Balance Sheet c. Trial Balance b. Ledger d. Worksheet 1022. Actual interest rate when compounded higher than the nominal: a. nominal interest rate c. effective interest rate b. simple interest rate d. compound interest 1023. It is a situation in economic study whereby there is no profit: a. unhealthy point c. oligopoly b. break-even point d. monopoly 1024. It is a measure of effectiveness of an investment of a capital. a. rate of return c. depreciation b. interest d. discount 1025. The ratio allowed operating income to a specified rate base expressed as percentage: a. percentage income c. percentage rate b. operation income d. rate of return 1026. It is a point in economic study whereby there are few suppliers and any action taken by anyone of them will definitely affect the course of the others: a. monopoly c. perfect competition b. oligopoly d. unhealthy point

1027. An economic situation in which any given product is supplied by an unrestricted number of vendors and where there is complete freedom on the part of buyer and seller: a. oligopoly c. elastic demand b. perfect competition d. monopoly 1028. In the process of determining the value or worth of physical property for specific reasons. a. depletion c. economy b. valuation d. investment 1029. Shows only one timing but also relationships among the task of a project. a. work flow c. data chart b. bar chart d. pert chart 1030. It is a method used in selecting alternatives in which the interest on the original investment is included as a cost: a. Rate of return c. Annual Worth Cost b. Present Worth Cost d. Future Worth Cost 1031. The quantity of a certain commodity that is both at a certain price at a given place and time. a. elastic demand c. inelastic demand b. demand d. unitary demand 1032. It is the value which is disinterested third party, different from buyer or seller, will determine in order to establish a price that is fair and acceptable to both the buyer and the seller: a. book value c. market value b. goodwill value d. fair value 1033. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want: a. returns c. utility b. discount d. demand 1034. It is a sharp sudden increase in money or credit or both without a corresponding increase in business transactions: a. recession c. deflation b. inflation d. subrogation

1035. It is a point in economic study where the sales volume is just enough to pay the dividends: a. break-even point c. elastic point b. unhealthy point d. turning point 1036. Cost of things that are neither labor nor material: a. labor cost c. investment b. expenses d. construction cost 1037. Estimated value at the end of the useful life: a. balance sheet c. compounded annually b. economic life d. salvage value 1038. The remaining monetary value obtainable from the sale of the a. book value b. real value

which represents the proceeds asset is termed as c. salvage value d. apparent value

1039. An award of an exclusive right to provide a specific product or service in a stated region: a. profit c. franchise b. benefit d. reward 1040. The security behind this type of bond is the stock or bonds of a well-established subsidiary of the corporation: a. debenture bond c. owner of the bond b. collateral bond d. registered bond 1041. Occurs in a situation where there are so few suppliers of a product or service that action by one will almost inevitably result in similar action by others. a. perfect competition c. oligopoly b. monopoly d. demand 1042. Sum total of First Cost plus circulating capital: a. interest c. rate of interest b. capital d. investment 1043. What is work-in process classified as? a. an asset c. owner’s equity b. a revenue d. as expense

1044. An intangible value which an actually operating concern has due to its operation. a. goodwill c. organization cost b. franchise d. going value 1045. An annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of each period. a. ordinary annuity c. annuity due b. deferred annuity d. perpetuity 1046. Any method of repaying a debt, the principal and the interest included, usually by a series of equal payments at equal interval of time. a. amortization c. annuity b. bond d. sinking fund 1047. It is any method of repaying a debt, the principal and interest included, usually by a series of equal payments at equal interval of time: a. amortization c. annuity b. discount d. depreciation 1048. The sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs of replacement, operation and maintenance for a long time or forever. a. capitalized cost c. fixed cost b. original cost d. marginal cost 1049. It is a method of calculating depreciation in which rate of interest is needed: a. sinking fund method b. declining balance method c. straight line method d. sum of the years digit method 1050. The unrecovered depreciation results due to poor estimate of the life of the equipment. a. sunk cost c. in-place value b. economic life d. annuity 1051. Money, which has been spent, or capital which has been invested and which cannot be recovered due to certain reasons. a. sunk cost c. increment cost

b.

marginal cost

d. variable cost

1052. The additional cost of producing one more unit of a product. a. fixed cost c. variable cost b. increment cost d. marginal cost 1053. The present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time is referred as a. annual cost c. operating cost b. incremental cost d. capitalized cost 1054. Type of depreciation which is due to the gradual extraction of the contents of the property. a. physical depreciation c. functional depreciation b. depletion d. normal depreciation 1055. Bonds which have no security behind them other than the assets of a corporation issuing them are known as a. mortgage bonds c. amortization bonds b. trust bonds d. debenture bonds 1056. A bond without any security behind it except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation: a. debenture bond c. mortgage bond b. collateral bond d. registered bond 1057. The profit earned by a corporation are periodically distributed to stockholders in the form of a. shares c. dividends b. stocks d. bonds 1058. It is the present worth of its probable future net earnings: a. fair value c. total fair value b. going concern value d. earning value 1059. It is the interest earning with equal deposits made at equal interval of time. a. amortization c. sinking fund b. depletion d. dividends 1060. The first cost to be incurred if the place of equipment now in place had been bought for a second hand dealer or some other business:

a. b.

material cost first cost

c. fixed cost d. in-place value

1061. A loan that is discharged or repaid by a uniform series of payments over its duration is said to be a. funded c. depreciated b. amortized d. bonded 1062. The gradual extinguishments for an amount in an account by prorating such amount over a predetermined period, such as the life of the asset or liability to which it applies: a. depreciation c. collection b. amortization d. compensation 1063. The wearing out of an asset due to its use and action of its elements upon it is referred to as a. depreciation c. depletion b. devaluation d. inflation 1064. Which of the following is not a method of depreciating a plant equipment for accounting and engineering economics analysis? a. Double-entry method c. Fixed percentage method b. Sum-of-the-years digit d. Straight line method 1065. These funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern. a. banking c. accumulated amount b. working capital d. principal or present worth 1066. The length of time during which the property may be operated at a profit. a. length of time c. economic life b. physical life d. life 1067. Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of enterprise. a. fair value c. use value b. market value d. book value 1068. Is the worth of the property as an operating unit: a. use value c. fair value b. scrap value d. book value

1069. Cost of things that is either labor or materials. a. construction cost c. expenses b. labor cost d. investment 1070. Gross profit, sale less cost of goods sold, as a percentage of sales is called: a. profit margin c. rate of interest b. gross margin d. price earnings 1071. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time. a. depreciation c. interest b. annuity d. amortization 1072. Profit margin ratio is the percentage of each peso of sales that is net income and the profit margin is: a. rate of return b. net Income Owner’s Equity c. net Income before taxes/ Net Sales d. price Earnings 1073. The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called: a. maintenance c. capital recovery b. depreciation recovery d. annuity 1074. An index of short term paying ability is called: a. current ratio c. receivable turn-over b. acid test ratio d. profit margin ratio 1075. The amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell. a. utility value c. fair value b. market value d. book value 1076. It is the price a buyer is willing to pay a willing seller for the stock. a. bond value c. market value b. scrap value d. stock value 1077. Fall after the increase reaches a certain variable amount, this is called: a. the process factor

b. c. d.

inflation the law of diminishing return the law of supply and demand

1078. It is a sharp sudden increase in money or credit or both without a corresponding increase in business transactions. a. recession c. inflation b. deflation d. subrogation 1079. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth: a. balance method c. break-even point b. balance sheet d. production 1080. It is the present worth of its probable future earnings. a. total fair value c. going concern value b. total net value d. earning value 1081. In a Queing process of customers in store, what type of distribution most likely governs the time between consecutive arrivals of customers? a. a normal probability distribution b. an exponential distribution c. an uniform probability distribution d. a binomial distribution 1082. The simplest and extensively employed method in computing depreciation? a. sinking fund c. straight line method b. sum-of-the-years-digit d. fixed percentage method 1083. All the proceeds, which are required by the businessman as a result of sale of goods. a. net income c. net revenue b. gross income d. total sales 1084. The original record of business transaction is recorded in this book. a. Workbook c. journal b. Ledger d. account book 1085. Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate on enterprise. a. capital c. assets b. funds d. liabilities

1086. It is the claim other than the owner upon the assets. a. liability c. equity b. bond d. proprietorship 1087. The difference between the present value and the work of money at sometime in the future. a. arithmetic progression c. deduction b. discount d. inflation 1088. Is the worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less than the amount which has been charged to depreciation. a. Scrap Value c. Fair Value b. Book Value d. Use Value 1089. Is the worth of the property as shown in the accounting records. a. Scrap Value c. Fair Value b. Book Value d. Use Value 1090. What is a borrower of a particular loan almost always required to do during repayments? a. pay exactly the same amount of principal each payment. b. pay a different rate of interest after each payment. c. pay exactly the same amount of interest each payment. d. repay the loan over an agreed upon length of time. 1091. What a. b. c. d.

is an annuity? the future worth of a present amount an annual repayment of a loan a series of uniform amounts over a period of time a lump sum at the end of the year

1092. When using net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which of the following could invalidate the calculation? a. differences in the magnitude of the projects b. evaluating over different time periods c. mutually exclusive projects d. non-conventional cash flows

1093. What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have? a. identical salvage value b. different salvage value c. identical equivalent uniform annual cash flows d. different equivalent uniform annual cash flows 1094. Firm A using absorption costing while Firm B uses variable product costing. How will the financial statements of these companies differ? a. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, and therefore, a smaller profit b. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, higher inventory value, and higher retained earnings c. Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold and a larger profit d. Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold, no change in inventory value and no change in retained earnings 1095. What a. b. c. d.

is the acid test ratio? the ratio of owner’s equity to total current liabilities the ratio of all assets to total liabilities the ratio of the current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities the ratio of gross margin to operating, sales and administrative expenses

1096. The difference between the starting and ending inventory valuations, a term that represents as an inventory account adjustments is called: a. cost of goods sold b. physical inventory system c. perpetual inventory system d. periodic inventory system 1097. The length of time, usually in years, for the cumulative net annual profit to equal the initial investment is called: a. receivable turnover c. return on investment b. price earning ratio d. payback period 1098. On his 6th birthday, a boy is left with an inheritance. The inheritance will be paid in a lump sum of Php. 10,000 on his 21st birthday. What is the present value of the inheritance as

of the boy’s 6th birthday if the interest is compounded annually? Assume I = 4% a. Php. 6500 c. Php. 5500 b. Php. 8600 d. Php. 7500 1099. If you invest your money, which would you prefer? a. 12% compounded monthly b. 12% compounded b-monthly c. 12% compounded daily d. 12% compounded semi-annually 1100. BPI bank charges 1-½% per month on the unpaid balance for purchases made on BPI Express Credit Card. What effective interest rate is it charging? a. 16% c. 19.56% b. 17% d. 15% 1101. A new building is being considered to house some equipment. The new building will reduce maintenance costs by $6,000 per year for the first ten years and $3,000 per year thereafter. Based on a 50-year analysis period, what building construction cost can be justified? The justified construction cost is closest to: a. $50,000 c. $30,000 b. $90,000 d. $180,000 1102. A steam boiler is purchased on the basis of guaranteed performance. A test indicates that the operating cost will be $300 more per year than the manufacturer guaranteed. If the expected life of the boiler is 20 years and money is worth 8%, how much should the purchaser deduct from the purchase price to compensate for the extra operating cost? a. $ 3320 c. $ 4102 b. $2945 d. $ 5520 1103. A friend of yours purchased a new car, making 20% down payment and agreed to make 24 monthly payments to settle the balance. Interest on the unpaid balance was to be charged at the rate of 1.5% per month. At the same time he made his 10th monthly payment of 62,716.91 to settle the remaining balance. If interest in the final settlement was at the same rate as in the final transaction, what was the purchase price of the car: a. P 125,110 c. P 225,110

b.

P 155,110

d. P 200,110

1104. A bank pays one percent interest on savings accounts four times a yr. the effective annual interest rate is: a. 2.04% c. 1.00% b. 3.96% d. 4.06% 1105. When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportional increase in output: a. Law of demand b. Law of supply c. Law of supply and demand d. Law of diminishing return 1106. A land development project costs P5,000.00 with the benefit of P10,000,000 and disbenefits P1,500,000. What is the benefit cost ratio? a. 1.7 c. 1.5 b. 1.6 d. 2.0 1107. A 500 kW electric lighting cost P1000 per kW installed. Fixed charges is 14%, operating cost is P1.50 per kW-hr. The plant averages 150 kW for 5000 hrs. of the yr. 420 kW for 1000 hr. and 20 kW for the reminder. What is the unit cost of production of electric energy? a. P 2.965/kWh c. P 4.965 kWh b. P 6.95/kWh d. P 1.965 kWh 1108. The initial cost of machine is P 50,000 and its salvage value after 10 years of operation is P 10,000. What will be its book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation? a. P 22,300 c. P 28,500 b. P 16,400 d. P 30,000 1109. The president of the engineering firm wishes to give each of his 50 employees a holiday bonus of P 1,000. How much should be invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest rate to be able to give that bonus? a. P 4,170 c. P 2,070 b. P 3,840 d. P 3,940 1110. A lathe machine cost P 20,000 today and has an estimated scrap value of P 2,000 after 8 years, the inflation per year is

8%. Effective annual interest rate earned on money invested is also 8%. How much money needs to be set aside each year to buy an identical replacement machine 8 years from now? a. P 3,000 c. P 2,970 b. P 3,290 d. P 3,510 1111. A pump costs P 10,000. If installed it will save the company P 2,000 per year and will have a salvage value of P 3,000 at the end of ten years of useful life. The company plans to replace the pump with identical ones every 10 years for 30 years. Estimate the present worth of the entire 30 years of service at 10% interest rate. a. P 5,287.00 c. P 3,000.00 b. P 3,445.76 d. P 7,750.00 1112. An investment of P 350,000 is made, to be followed by payments of P 200,000 each year for 3 years. What is the annual rate of return on investment for the project? a. 41.7% c. 57.1% b. 32.7% d. 15% 1113. The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P 70,000. If the cost of making a forging is P 56 and its selling price is P 125 per forged unit, find the number of units to be forged to break even. a. 1015 units c. 1100 units b. 985 units d. 1000 units 1114. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the first 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan? a. P 6,918.28 c. P 6,074.00 b. P 5,674.00 d. P 3,926.00 1115. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% accounts that yield 9.84% annually. Find how often the interest is compounded? a. daily c. bi-monthly b. monthly d. quarterly 1116. A machine has initial cost of P 50,000 and salvage value of P 10,000 after 10 years. Find the book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation. a. P 12,500 c. P 16,000

b.

P 30,000

d. P 22,000

1117. The maintenance cost for a sewing machine this year expected to be P 500. The cost will increase P 50 each year for the subsequent9 years. The interest is 8% compounded annually. What is the approximate present worth of maintenance for the machine over the full 10 years? a. P 4,700 c. P 5, 300 b. P 4, 300 d. P 5, 500 1118. Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P 500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The money that will be available in two years is: a. P 13,000 c. P 13,500 b. P 14,500 d. P 14,000 1119. A P 1000 face-value bond pays dividend of P 110 at the end of each year. If the bond matures in 20 years, what is the approximate bond value at an invest of 12% per year compound annually? a. P 1000 c. P 800 b. P 930 d. P 1820 1120. Which plan is the least expensive way to purchase plant maintenance equipment? The discount rate is 11%. Plan A: P 50,000 down, equal payments of P 25,115.12 for 20 years Plan B: nothing down, equal payments of P 31,393.91 for 20 years Plan C: P 100,000 down, equal payments of P 21,975.74 for 20 years a. Plan A or B c. Plan C b. Plan A or B or C d. Plan B 1121. A small machine has an initial cost of P 20,000, a salvage value of P 2,000 and a life of 10 years. If your cost of operation per year is P 3,500 and your revenues per year is P 9,000, what is the approximately rate return (ROR) on the investment? a. 25.0% c. 23.9% b. 22.5% d. 24.8% Ans: 18.5%

1122. What rate of interest compounded annually must be received if an investment of P 5,400 made now will result in a receipt of P 7,200 five years hence? a. 2.85% c. 4.75% b. 5.92% d. 3.65% 1123. A man borrowed P 20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple interest of 16% but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the money was borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of year. How much is the actual rate of interest? a. 12% c. 10% b. 14% d. 19% 1124. A P 10,000 loan is taken out. It is to be paid at the rate of P 200 per month, with an annual effective interest ate of 19.56% charged against the unpaid balance. What principal remains to be paid after the third payment? a. P 9511 c. P 9763 b. P 9400 d. P 9848 1125. A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money to provide funds to cover the yearly operating expenses and the cost of replacing every year the dies of stamping machine is used in making radio chassis as model changes for a period of 10 years. Operating Cost per year = P500 Cost of Die = P1,200 Salvage value = P600 The money will be deposited in a savings account earning 6% interest. Determine the sum of money that must be deposited, including the cost of initial die a. P 9,796.10 c. P 8,096.10 b. P 9,296.10 d. P 8,296.10 1126. An irrigation pump costing P10,000 is to be paid equal at the end of year payment for 5 years, with 8% interest compounded annually. What must be the annual payment? a. P5,420.56 c. P2,504.56 b. P4,205.56 d. P2,405.56 1127. An asphalt and aggregated mixing plant having a capacity of 50cu.m every hour costs P2,500,000. It is estimated to process 800,000 cu.m. during its life. During a certain year it

is processed 60,000 cu.m. It its scrap value is P100,000, determine the total depreciation during the year and the depreciation cost chargeable to each batch of 50 cu.m. using production units method. a. P160 c. P180 b. P120 d. P150 1128. The original cost of a certain piece of equipment is P 150,000 and it is depreciated by a 10% sinking fund method. Determine the annual depreciation charge if the book value f the equipment after 10 years is the same as it had been depreciated at P 14,000 each year by straight line formula. a. P 7,843.35 c. P 8,748.36 b. P 8,784.36 d. P 7,858.35 1129. A promissory note with a maturity value of P 32,000 is due 3 years from now. What is the discount value of the note of this noted base on an interest rate of 8%? a. P 24, 305 c. P 20, 543 b. P 25, 403 d. P 23, 045 1130. A gasoline is available on installment basis with a down payment of P 8,000 and P 1,000 at the end of each month for one year. What is the cash price of the engine if interest is set at 6% compounded monthly? a. P 29,758.53 c. P 19,658.35 b. P 19,618.93 d. P 29,718.78 1131. To develop on oil well containing 2,000,000 barrels of oil requires an initial investment of P 30,000,000. In a certain year 400,000 barrels of oil were produced from this well. Determine the depletion charge during the year. a. P 6,000,000 c. P 3,000,000 b. P 4,000,000 d. P 5,000,000

1132. A debt of P 100,000 is to be discharged by ten semi-annual payments, the first to be made 6 months after the loan is given. The debt will be discharged by 5 equal payments each P 10,000 and by 5 other equal payments of such amount that the final payment will liquidate the debt. If interest is 12% compounded semi-annually, what is the amount of the last 5 payments?

a. b.

P 16,386.74 P 18,386.74

c. P 22,956.44 d. P 18,584.36

1133. A bond with a par value of P1,000 will mature n years with a bond rate of 8% payable annually. It is to be redeemed at par at the end of this period. If it is sold at P1,050, determine the yield at this price? a. 5.05% c. 7.07% b. 6.06% d. 4.04% 1134. A bond with a par value of P1,000 and with a bond rate of 9% payable annually is to be redeemed at P1,050 at the end of 6 years from now. If it is sold now, what should be the selling price to yield 8%? a. P1,077.74 c. P 107.74 b. P 7,101.54 d. P 395.86 1135. To maintain a machine with a 15 year life. The following outlays are needed: P 3,000 at the end of the 5 th year, P 4,500 at end of the 9th year, and P 4,000 at the end of the 12th year. If the money is worth 7% compounded annually; determine the equivalent uniform annual maintenance cost of the structure for the 15 year period. a. P 698.60 c. P 215.40 b. P 705.80 d. P 850.25 1136. The original cost of a certain piece of equipment is P150,000 and it is depreciated by a 10% sinking fund method. Determine the annual depreciation charge if the book value of the equipment after 10 years is the same as if it had depreciated at P14,000 each year by straight-line formula. a. P8,784.36 c. P8,748.36 b. P7,858.35 d. P7,858.35 1137. Supposed a man receives an initial annual salary of P60,000 increasing at the rate P5,000 a year. If money is worth 10%, determine his equivalent uniform salary for a period of 8 years. a. P320,095.57 c. P80,143.36 b. P72,359.48 d. P75,022.39 1138. A gasoline engine is available on installment basis with a downpayment of P8,000 and P1,000 at the end of each month

for one year. What is the cash price of the engine if the interest is set at 6% compounded monthly. a. P29,758.53 c. P19,658.35 b. P19,618.93 b. P29,718.74 1139. A dam was constructed for P200,000,000. The annual maintenance cost is P100,000. It interest is 5% the capitalized cost of the dam, including maintenance, is: a. P303M c. 202M b. P101M d. 404M 1140. The capitalized cost of a piece of equivalent was found to be P142,000. The rate of interest used in the computations was 125, with a salvage value of P10,000 at the end of a service life of 8 years. Assuming that the cost of perpetual replacement remains constant, determine the original cost of the equipment. a. P88,687.42 c. 85,488.42 b. 95,625.84 d. P80,425.22 1141. A certain machine is offered on installment basis with a down payment of PHP 5,000 and with payments of PHP2,000 payable at the end of every 3 months for two years. If the money is worth 8% compounded quarterly, what is the equivalent cash price of the machine? a. PHP 17,050.42 c. PHP 19,650.96 b. PHP 18,040.22 d. PHP 21,080.40 1142. The VCP trading Co. set aside PHP 200,000 each year for expansion. If the fund earns 8% compounded annually, how long will it take before a new building costing PHP 2,500,000 can be built? a. 10 years c. 9 years b. 8 years d. 12 years 1143. A company must relocate one of his factories in three years. Equipment for the loading dock is being considered for purchase. The original cost is P20,000.00 the salvage value of the equipment after three years is P8,000.00. The company’s rate of return (i) on money is 10%. Determine the capital recovery rate per year. a. P5115 c. P5625 b. P4945 d. P4805

1144. A young man has decided to go into business at age 40. He wishes to accumulate P200,00 at that age. On his twenty-fifth birthday he deposits a certain amount will increase the deposit by 10% each year until the fortieth year, if the funds can be invested at 9.6% compounded annually, how much should his initial investment be? a. P3,704.82 c. P3,407.82 b. P3,074.82 d. P3,740.82 1145. A back-pay certificate is offered for sale on which the yearly payments are PHP 996.00, partly principal and partly interest. There are 8 annual payment still due. The first of these is due one year from now. How much should one pay for this note in order to get 5 percent interest, compounded annually, on the investment. a. PHP 8,500.55 c. PHP 5,980.15 b. PHP 7,585.20 d. PHP 6,437.36 1146. The year-end operating and maintenance cost of a certain machine are estimated to be P 12,000 the first year and to increase by P 2,500 each year during it’s 4-yearlife. If the capital is worth 12% determine the equivalent uniform yearend costs. a. P 12,584.15 c. P 14,358.16 b. P 15,397.13 d. P 16,452.18 1147. A certain machinery costs P 50,000, last 12 years with a salvage value of P 5,000. Money is worth 5%. If the owner decides to sell it after using it for five year, what should his price be so that he will not lose or gain financially in the transaction? a. P 34,578.75 c. P 44,578.67 b. P 34,378.25 d. P 44,378.01 1148. An electrical motor has a cash price of PHP 8,000. It can also be bought on installment basis with a down payment of PHP 2,000 and with periodic equal payment at the end of every 6 months for 5 years. If interest is fixed at 8% compounded semi-annually, how much is each periodic payment? a. PHP 793.75 c. PHP 973.75 b. PHP 739.75 d. PHP 379.75

HYDRAULICS 1149. The science of the mechanics of liquid and gases and is based on the same fundamental principles that are employed in the mechanics of solids is known as: a. fluid mechanics c. hydrology b. hydrography d. thermodynamics 1150. The three branches of fluid mechanics are:

a. b. c. d.

fluid statics, kinematics, and fluid dynamics hydrostatics, hydrology, and hydrodynamics statics, hydrodynamics, and hydrology none of these

1151. The study of mechanics of fluids at rest. a. fluid statics c. hydrodynamics b. kinematics d. hydrology 1152. The study of mechanics of fluid that is concerned with the relations between velocities and accelerations and the forces exerted by or upon fluids in motion. a. fluid dynamics c. kinetics b. hydrostatics d. hydrology 1153. The study of mechanics of fluids which deals with velocities and steam lines without considering forces or energy. a. fluid statics c. hydrodynamics b. kinematics d. hydrology 1154. Where does the Moody diagram for friction factors for pipe flow come from? a. calculations based on potential flow b. theoretical solutions of the Navier-Stokes equation c. experimental results for non-viscous fluids d. experimental results for viscous fluids 1155. Fluid properties play the principal role in fluid mechanics. In fluid statics weight is the important property. In fluid flow, the predominant properties are: a. density and viscosity b. pressure and temperature c. dpecific gravity and temperature coefficient d. pressure, volume and temperature 1156. The locus of the elevations to which water will rise in the piezometer tube is termed a. energy gradient c. friction head b. hydraulic gradient d. critical depth 1157. The external pressure applied to a confined fluid increases the pressure of every point in the fluid by an amount equal to the external pressure. This is known as a. Archimedes’ principle c. Torricelli’s theorem b. Bernoulli’s theorem d. Pascal’s law

1158. Weight per unit volume is termed as a. specific weight c. density b. weight density d. pressure 1159. The unit of absolute viscosity is: a. m²/s c. Pa-s b. Pa/s² d. Ps 1160. This is the property, which determines the amount of its resistance to a shearing force. It is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules. a. friction factor c. Manning’s coefficient, m b. viscosity d. Kutter’s coefficient, n 1161. Kinematic coefficient of viscosity is defined a. as the ratio of the absolute viscosity to the mass density b. as the ratio of the mass density to the absolute viscosity c. to be directly proportional to velocity d. to be inversely proportional to velocity 1162. The speed with which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by a. Archimedes’ principle c. Torrecelli’s theorem b. Bernoulli’s theorem d. Flow equation 1163. Flows that are unsteady, with instantaneous variations in flow pressures over time and space. a. turbulent flow b. vortice

rapid and seemingly random variables such as velocity and c. Brownian d. gust

1164. Flow which has gradual and regular variations over time and space, with little mixing occurring between liquid elements. a. turbulent c. laminar flow b. streamline d. Bernoulli 1165. Fluid flow in which the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of the individual particles do not cross, the flow is said to be: a. turbulent c. critical b. uniform d. laminar flow

1166. The unit of kinematic viscosity is a. m²/s c. Pa-s b. Pa/s² d. m/s 1167. An instrument that measures density. a. manometer c. hydrometer b. barometer d. hydraulic meter 1168. The sum of the pressure head and the elevation head is called: a. isoparametric c. piezometric head b. Potential d. venturi 1169. Is the depth above channel floor in open channels for minimum potential plus kinetic energy for the volume flow rate the channel delivers. Tranquil flow (at low kinetic energy, and high potential energy) exists above this depth, and rapid flow (at high kinetic energy and low potential energy) exists below this depth. a. critical depth c. hydraulic jump b. hydraulic hammer d. hydraulic gradient 1170. In a turbulent flow, Reynolds’ number is: a. <2000 c. <1000 b. >100,000 d. >2000 1171. At or below critical velocity in a small pipe or at very low velocities, the loss of head due to friction a. can be ignored b. is definitely large c. varies directly as the velocity d. equals the velocity head 1172. It is the increased pressure developed on impact with a pilot tube as a result of localized kinetic energy reduction to zero. a. critical pressure c. hydraulic hammer b. stagnation pressure d. critical depth 1173. The quantity v²/ 2g where v is the magnitude of the velocity at any point on the streamline and g is the gravitational acceleration is known as: a. piezometric head c. potential head b. pressure head d. velocity head

1174. Is a measure of the relative importance of inertia forces to viscous forces. At sufficient high values, flows become turbulent. a. Froude’s number c. Reynolds’ number b. Weber’s number d. Moody’s number 1175. Measures the relative importance of inertia to gravitational forces. It plays an essential role in flow phenomena involving a free surface in a gravitational field. a. Froude’s number c. Reynolds’ number b. Weber’s number d. Moody’s number 1176. Water flowing in a pipe enters a horizontal venturi tube whose throat area is one-fourth that of the beginning (before the nozzle) and the final (after the diffuser) cross-sections. Continuity and energy conservation requires that: a. pressure at the throat is increased b. velocity at the throat is decreased c. potential energy at the throat is decreased d. the flow energy at the throat is decreased 1177. Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with temperature and is defined as a function of: a. density and shear stress b. shear stress and angular deformation rate c. density and angular deformation rate d. shear stress and density 1178. Untwisted hemp rope impregnated with oil, used to caulk bell and spigot type of pipe joints. a. oakum c. abaca b. banana hemp d. coconut coir 1179. The height of a column of homogenous fluid that will produce a given intensity of pressure is called: a. elevation head c. potential head b. fluid head d. pressure head 1180. The hydraulic radius of an open channel section is defined as: a. cross-sectional area divided by the wetted perimeter b. wetted perimeter divided by the cross-sectional area

c. d.

cross-sectional area divided by the total perimeter of the channel the radius of a circle of equivalent area

1181. These are devices that use liquid columns to determine differences in pressure. a. anemometer c. venturi meter b. manometer d. barometer 1182. A structure in a channel having a narrow throat and a raised floor at the bottom that is used for measuring a discharge is called a: a. venturi flume c. partial flume b. wave flume d. raised flume 1183. The flow that occurs when the velocity is larger than the critical velocity and the depth is smaller than the critical depth. a. sub-critical c. normal b. abnormal d. super critical 1184. The flow is said to be sub-critical if the Froude’s number which is v/C where v is the average velocity and C = √gy and y is the depth of flow, is: a. 1 c. <1 b. <0 d. >1 1185. The flow is said to be critical if the Froude,s number which is v/C where v is the average velocity and C = √gy an y is the depth of flow, is: a. 1 c. <1 b. >1 d. <0 1186. This graphically presents the relationship of pipes among the dimensionless parameters: friction factor (f), Reynolds’ Number (Re), and surface roughness e/D. a. Moody diagram c. Bernoulli’s equation b. Hazen-Williams formula d. Chezy formula 1187. This is an empirical equation used in the solution of piping networks in the form v = 1.318 C1R0.63 S0.54 where: C1 = a coefficient of relative roughness R = hydraulic radius in feet

S

= slope of the hydraulic gradient in

ft-lbf/lbm a. b. c. d.

ft length v = velocity in ft/sec. Chezy formula Manning formula Hazen-Williams formula Darcy-Weisbach formula

1188. This formula applies to steady flow in open channels, and is in the form: v = C√RS where: v = velocity C = an empirical coefficient R = hydraulic radius S = slope of the hydraulic gradient a. Manning’s formula c. Chezy formula b. Hazen-Williams formula d. Darcy-Weisbach formula 1189. What is the value of Reynolds’ number for water to be laminar? a. <2100 c. >2100 b. <3000 d. >3000 1190. The relative roughness of a pipe is dependent on: a. absolute roughness of the interior surface b. diameter c. length d. a and b 1191. In the flow of fluid through and constriction in a pressure conduit, which statement is true? a. the pressure will decrease b. the flow will run turbulent c. the pressure will increase d. a and c 1192. In pipe networks, which statement(s) must be satisfied? a. the algebraic sum of the pressure drops around in any close loop must be zero b. the algebraic sum of the head loss around in a close loop must be zero c. the flow entering a junction must equal to the flow leaving d. a and c

1193. The hydraulic radius of a pipe with a diameter of 12mm is a. 3mm c. 12mm b. 6mm d. 4mm 1194. Which has the highest head loss coefficient among the following types of entrance? a. Reentrant c. bell mouth b. square edge d. they are the same 1195. The term e/D is known as: a. relative roughness b. roughness coefficient

c. absolute roughness d. roughness formula

1196. What is the term for a pipe carrying the flow of the canal of sewer across a depression? a. inverted siphon c. tuberculation b. water hammer d. fluistors 1197. Which type of valve will open automatically at a predetermined pressure? a. pressure relief valve c. check valve b. air inlet valve d. pressure regulating valve 1198. It is tank a. b.

a water supply that uses natural flow from an elevated or mountain reservoir to supply pressure. gravity distribution c. wet well depression storage d. dimple spring

1199. Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law of fluid flow? a. the principle of conservation of mass b. the principle of conservation of energy c. the continuity equation of energytion d. none of the above 1200. What a. b. c. d.

is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a surface? the same as the bulk fluid velocity the velocity of the surface proportional to the smoothless of the surface proportional to the kinematic viscosity of the fluid

1201. Ideal flow is:

a. b. c. d.

frictionless and incompressible one which obeys Newton’s law of viscosity a useful assumption in problems very viscous

1202. Kinematic viscosity may be expressed as: a. ft² /sec c. sec²/ft b. slug-sec²/ft d. slugs/sec 1203. At constant pressure, P, all of the following statements about flow rate, Q, in turbulent flow in a pipe are true, except: a. Q varies approximately as diameter, D b. Q decreases as pipe surface roughness ratio, e/D, increases c. Q decreases as pipe length, L, increases d. Q varies as velocity, v 1204. The vena contracta of a sharp a sharp edged hydraulic orifice usually occurs: a. at the geometric center of the orifice b. at a distance of about 10% of the orifice diameter upstream from the plane of the orifice c. at a distance equal to about two orifice diameter downstream from the plane of the orifice d. at a distance equal to about one-half orifice diameter downstream from the plane of the orifice 1205. On doubling the speed, N, of a centrifugal pump, all of the following are true except: a. head, H, is increased by a factor of 4 b. horsepower, P, is increased by a factor of 8 c. bolume flow rate, Q, is increased by a factor of 2 d. head, horsepower, and the volume flow rate are independent variables 1206. Cavitation is the result of: a. static pressure in a fluid becoming less than the fluid vapor pressure b. rivets under impact load c. exposure of the concrete to salt water d. head treatment of a low carbon steel 1207. The hydraulic formula CA = √2gh is used to find the:

a. b. c. d. 1208. In a a. b. c. d.

quantity of the discharge through an orifice velocity of flow of a closed conduit length of pipe in a closed network friction factor of a pipe system of pipes in series, the flows are equal head losses are equal velocities are equal friction coefficient are equal

1209. In a system of pipes in parallel, the a. head loss are equal c. discharges are equal b. velocities are equal d. diameters are equal 1210. In pressure flow, the hydraulic grade in line is: a. above the pipe c. non-existent b. at the invert d. at the water surface 1211. In the design for waterways, the “hydraulic jump” is sometimes used for: a. energy dissipation b. prevention of sedimentation c. elimination of turbulence d. reduction of head loss 1212. Viscosity of fluid is sometimes called: a. coefficient of viscosity c. dynamic viscosity b. absolute viscosity d. all of these 1213. Reynolds’ number is equal to the ratio of: a. inertia forces to viscous forces b. inertia forces to elastic forces c. inertia forces to gravity forces d. inertia forces to pressure forces 1214. Froude’s number is equal to the ratio of: a. inertia forces to viscous forces b. inertia forces to elastic forces c. inertia forces to gravity forces d. inertia forces to pressure forces 1215. Mach number is equal to the ratio of:

a. b. c. d.

inertia forces to elastic forces inertia forces to viscous forces inertia forces to pressure forces inertia forces to gravity forces

1216. Euler’s number is equal to the ratio of: a. inertia forces to pressure forces b. inertia forces to elastic forces c. inertia forces to gravity forces d. inertia forces to viscous forces 1217. Weber number is equal to the ratio of: a. inertia forces to viscous forces b. inertia forces to elastic forces c. inertia forces to surface tension d. inertia forces to pressure forces 1218. A widely used unit for viscosity is the “poise” which is equal to: a. 0.01 N-S/m² c. 0.10 N-S/m² b. 0.001 N-S/m² d. 0.0001 N-S/m² 1219. In experimental fluid mechanics, a die or other tracer is frequently injected into the flow to trace the motion of the fluid particles. If the flow is laminar, a ribbon of colors results. This is called; a. streak or filament line c. stream line b. path line d. spatial line 1220. Under very slow deformation and at high temperature, it is possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a shear stress lower than the critical shear stress. What is this phenomenon called? a. slip c. twinning b. creep d. bending 1221. Which of the following is not a basic component of motion of a fluid element? a. translation c. rotation b. angular distortion d. twist 1222. A type of flow in which the velocity is the same in both magnitude and direction at a given instant at every point in the fluid.

a. b.

uniform flow viscous flow

c. steady flow d. laminar flow

1223. A type of flow in which all conditions at any point in a stream remain constant with respect to time but that conditions may be different at different points. a. steady flow c. uniform flow b. rotational flow d. sub-critical flow 1224. For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the constant of proportionality between shear stress and what other variable? a. the time derivative of pressure b. the time derivative of density c. the spatial derivative of velocity d. the spatial derivative of density 1225. The Mach number is the ratio of the inertia to the elastic forces or the ratio of the fluid velocity to that of a sound wave in the same medium. If the value of the Mach number is less than one, the flow is called: a. subsonic flow c. sonic flow b. supersonic flow d. hypersonic flow 1226. When the Mach number (ratio of fluid velocity to that of the sound wave) is equal to one, the flow is called: a. sonic flow c. subsonic flow b. supersonic flow d. hypersonic flow 1227. Which of the following describes shear stress in a moving fluid? a. it is proportional to the absolute viscosity b. it is proportional to the velocity gradient at the point of interest c. it is non-existent d. both a and b 1228. When the Mach number is extremely high, the flow is called a. hypersonic flow c. supersonic flow b. subsonic flow d. sonic flow 1229. When the Mach number is greater than one, the flow is said to be: a. supersonic flow c. sonic flow b. subsonic flow d. hypersonic flow

1230. The flow a. b.

machine that is employed for converting the energy of in a pipeline into mechanical work is called: Turbine c. pump Nozzle d. hydraulic ram

1231. It is defined as the speed of homologous rotating element of such diameter that it develops unit power to a unit head. a. specific speed c. average speed b. turbine speed d. peripheral speed 1232. Which of the following is not true regarding the Blasius boundary layer solution? a. it is valid only for potential flow b. it is valid in laminar flow c. it is an approximate solution d. it permits one to calculate the skin friction on a flat plate 1233. In the complete turbulence zone, a. the friction factor is dependent on the relative roughness b. the rough and smooth pipes have the same friction factor c. the friction factor depends upon the Reynolds’ number only d. the head loss varies as the square of velocity 1234. Mach number is significant in the case of: a. full immersion or completely enclosed flow, such as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles, etc. b. simultaneous motion through two fluids c. a surface of discontinuity, gravity forces, and wave making effects, as with ship’s hull d. supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion 1235. Hydraulic jump is used to a. increase the flow rate b. reduce the flow rate c. reduce the velocity of flow d. reduce the energy of flow 1236. The pilot tube is a device used for measurement of

a. b.

Pressure Flow

c. velocity d. discharge

1237. Hydrometer is used to find out a. relative humidity b. specific gravity of gases c. specific gravity of solids d. specific gravity of liquids 1238. The fluid forces taken into consideration in the Navier Strokes equation are a. gravity, pressure and turbulence b. pressure, viscous and turbulence c. gravity, viscous and turbulence d. gravity, pressure and viscous 1239. Permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete tunnel is generally a. 20 m/sec c. 10-12 m/sec b. 13-16 m/sec d. 4-5 m/sec 1240. Orifice refers to an opening a. with closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows b. with prolong sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of opening in thick wall c. with partially full flow d. in hydraulic structure with regulation provision 1241. The value of coefficient of discharge in comparison to coefficient of velocity is found to be a. more b. less c. same d. more or less depending on flow 1242. Weir refers to an opening a. with closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows b. with prolong sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of opening in thick wall c. with partially full flow d. in hydraulic structure with regulation provision

1243. Select the parameters that determine the friction factor of turbulent flow in a rough pipe. a. Froude’s number and relative roughness b. Froude’s number and Mach number c. Reynolds’ number and relative roughness d. Mach number and relative roughness 1244. If d=diameter of nozzle, D=diameter of pipe, l=length of pipe and f=Darcy’s coefficient of friction for pipe, then the maximum power transmission will occur if d is equal to a. |D5/(8fl)|3/4 c. |D5/(8fl)|1/2 b. |D5/(8fl)|1/3 d. |D5/(8fl)|1/4 1245. Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the loss of head due to fiction is a. one-half of the total head supplied b. one-third of the total head supplied c. one-fourth of the total head supplied d. equal of the total head supplied 1246. For a six compression of air set, the minimum work conditions are a. pressure rise per stage will be equal b. work done in successive stages will be in geometric progression c. cylinder volumes will be the same d. temperature rise in cylinder will be the same 1247. In case of steam engine, the cut-off ratio is the ratio of a. pressure at cut-off supply pressure b. pressure at cut-off to exhaust pressure c. pressure at cut-off mean effective pressure d. fraction of piston stroke which the piston has traveled when cut-off occurs 1248. The reason for insulating the pipes are a. they may not break under pressure b. there is minimum corrosion c. capacity to withstand pressure is increased d. heat loss from the surface is minimized

1249. In case of axial flow compressors for minimum fluid friction and blade tip clearance losses, the blades of an axial flow compressor are designed for a. 80% reaction c. 60% reaction b. 85% reaction d. 53% reaction 1250. Summation of all the heads in another section: a. Boyle’s Law c. Bernoulli’s Principle b. Archimedes’ Principle d. Torrecelli’s Principle 1251. Theoretical horsepower required to pump water at 100 gallons per minute from a large reservoir to the surface of another large reservoir 400 ft. higher is nearest to: a. 10 hp c. 18 hp b. 35 hp d. 6 hp 1252. A waterfall is 60 meters high. It discharges at a constant rate of 1.0 cu. m/sec. S mini-hydro electric plant is to be constructed below waterfalls. If the turbine efficiency is 80% and the generator efficiency is 95%, calculate the kW output of the generator: a. 865 KW c. 850 KW b. 845 KW d. 860 KW 1253. A 12 inch inside diameter circular duct has been flowing at given suction with an average velocity of 1000 ft. per minute. Determine the quantity of air flowing in cfm: a. None of these c. 785.4 b. 685.4 d. 585.4 1254. Which of the following statements is not correct? a. steady flows do not change with time at any point b. Bernoulli’s equation only holds on the same streamline c. The Reynold’s number is the ration of the viscous force to the inertial force d. For a fluid at rest, the pressure is equal in all lateral direction. 1255. Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with pressure and temerature and is defined as a function of: a. density and angular deformation rate b. density and shear stress c. shear stress and angular deformation rate d. density, shear stress and angular deformation rate

1256. Viscosity for a fluid, is defined as the constant of proportionality between shear stress and what other variable? a. The spatial derivative of velocity b. The time derivative of pressure c. The time derivative of density d. The spatial derivative of density 1257. An opening is made at the bottom of a dam 144 ft high. Find the approximate velocity of the water that will flow through the opening if friction is neglected. a. 45 ft/sec c. 96 ft/sec b. 900 ft/sec d. 750 ft/sec 1258. A pump requires 100 hp to move water with a specific gravity of 1.0 at a certain flow rate to a given elevation. What horsepower does the pump require if the flow rate and elevation conditions are the same but the fluid pumped has a specific gravity of 0.8? a. 80 hp c. 60 hp b. 100 hp d. 120 hp 1259. Find the mass flow rate of a liquid (p = 0.690 g/cm 3) flowing through a 5 cm (inside diameter) at 8.3 m/sec? a. 69 kg/sec c. 340 kg/sec b. 140 kg/sec d. 11 kg/sec 1260. A 70% efficient pump pumps 60 degrees C water from ground level to a height of 5 meters. How much power is used if the flow rate is 103 m3/sec? a. 80 kW c. 700 kW b. 220 kW d. 950 kW 1261. Absolute viscosity is essentially independent of pressure and is primarily dependent on. a. specific gravity c. velocity b. density d. temperature 1262. Water flows to a horizontal pipe of cross-sectional area 10 cm2. At one section the cross-sectional area is 5 cm 2.The pressure difference between the sections is 300 N/m 2. How many cubic meters of water will flow out of the pipe in 1 minute?

a. b.

0.0868 m3 0.0268 m3

c. 0.5268 m3 d. 0.1268 m3

1263. The runner in a turbine is 70 cm in diameter. The wheel develops 410 kW when turning at 600 rpm under a head of 43 m. What is the specific speed of the turbine? a. 24.3 c. 29.3 b. 26.5 d. 28.9 1264. A turbine uses 100,000 lbm/hr of steam which enters with an enthalpy of 1400 BTU/lbm and essentially zero entrance velocity. 10,000 horsepower are developed. The exit velocity of the steam is 500 fps. Expansion is adiabatic. What is the exit enthalpy? a. 1140.5 BTU/lbm c. 1280.9 BTU/lbm b. 1250.6 BTU/lbm d. 1120.8 BTU/lbm 1265. A 15’ diameter tank discharges 150°F water through a sharp edged 1” diameter orifice (cd = 0.62). If the original water depth is 12’ and the tank is continually pressurized to 50 psig, find the time to empty the tank. a. 117.25 min c. 227.85 min b. 127.35 min d. 112.25 min 1266. Water flows through a perfect nozzle in the side of a water tank. The water level is constant at 20 ft. What height should the nozzle be located to make the stream flow a maximum horizontal distance before the water strikes the ground? a. y = 5 ft c. y = 15 ft b. y = 10 ft d. y = 20 ft 1267. Water flows in a pipe of varying cross-sectional area. At section where the pipe has a diameter of 5 cm, the velocity of the water is 5m/csec. What is the velocity of the water at a section of the pipe where the diameter is 10 cm? a. 1.25 m/sec c. 1.3 m/sec b. 2.0 m/sec d. 1.4m/sec 1268. It is required to pump water at 100 gal/min from a large reservoir to the surface of another reservoir 400 feet higher. What is the horsepower of the motor to drive the pump, if the efficiency of the pump is 70% a. 14.44 hp c. 12.44 hp b. 13.22 hp d. 10.44 hp

1269. A pipe necks down from 24 inches at point A to 12 inches at point B. The discharge is 8 ft3/sec in the direction of A to B. The pressure head at A is 20 feet. Assume no friction. Find the resultant force and its direction on the fluid if water is flowing. a. 3881.6 lbf from B to A c. 2896.8 lbf from B to A b. 3381.6 lbf from A to B d. 2896.6 lbf from A to B 1270. A pump adds 550 feet of pressure head to 100 lbm/sec of water. What is the hydraulic power in horsepower? a. 200 hp c. 100 hp b. 150 hp d. 300 hp 1271. A hemispherical shell with base horizontal and uppermost is filled with water. If the radius is 8 ft. Determine the time required to empty through a sharp edge orifice of 6 inches in diameter with C = 0.6 and located at the lowest point? a. 10.2 min c. 9.35 min b. 11.1 min d. 8.90 min 1272. A pump is required to lift 200 gallons of water per minute from a well 20 ft deep and reject it with a speed of 30 ft/sec. What horsepower engine is needed? a. 2.50 hp c. 1.72 hp b. 5.6 hp c. 1.54 hp 1273. A pump adds 550 feet of pressure head to 100 lbm/sec of water. What is the hydraulic power in horsepower? a. 100 hp c. 200 hp b. 150 hp d. 300 hp 1274. A centrifugal pump operating at 1800 rpm develops a total head of 200 feet (60 m) at a flow rate of 320 ft 3 (9 m3) per minute. What is the specific speed? a. 1480 c. 1620 b. 1671 d. 1870 1275. At a certain point in a horizontal pipeline gauge pressure is 0.5 x 105 N/m2 at another point gauge pressure is 0.3 x 10 5 N/m2. If the areas of the pipe at these points are 20 cm 2 and 10 cm2, respectively. Compute the numbers of cubic meters

of water which flow across any cross section of the pipe per minute. a. 0.75 c. 0.575 b. 0.438 d. 0.83 1276. What is the maximum height that a vacuum pump can lift 60°F water if the atmospheric pressure is 14.6 psia and local gravity is 28 ft/sec2? a. 28.07 ft c. 56.07 ft b. 47.07 ft d. 38.07 ft 1277. A pump operating at 1770 rpm delivers 500 gal/min against a total of 200 feet. Changes in the piping system have increased the total head to 375 feet. At what rpm should this pump be operated to achieve this new head at the same efficiency? a. 5454 rpm c. 6464 rpm b. 2424 rpm d. 3434 rpm 1278. A reaction turbine with a motor efficiency of 890% operates on a total of 40 feet. If the turbine turns at 750 rpm, what is the specific speed? a. 4.50 c. 7.75 b. 6.00 d. 5.75 1279. Water flows from a source to a reaction turbine exiting 625 feet lower. The head loss is 58 feet due to friction, the flow rate is 1,000 ft³/sec and the turbine efficiency is 89%. What is the output power in kilowatts? a. 4.27  103 kW c. 4.27  106 kW b. 4.27  104 kW d. 4.27  108 kW 1280. A 3-inch diameter pipe 2,000 feet long, with friction of 0.020 carries water from a reservoir and discharge freely at a point 100 feet below the reservoir’s surface level. Find the pump horsepower to double gravity flow. a. 21.20 hp c. 31.20 hp b. 27.20 hp d. 37.20 hp 1281. A cylinder tank 20feet in diameter and 40 feet high has a 4” hole in the bottom with Cd = 0.98 How long will it take for the water level to drop from 40’ to 20? a. 1214.8 sec c. 1695.8 sec

b.

1625.9 sec

d. 1725 sec

1282. Water flows through a horizontal pipe of cross-sectional area 10 cm2. At one section the cross-sectional area is 5 cm2. The pressure difference between the sections is 300 N/m 2. How many cubic meters of water will flow out of the pipe in 1 minute? a. 0.0868 m3 c. 0.5268 m3 3 b. 0.0268 m d. 0.1268 m3 1283. An oil with kinematic viscosity of 0.005ft 2/sec flows at 10ft/sec through a 3-inch (actual diameter) pipe. Is the flow laminar or turbulent? a. the flow is normal c. the flow is laminar b. the flow is abnormal d. the flow is turbulent 1284. A pump operating with a 1-ft diameter impeller works against a total head of 200 feet. What impeller diameter should be used if the total head increase to 330 feet and the new pump must rotate at the same speed with the same efficiency? a. 1.75 ft/sec c. 1.28 ft b. 1.65 ft d. 1.16 ft 1285. What is the maximum height that a vacuum pump can lift 60°F water if the atmosphere is 14.6 psia and local gravity is 28 ft/sec2? a. 38.07 ft c. 56.07 ft b. 47.07 ft d. 28.07 ft 1286. For steam nozzle, which of the following ratios will have the value less than unity? a. pressure at inlet over pressure at outlet b. specific volume at inlet over specific volume at outlet c. temperature of steam at inlet over temperature of steam at outlet d. saturation temperature of steam at inlet over saturation temperature at outlet 1287. A steam nozzle changes a. kinetic energy into heat energy b. heat energy into potential energy c. potential energy into heat energy d. heat energy into kinetic energy

1288. Which type of valve allows flow in only one direction? a. check valve c. slide valve b. butterfly valve d. gate valve 1289. Valves are devices to control the flow of liquid through a pipe. A valve consisting of a rotatable damper, which in the open position, is parallel to the flow, and when rotated 90 degrees, closes the opening to stop the flow a. check valve b. gate valve c. butterfly valve d. globe valve 1290. Valves are devices to control the flow of liquid through a pipe. A piping valve similar to a gate valve but having a stopper like disk which screws down to seat an over opening that is at right angle to the direction of the flow a. globe valve c. check b. cock d. shut-off 1291. When a fluid flows full through a pipe of cross-section A and velocity v, the flow or discharge is a. A²/2v c. A²v b. Av² d. Av 1292. A type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water the turbine starts moving a. steam turbine c. Francis turbine b. reaction turbine d. Pelton turbine 1293. In the design of waterways, the sometimes used for: a. energy dissipation b. elimination of turbulence c. prevention of sedimentation d. measurement of flow

“Hydraulic

jump”

is

1294. The sum of the pressure head, elevation head and the velocity head remains constant. This is known as a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Archimedes’ principle b. Torrecelli’s theorem d. Boyle’s law

1295. Summation of all the heads in one section is equal to the summation of all the heads in another section. a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Pascal’s theorem b. Torrecelli’s theorem d. Boyle’s law 1296. At any instant, the number of particles passing every crosssection of the stream is the same, the flow is said to be a. discharge flow c. uniform flow b. steady flow d. continuous flow

ENGINEERING LAWS, ETHICS AND CONTRACTS 1297. The word capita refers to: a. person

c. plants

b.

house

d. animals

1298. The reason why the obligation exists. a. vinculum c. prestation b. debtor d. creditor 1299. A source of an obligation. a. novation b. delay

c. contract d. consent

1300. The subject matter of obligation. a. Creditor c. debtor b. Object d. efficient cause 1301. The element of obligation who is a possessor of a right and whose favor the obligation is constituted. a. passive subject c. object b. efficient cause d. active subject 1302. An obligation which is to be fulfilled or paid proportionately by different debtors and is to be demanded proportionately by different creditors. a. solidary obligation c. joint obligation b. pure obligation d. conditional obligation 1303. The part of specification which describes the work as a whole. a. specification clause c. title b. general clause d. introduction 1304. The meaning of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to give something or to render some service a. obligation c. elements b. contract d. consent 1305. A type of contract which has no legal stature. a. voidable c. void b. lump-sum d. rescissible 1306. A cause vitiating consent which maybe a ground for an action to an annual contract. a. Offer c. threat b. public policy d. revision

1307. The signification by one person to other of his willingness to enter a contract a. Bid c. desire b. offer d. plan 1308. Unauthorized making, using or selling for use, or for profit, of an invention covered by a valid claim of patent during the life of the patent. a. Duplication c. modification b. Infringement d. copy 1309. Integral part of contract requirement which sets forth technical engineering requirements which are not shown completely on drawing a. Specification c. permit b. Notarization d. plan 1310. A part of specification which describes the technical details of each type of construction. a. shop drawing c. specific clause b. general clause d. order of work 1311. A contract document which shows the physical detail of works. a. specification c. plan b. schedule d. invitation to bid 1312. The calling which requires the passing of government board examination. a. practice c. profession b. vocation d. engineering 1313. This a. b. c. d.

appropriate

is a delay in giving or delivering a thing. Mora Solvendi ex re Mora accipiende Mora Solvendi ex persona Compensation morae

1314. It is the vinculum or the link that binds the parties to an obligation. a. prestation c. legal tie b. active subject d. contract

1315. A disciplinary action recognized by electrical engineering law filed in court of competent jurisdiction. a. public hearing c. administrative proceeding b. criminal proceeding d. complaint 1316. A deliberate and voluntary act to evade fulfillment of an obligation. a. negligence c. fraud b. delay d. contravention 1317. An unexpected event or act of God which could neither be foreseen nor resisted. a. natural event c. calamity b. fortuitous event d. disaster 1318. An obligation not subject to conditions or burden nor does it mention a specific date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable a. obligation with a period b. pure and conditional obligation c. joint and solidary obligation d. obligation with penal cause 1319. An obligation with a period with a resolutory effect. a. In diem c. Ex die b. Legal d. Voluntary 1320. Which of the following is an essential element of contract? a. consent c. freedom b. acceptance d. fraud 1321. Essential elements of a contract. a. consent of parties c. object b. cause or consideration d. all of these 1322. Elements of a contract of unusual stipulation of the parties. a. mutual elements c. essential elements b. natural elements d. accidental elements 1323. It is a condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the fulfillment of the condition. a. Suspensive c. protestative b. resolutory d. mixed

1324. One classification of cause of contracts in which the cause is pure liberality of the giver. a. Onerous c. remuneratory b. gratuitous d. valid 1325. A defective contract which lacks one or some of the element of a valid contract. a. void c. voidable b. unenforceable d. rescissible 1326. A contract which cannot be used upon in court unless it is ratified. a. voidable c. unenforceable b. void d. inexistent 1327. It is a legal wrong committed through or negligence on a person or property independent of a contract. a. Quasi contracts c. Quasi delics b. Culpa contractual d. Dolo causante 1328. Voidable contracts are: a. those that are absolutely fictitious b. those whose object is outside the commerce of man c. those which contemplate an impossible service d. none of the above 1329. The sudden removal of land from the state of one man to that of another, as by a sudden change in a river, the property thus separated continuing in the original owner of the sudden shift in location of a channel is known as: a. avulsion c. cavitation b. erosion d. diversion 1330. A provision in the contract adjustment of material cost and a. fixed cost b. escalatory clause

that indicates the possible labor cost. c. specification d. general provision

1331. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached. a. analytic c. gratuitous b. private d. pure

1332. A legally binding agreement or promise to exchange goods or services. a. contract c. barter b. memorandum d. pro-forma 1333. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent. a. dead person c. demented person b. senior person d. minors 1334. Modes of extinguishing obligations when creditor abandons his right to collect. a. condonation c. forfeiture b. debt cancellation d. liquidated damages 1335. A classification of contract which is perfected by more consent: a. express c. implied b. executed d. consensual and real 1336. Classification of contracts as to legal status: a. implied c. void b. several d. unilateral 1337. Additional information to prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to bidding date: a. technological assessment b. delicts c. escalatory clause d. bid bulletin 1338. It is the claim of anyone to ownership. a. proprietorship c. equity b. assets d. liability 1339. Association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-owners of a profit: a. Corporation c. organization b. Partnership d. company 1340. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the process, attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence:

a. b.

Corporation Partnership

c. property d. organization

1341. An aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by laws as a fictitious person is called a. partnership c. stockholders b. corporation d. investors 1342. An obligation whose performance is subject to any condition: a. resolutory condition b. pure obligation c. conventional obligation d. conditional obligation 1343. The performance of the specific task in project scheduling is: a. event c. duration b. activity d. float 1344. The series of interconnected activities through the network of a construction scheduling for which its activity has zero time is: a. Dummy c. float b. critical path d. duration 1345. Share of participation a. franchise b. stock

c. partnership d. corporation

1346. A form of business organization in which the person conducts his business alone and entirely for his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities: a. Sole proprietorship c. Partnership b. Entrepreneurship d. Corporation 1347. A group of persons who have organized a joint venture for the purpose if supplying electric energy to a specified area: a. Corporation c. cooperatives b. Supplier d. private firm 1348. Obligation arise from: a. contracts b. quasi-contracts

c. quasi-delicts d. all of the above

1349. Obligation are extinguished by: a. novation c. payment b. compensation d. all of the above 1350. A classification of contract consisting unusual stipulation of the parties: a. mutual elements c. natural elements b. essential elements d. accidental elements 1351. A classification of contracts which is perfected by mere consent: a. express c. executed b. implied d. consensual and real 1352. Limitations upon the right to contract: a. contrary to law c. contrary to public order b. against moral d. all of the above 1353. Ground for annulment of contract: a. Mistake c. Violence b. Fraud d. Intimidation 1354. Voidable contracts are: a. those which are absolutely fictitious b. those whose object is outside the commerce of man c. those expressly prohibited by law d. none of the above 1355. In a contract, when the contractor fails to live up to the contract agreement he is usually sued for damages. Which of the following may not be a ground for the damages? a. delay c. negligence b. fraud d. amicable settlement 1356. Which of the following does belong to the Code of Ethics? a. penal provisions b. relations with the client and employer c. preparation and signing of plans d. professional life 1357. Castro is accused of crime in the court. He retains the services of Atty. Gallardo as his defense counsel for P 6000.00. The P 6,000.00 to be given by Castro to Atty.

Gallardo is for professional services of Atty. Gallardo. What kind of contract is this? a. onerous contract c. renumeratory contract b. gratuitous contract d. executory contract 1358. The exceptional circumstances when litigation expenses other than judicial cost can be recovered even without prior agreements are, except: a. in actions for legal support b. when the court does not award judicial costs c. when exemplary damages are awarded d. in actions for recovery of wages of household helpers, laborers, and skilled workers: 1359. Actual or compensatory damages may be recovered for the following except: a. For injury to one’s business standing or commercial credit b. Defective construction of an approved design c. Loss or impairment of earning capacity in cases of injury d. For death caused by crime 1360. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Subject to the laws, all rights acquired in virtue of an obligation are transmissible of there has been no stipulation to the contrary b. Usurious transactions shall be governed by special laws c. If a person obliged to do something fails to do it according to his contract, the same may not be executed at his cost d. Those who in the performance of their obligations are guilty of fraud, negligence or delay and those who in any manner contravene the tenor thereof, are liable for damages 1361. There are many kind of damages, which one is not? a. nominal c. actual or compensatory b. 1362.

exemplary or corrective

d. immoral

Ethics may be defined as the following, EXCEPT

a. b. c. d.

A philosophical concept dealing with moral conduct A set of rules promulgated by law to control criminality A set of standards establishing right and wrong Rules that describe one’s duty to society and to fellow professionals

1363. Generally, a contractor may be sued in court for damages when he fails to comply with a contract. In certain cases, the law does not require a demand for damages. Which one of the following is this? a. When the contract is explicit about damages for noncompliance b. When the contractor failed to perform due to his own fault c. When the obligation or the law expressly declares d. When the time for delivery of service is not controlling motive in the contract 1364. Select the statement that is NOT CORRECT: a. Obligation for whose fulfillment a day certain in has been fixed shall be demandable only when that day comes b. If the obligation does not fix a period, but from its nature it can be inferred that a period was intended, the courts may fix the duration thereof. c. Whenever in an obligation a period is designated, it is presumed to have been established fro the benefit of both the creditor and the debtor d. Anything paid before the arrival of the agreed upon period, the obligor being unaware of the period, or believing that the obligation has become demandable, may not be recovered with interest. 1365. The following are the kinds of obligations under the civil code, EXCEPT: a. Obligation with a period b. Obligation with a penal clause c. Joint and solidary obligation d. Unconditional obligation in performance

1366. The exceptional circumstances when litigation expenses other than judicial courts can be recovered even without prior agreements are, EXCEPT: a. in actions for legal support b. when the court does not award judicial costs c. when exemplary damages are awarded d. in actions for recovery of wages of household helper, laborers and skilled workers 1367. Caruso obliged himself to deliver Vallejo a violin. Subsequently, they entered into a contract whereby they agreed. Instead of Caruso delivering a violin to Vallejo, Caruso would just sing a classical song. The obligation is extinguish by: a. compensation c. the confusion b. the condonation d. novation 1368. Which of the following does not belong to the Code of Ethics? a. penal provisions b. relation with the client and employer c. preparation and signing of plans d. professional life 1369. Cost of things that are NEITHER labor NOR material: a. investment c. expenses b. labor cost d. construction cost 1370. There are many kinds of damages, which one is not? a. nominal c. actual or compensatory b. exemplary or corrective d. immoral 1371. Generally, a contractor may be used in court for damages when he fails to comply with the contract. In certain cases, the law does not require a demand for damages. Which one of the following is this? a. when the contract is explicit about damages for noncompliance b. when the time for delivery of service is not controlling motive in the contract c. when the contractor failed to perform due to his own fault d. when the obligation or the law expressly declares

1372. Which of the following establishes ethical behavior among professionals? a. Legal contracts c. Taxation regulations b. Hippocratic oath d. Rules of play sports 1373. Select the statements that is NOT correct: a. Obligation for whose fulfillment a certain in has been fixed shall be demandable only when that day comes. b. If it does not fix a period, but from its nature it can be inferred that a period was intended, the courts may fix the duration thereof c. Whenever in an obligation a period is designated, it is presumed to have been established for the benefit of both the creditor and the debtor. d. Anything paid before the arrival of the agreed upon period, the obligator being unaware of the period, or believing that the obligation has become demandable, may not be recovered with interest. 1374. The following are the kinds of obligation under the civil code, EXCEPT: a. obligation with a period b. obligation with a penal clause c. joint and solidary obligation d. unconditional obligation in performance 1375. Which of the following establishes ethical behavior among professionals? a. legal contracts c. taxation regulations b. hippocratic oath d. rules of play sports 1376. Which of the following rules does not apply to interests? a. When damages are awarded for breach of contract, interest may be allowed at the discretion of the court. b. Compounding of interest is allowed by the law although there is no express agreement on this point. c. In crimes and negligence cases, interest as part of damages are NEVER adjudicated by the courts. d. The indemnity for damages shall be the payment of interest agreed upon.

PHYSICS 1377. An Angstrom unit, commonly used for atomic and sub-atomic distances is: a. 10–9 m c. 10–6 m –12 b. 10 m d. 10–10 m 1378. One micron is equal to: a. 10-8 cm b. 10-6 m

c. 10-10 cm d. 10-12 m

1379. The prefix pico- means: a. 10-9 of a unit b. 10-6 of a unit

c. 10-12 of a unit d. 10-15 of a unit

1380. What does the prefix tera – refer to? a. 10-12 c. 10-15 b. 1012 d. 1015 1381. What does the prefix atto-refer to? a. 10-15 c. 1015 b. 10-18 d. 1018 1382. Which of these types of radiation has the least ability to penetrate matter? a. alpha particles c. gamma rays b. beta particles d. x-rays 1383. The heat per unit mass per degree change in temperature is called: a. heat of fusion c. heat of vaporization b. relative heat d. specific heat 1384. The heat of fusion approximately: a. 540 b. 144

of

ice

in

calories

per

gram

is

c. 80 d. 970

1385. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main cause of this phenomenon? a. gravity c. surface tension b. air resistance d. viscosity of the fluid

1386. The fundamental reference dimensions are mass, length and time. The fundamental SI units for them are kilogram (kg), meter (m), and seconds (s). The unit of force derived from these units is Newton (N). Consequently, the unit of work Nm is called a. watt c. Joule b. horsepower d. erg 1387. The equation of state for a gas, given P to be absolute pressure in Pascal; V, the volume in m³; T, the absolute temperature in degrees Kelvin; and R, the gas constant in J/kg-K is: a. PV/T = R c. V = P/(RT) b. P/V = RT d. PTV = R 1388. The force on a surface S due to hydrostatic pressure is obtained by integration of the pressure over the surface. If the surface is plane, a single resultant point force can be found that is equivalent to the distributed pressure load. The magnitude of this resultant force may be determined from F = pA where: A is the area of the surface and p is the pressure at the centroid of the surface. p is also the: a. average pressure on the surface b. normal force on the surface c. resultant force on the surface d. total pressure on the surface 1389. A theorem which states that for a problem involving N independent physical variables with M basic dimensions, (NM) independent dimensionless groups of variables can be formed. a. Buckingham-Pi c. Reynold b. Froude d. Weber 1390. A cylindrical cork is floating upright in a container partially filled with water. A vacuum is applied to the container such that the air within the vessel is partially removed, the cork will: a. sink somewhat in the water b. rise somewhat in the water c. sink to the bottom d. remain stationary

1391. The point where the buoyant force and the center line intersect. The body is stable when this point is above the center of gravity, and unstable when this point is below the center of gravity. a. Epicenter c. metacenter b. Focus d. locus or buoyant force 1392. Queing theory provides a large number of alternative mathematical models for describing which of the following? a. network problems b. probabilistic arrivals c. probabilistic service facilities d. waiting line problems 1393. A body which is wholly immersed in a homogenous fluid maybe subjected to two kinds of forces arising from relative motion between the body and the fluid known as: a. drag and lift b. drag and buoyant force c. lift and buoyant force d. friction and buoyant force 1394. Which of the following is not a unit of work? a. N-m c. erg b. kg-m²/s² d. dyne 1395. The criterion for stability of a submerge body. a. the center of buoyancy must be above the center of mass of the body b. the center of buoyancy must coincide with the center of mass of the body c. the center of buoyancy must be below the center of mass of the body d. the buoyancy must be bigger than the weight of the body 1396. “Any body submerged in a fluid is acted upon by an unbalanced force (buoyant force) which is equal to the weight of the displaced fluid.” This principle is known as: a. Archimedes’ principle b. Bernoulli’s principle c. Principle of hydro-dynamics d. Energy principle

1397. Which of the following is the definition of a joule? a. a unit of power b. kg-m/s² c. a Newton-meter d. a rate of change of energy 1398. How many degrees of freedom does a coin rolling on the ground have? a. one c. two b. three d. five 1399. The buoyant force, BF, which is equal to weight of displaced fluid is acting at the: a. centroid of the displaced volume of fluid b. bottom of the body c. center of pressure d. center of gravity of the body 1400. Buoyant force is: a. equal to the weight of the displaced fluid b. the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it c. the resultant force acting on a floating body d. the force necessary to maintain equilibrium on a submerged body 1401. Capillary rise (depression), h, in a circular tube with radius (r), is directly proportional to the surface tension of the liquid contained in a tube. a. h is inversely proportional to r b. h=r c. h is directly proportional to r d. none of these 1402. A plane intercepts the coordinate axis at x = 1, y = 3 and z = 2. what are the Miller indices of the plane? a. (132) c. (123) b. (623) d. (326) 1403. A steam power cycle is modeled by the ideal cycle known as the: a. Otto cycle c. Diesel cycle b. Rankine cycle d. Brayton cycle

1404. Which of the following statements is not true regarding X-ray diffraction? a. the geometrical structure factor, F, is the ratio of the amplitude of the X-ray reflected plane in a crystal to the amplitude of the X-ray scattered from a single electron. b. X-ray diffraction is only useful for studying simpler crystals such as the body-centered cubic structure, rather than more complex crystals like the hexagonal close-packed structure. c. X-ray diffraction can be used to determine the grain size of a specimen. d. X-ray diffraction can be used to detect micro-stresses in a crystal. 1405. A photon is: a. a neutral proton b. a particle of electromagnetic radiation c. a neutral electron d. a charged neutron 1406. Which of the following is not a unit of power? a. Joule-second b. Newton-meter per second c. watt d. horsepower 1407. A dropped ball loses potential energy as it falls. Gravity is an example of: a. conservative force b. non-conservative force c. dissipative force d. any of these, depending on the reference level 1408. The work done in moving an object from A to B against a non-conservative force: a. cannot be recovered by moving it from B to A b. does not depend on the path taken between A an B c. is always entirely converted into heat d. disappears forever 1409. An object at rest may have: a. velocity b. kinetic energy

c. momentum d. potential energy

1410. Momentum is closely related to: a. kinetic energy c. potential energy b. impulse d. power 1411. Momentum can be expressed in: a. N/s c. N∙m b. N∙s d. N∙m/s 1412. In an a. b. c. d.

elastic collision, momentum is conserved but not kinetic energy kinetic energy is conserved but not momentum momentum and kinetic energy are both conserved neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved

1413. An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point has an image that is always: a. inverted c. virtual b. the same size d. smaller in size 1414. An object closer to a converging lens than its focal point has an image that is always: a. inverted c. virtual b. the same size d. smaller in size 1415. Relative to its object, a real image formed by a spherical mirror is always: a. erect c. inverted b. smaller d. larger 1416. The image of a real object produced by a diverging lens is never: a. real c. virtual b. erect d. smaller than the object 1417. A negative magnification corresponds to an image that is: a. Erect c. inverted b. smaller than the object d. larger than the object 1418. Enlarging the lens aperture of a camera, a. increases the ƒ-number b. increases the depth of field c. enlarges the image d. permit a faster shutter speed

1419. A heavy brass plumb bob suspended from a 38-inch cord was observed to have a neutral period of oscillation at about two seconds if pulled 24 inches to one side and then allowed to swing freely. If an astronaut was to repeat this experiment in the moon where the gravitational attraction is approximately 1/6 that of the earth, the observed period would be: a. 0.32 sec c. 4.90 sec b. 0.82 sec d. 12.0 sec 1420. The quantity of heat required to evaporate 1 lb of saturated liquid. a. specific heat c. heat of fusion b. latent heat d. heat of vaporization 1421. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water from 14.5°C to 15.5°C. a. heat of fusion c. BTU b. calorie d. specific heat 1422. Newton’s law states that: a. energy object continues in its state of motion unless acted upon by an external force b. action and reaction are equal and opposite c. an object accelerates only if the net force acting on it d. all of these 1423. The change of frequency due to the relative motion between the source of sound and the observer is called a. Beat c. Bandwidth b. Doppler effect d. none of these 1424. The mass times the square of distance to the mass, assumed to be a point mass is called the: a. Torque c. centrifugal force b. moment of inertia d. none of these 1425. The speed of light is a. 3 x 106 m/s b. 6 x 108 m/s

c. 3 x 108 m/s d. 6 x 106 m/s

1426. What is the velocity of sound in 1500F(660C) water? a. 2510 ft/sec c. 5928 ft/sec b. 4985 ft/sec d. 28288 ft/sec

1427. Find the speed of sound in 32°F water if the compressibility is 3.4 x 10–6 psi-1? a. 4764 ft/sec c. 4674 ft/sec b. 4584 ft/sec d. 4664 ft/sec 1428. The principle known as conservation of momentum states that if no net force is acting on an object, its momentum a. is equal to zero c. remains constant b. is equal to unity d. none of these 1429. In ideal machines, the actual mechanical advantage is __________ the ideal mechanical advantage. a. greater than c. equal to b. less than d. zero 1430. Work a. b. c. d.

performed involves: the magnitude of the force the direction of the force the displacement of the object all of these

1431. The value of the universal gravitational constant is: a. 6.67 x 10-11 M-m²/kg² c. 6.67 x 10-8 M-m²/kg² b.

3.44 x 10-11 M-m²/kg²

d. none of these

1432. In elastic collision, _________ is conserved. a. only momentum b. only kinetic energy c. kinetic energy and momentum d. only impulse 1433. A ship whose full length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity, at what velocity will a 1:25 model be towed through the water? a. 10 m/sec c. 2 m/sec b. 25 m/sec d. 50 m/sec 1434. For stable equilibrium of a floating body, its metacenter should lie a. below the center of gravity b. below the center of buoyancy c. above the center of buoyancy d. above the center of gravity

1435. Center of pressure on an inclined plane lies a. at the centroid c. below the centroid b. above the centroid d. at metacenter 1436. The line of action of the buoyant force always acts through the centroid of the a. submerged body b. volume of the floating body c. volume of the fluid vertically above the body d. displaced volume of the fluid 1437. An equipotential line is one that a. has uniformly varying dynamic pressure b. has no velocity component normal to it c. exist in case of rotational flow d. has no velocity component tangent to it 1438. The pressure force, in Newtons, on the 15 cm diameter head light of an automobile traveling at 25 m/sec will be: a. 10.4 c. 5.6 b. 6.8 d. 4.8 1439. A body, wholly or partly, immersed on a fluid is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid it displaced. This is known as a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Pascal’s theorem b. Torrecelli’s theorem d. none of the above 1440. A fluid property that refers to the attractive force between its molecules and any solid substance with which they are in contact. a. adhesion c. cohesion b. surface tension d. explosion 1441. It is the attraction between unlike molecules. a. diffusion c. extraction b. cohesion d. adhesion 1442. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is called a. volumetric strain c. compressibility b. volumetric index d. adhesion

1443. A fluid property which refers to the intermolecular attraction by which separate particles of the fluid are together: a. cohesion c. explosion b. adhesion d. surface tension 1444. It is the attraction between like molecules. a. absorption c. diffusion b. adhesion d. cohesion 1445. Property of a fluid whereby its own molecules are attracted to each other is known as a. adhesion c. viscosity b. cohesion d. compressibility 1446. The property of the liquids which is due to both cohesion and adhesion. If adhesion is greater than cohesion, the liquid will rise at the point where it comes in contact with another body. If cohesion is prevalent, the liquid will be depressed. a. capillary c. surface tension b. vapor pressure d. none of these 1447. Mercury does not wet glass because of the property known as a. adhesion c. surface tension b. cohesion d. viscosity 1448. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main cause of this phenomenon? a. Gravity c. surface tension b. viscosity of the fluid d. air resistance 1449. The interface between immiscible fluids acts like an infinite thin membrane that supports a tensile force. The magnitude of this force per unit length of a line on this surface. a. capillary action c. hydrostatic tension b. viscosity d. surface tension 1450. The rise or fall of head “h’ in a capillary tube of diameter “d” and the liquid surface tension “σ” and specific weight “w” is given by a. 4dσ/w c. 4wσ/d b. 4wd/σ d. 4σ/wd

1451. The latent heat of vaporization in Joules per kg is equal to a. 3.35 x 105 c. 1.16 x 10³ 5 b. 22.6 x 10 d. 6.40 x 10² 1452. 1 watt equals a. 1 N∙m/hr b. 1 N∙m/m

c. 1 kN∙m/hr d. 1 N∙m/s

1453. The rate of radiant energy, that is emitted by a surface at any temperature and in small wavelengths is found from the known rate of energy, that under the same condition will be emitted from black surface, by multiplying with the absoptivity. Above enunciation is called a. Lambort’s law c. Planck’s law b. Kirchoff’s law d. Stefan Boltzman’s law 1454. At critical point, the latent enthalpy of vaporization is a. only dependent on temperature b. zero c. minimum d. maximum 1455. An insulated 2 kg box falls from a balloon 3.5 km above the earth. The change in the internal energy of the box after it has hit the earth’s surface will be approximately a. 70,000 kJ c. 68.6 kJ b. 7 kJ d. 0 kJ 1456. The torque of an engine is found to be T = 200 sin (лw/2000) J, where w varies between 500 and 1000 rpm. It can be concluded that a. power at 500 rpm > power at 1000 rpm b. power at 500 rpm = power at 1000 rpm c. power at 500 rpm < power at 1000 rpm d. torque at 500 rpm > torque at 1000 rpm 1457. An ideal gas is contained within a volume of 2 cu. Ft. when the pressure is 137 atmosphere and the temp. is 27oC. What volume would be occupied by this gas if it were allowed to expand to atmospheric pressure at a temp. of 50oC: a. 295 cu. ft. c. 185 cu. ft. b. 265 cu. ft. d. 365 cu. ft.

1458. Amount of heat to raise the temperature of one gram of water through 1°C at a constant pressure of one normal atmosphere: a. specific heat c. latent heat b. BTU d. calorie 1459. The zero point on the absolute temperture scale; it is the point of toal ABSENCE OF HEAT – 273oC: a. absolute zero c. none of these b. absolute temperature d. absolute pressure 1460. The pressure of the nitrogen in a constant volume gas thermometer is 78.0 cm. at 0oC. What is the temp. of a liquid in which the bulb of the thermometer is immersed when the pressure is seen to be 87.7 cm: a. 34oC c. 45oC b. 60oC d. 90oC 1461. A 50 g. mass hangs at the end of the spring. When 20 g. more are added to the end of the spring, it stretches 7 cm. more. Find the spring constant: a. 2.8 c. 2.9 b. 4.3 d. 2.5 1462. In refrigeration, the quantity 288,000 BTU / day is called: a. ton c. throughput b. vapor heat d. freon number 1463. What is the definition of instantaneous velocity? a. v = xt c. v = sxdt b.

v = dx/dt

d. v – dxdt

1464. An example of a vector quantity is _______________: a. speed c. energy b. density d. none of these 1465. The ______________ law of Newton sates that every object continuous state of motion unless acted upon by an external force: a. first c. third b. second d. fourth

1466. A continuous change in the position of a particle is called ___________: a. velocity c. motion b. acceleration d. displacement 1467. The property of an object to continue in its state of motion is called ___________: a. acceleration c. continuity b. inertia d. none of these 1468. It is considered as the ability to do work: a. impulse c. energy b. momentum d. inertia 1469. The ______________ of force is the measure of its turning of twisting effect about a given axis: a. torque c. torsion b. moment d. repulsion 1470. Two equal but oppositely directed parallel forces constitute a ___________: a. torque c. couple b. momentum d. none of these 1471. When the loads on successive unit lengths of a cable are not spaced at equal horizontal distances, the cable assumes a shape of: a. parabolic c. hyperbola b. corona d. catenary 1472. The centroid of the area of a triangle is located at a distance of __________ of the altitude from the base: a. one half c. two thirds b. one third d. three fourths 1473. The centeroid of a volume of a cone of pyramid is at ___________ the altitude from the vertex: a. one half c. two thirds b. one third d. three fourths 1474. In D’Alembert’s principle, the added force is called the: a. inertia force c. reversed effective force

b.

D’Alemberts force

d. all of these

1475. The distance which when squared and multiplied by an area equals the moment of inertia of the area is called: a. moment of inertia c. moment radius b. polar distance d. radius of gyration 1476. The moment of a body is ____________ when it is continued to a straight line path: a. linear c. unidirectional b. rectilinear d. none of these 1477. Motion of a particle in a straight line path with an acceleration which is proportional to the displacement from some fixed point in the path and oppositely directed is called: a. linear motion b. rectilinear motion c. simple harmonic motion d. unicurvilinear motion 1478. The velocity of an object divided by the velocity of sound is called: a. Planck’s constant c. Mach number b. Michelson’s number d. Velocity factor 1479. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is 1/25 sec. What is its frequency? a. 50 Hz c. 157 Hz b. 25 Hz d. none of these 1480. Shaft work of –15 kJ/kg and heat transfer of –10 kJ/kg change the enthalpy of the system by: a. 10 kJ/kg c. –15 kJ/kg b. 5 kJ/kg d. –25 kJ/kg 1481. An iron steam pipe is 200 ft. long at 0 oC. What will its increase in length when heated to 100 oC. (coefficient of -6 o linear expansion is 10 x 10 per C): a. 0.18 ft c. 0.12 ft b. 0.28 ft d. 0.20 ft 1482. If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is equal to the negative of the equation of that same curve, the curve is: a. an exponential c. a sinusoid

b.

a conic section

d. parabola

1483. A horizontal capillary tube closed at one end contains a column of air imprisoned by means of a small volume of water. At 7oC and a barometric pressure of 76 cm. of mercury, the length of the air column is 15 cm. What is the length at 17oC if the saturation pressure of water vapor is 7oC and 17oC are 0.75 cm and 1.42 cm. of mercury respectively: a. 12.55 cm c. 15.68 cm b. 19.68 cm d. 18.50 cm 1484. A wooden spherical ball with sp. gr. of 0.42 and a diameter of 30 cm is dropped from a height of 4.2 m above the surface of the water in a pool. If the ball barely touch the bottom of the pool before it began to float, how deep is the water in the pool at that point: a. 3.91 m c. 3.19 m b. 3.40 m d. 3.04 m 1485. A projectile weighing 100 lbs. strikes the concrete wall of a fort within an impact velocity of 1,200 ft./sec. The projectile comes to rest in 0.01 second having penetrated the 8-foot thick wall to distance of 6 feet. What is the average force exerted on the wall by the projectile? a. 3.73 x 104 lbs c. 3.73 x 105 lbs b. 3.73 x 108 lbs d. 3.73 x 106 lbs 1486. The ratio of the amount of heat taken up to absolute temperature at which the heat is absorbed: a. isobaric c. entropy b. Eisentropic d. enthalpy 1487. It depends on the quantity of heat in the body and on its temperature: a. enthalpy c. entropy b. work d. kinetic energy 1488. The energy which bodies posses by virtue of their positions, configurations or internal mechanisms is called: a. heat energy c. potential energy b. kinetic energy d. internal energy 1489. Among the physical laws listed below, which one is different? a. law of acceleration c. law if reaction

b.

law of gravity

d. law of inertia

1490. Inward force that must be applied on the body to keep the body rotating in a circular motion: a. Resisting c. centripetal b. External d. centrifugal 1491. Which of the following statements is false? a. wavelength of visible light is greater than wavelength of microwaves b. frequency of ultraviolet is greater than frequency of infrared c. frequency of radio waves is less than frequency of infrared d. wavelength of x-ray is greater than wavelength of gamma rays 1492. A 3500 kg car accelerates from rest. The constant forward tractive force of the car is 1000 N, and the constant drag force is 150 N. What distance will the car travel in 3 sec.? a. 0.19mm c. 1.1m b. 1.3m d. 15m 1493. The transfer of heat energy from molecule to molecule is known as. a. Resonance c. conduction b. momentum d. radiation 1494. The heat transfer due to motion of matter caused by change in density is called: a. absorption c. conduction b. radiation d. convection 1495. This heated air, being lighter, rises and circulated through the house or is forced through by fan called: a. vapor c. steam b. forced convection d. vacuum 1496. A 250 lb block is initially at rest on a flat surface that is inclined at 30 degrees. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.30 and the coefficient of static friction is 0.40, find the force required to start the block moving up the plane. a. 190 lb c. 125 lb

b.

212 lb

d. 75 lb

1497. What is the period of an oscillating body whose mass is 0.025 kg. if the spring constant K = 0.44 N/m? a. 1.0 sec c. 2.0 sec b. 2.5 sec d. 1.5 sec 1498. A train changes its speed uniformly from 60 mi/hr to 30 m/hr in a distance of 1500 ft. What is its acceleration? a. –1.94 ft/sec2 c. –2.04 ft/sec2 b. 2.04 ft/sec2 d. 1.94 ft/sec2 1499. A car starts from rest and has a constant acceleration of 3 ft/sec2. Find the average velocity during the first 10 seconds of motion. a. 13 ft/sec c. 14 ft/sec b. 15 ft/sec d. 12 ft/sec 1500. A ball’s dropped from a height of 60 meters above the ground. How long does it take to hit the ground? (Acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/sec2) a. 2.1 sec c. 1.3 sec b. 5,5 sec d. 3.5 sec 1501. A spring with a constant of 50 lbf/ft is hung vertically and a mass is attached to its end. The spring end displaces 3 in from its equilibrium position. The same mass is removed from the first spring and is attached to the end of a second, different spring. If the displacement of the second spring is 2.5 in, find its constant. a. 63 lbf/ft c. 46 lbf/ft b. 60 lbf/ft d. 56 lbf/ft 1502. The electrical energy required to raise the temperature of water in a pool is 1000kwh. If the heat losses are 25%, the heating energy required will be: a. 111 kwh c. 1750 kwh b.

1266 kwh

d. 1333 kwh

1503. A magnifying glass has a lens with an index of refraction of n = 5.4 and radii of curvature of 2.95 feet and 4.27 feet for the two faces. What is the magnification of the lens when it is held 2.36” from an object being viewed?

a. b.

1.60 2.78

c. 2.16 d. 1.98

1504. A 550 kg mass initially at rest is acted upon by a force of 50e t N. What is the velocity of the mass at t = 4 sec? a. 4.96 m/sec c. 13.55 m/sec b. 27.10 m/sec d. 4.87 m/sec 1505. Two masses collide on a frictionless horizontal floor and in perfectly inelastic collision. Mass 1 is 4 times Mass 2 velocity of Mass 1 = 10m/s to the right while the velocity of Mass 2 = 20 m/s to the left. What is the velocity and direction of the resulting combined mass? a. 10 m/s to the right c. 10 m/s to the left b.

4 m/s to the right

d. 15 m/s to the left

1506. A 40 lb missile moves horizontally with a velocity of 150 ft/sec. It is intercepted by a laser beam which causes it to explode into two fragments A and B which weighs 25 lbs and 15 lbs respectively. If A travels at an angle 45 degrees from the horizontal while B travels at 30 degrees from the horizontal immediately after the explosion, find the magnitude of velocity of fragment A. a. 73.21 ft/sec c. 31.06 ft/sec b. 101.25 ft/sec d. 43.92 ft/sec Ans. 124.07 ft/sec 1507. A man keeps a 1 kg toy airplane flying horizontally in a circle by holding onto a 1.5 m long string attached to its wing tip. The sting is always in the plane of the circular flight plan. If the plane flies at 10 m/sec, find the tension in the string. a. 28 N c. 67 N b. 15 N d. 18 N 1508. A steel ball weighing 200 lbs sides on a flat, horizontal floor surface and strikes a stationary wooden ball weighing 200 lbs. If the steel ball has a velocity of 16.6 ft/sec at impact, what is the velocity immediately after impact? Assume a frictionless floor and the collision is perfectly elastic: a. 8.35 ft/sec c. zero b. –16.7 ft/sec d. –8.35 ft/sec

1509. Where is the centroid of the surface of a right circular cone with respect to its base. The altitude is h. a. 2/3 h c. 3/4 h b. 4/3 h d. 1/3 h 1510. A rectangular plate is measuring 4 ft by 6 ft is submerged in water such that the top of the shorter side is 4 ft below the surface. What is the depth of the center of pressure on the vertical plate? a. 6.00 ft c. 6.57 ft b. 6.66 ft d. 7.43 ft 1511. Four turns of rope around a horizontal post will hold a 1000 lb weight with a pull of 10 lb, find the coefficient of friction between the rope and post? a. 0.18 c. 0.16 b. 0.22 d. 0.30 1512. What is the index of refraction of light through the material is 2.37 x a. 1.34 c. b. 1.19 d.

a material if the speed of 10 m/s? 1.27 1.52

1513. A homogenous ladder 18 ft long and weighing 120 lbs against a smooth wall. The angel between it and the floor is 70 degrees. The coefficient of friction between the floor and the ladder is 0.25. How far up the ladder can a 180 lb man walk before the ladder slips? a. 16.6 ft c. 10 ft b. 14.6 ft d. 12.2 ft 1514. An automobile moving at a constant velocity of 15 m/sec passes a gasoline station. Two seconds later, another automobile leaves the gasoline station and accelerates at a constant rate of 2 m/sec2. How soon will the second automobile overtake the first? a. 15.3 sec c. 13.5 sec b. 16.8 sec d. 18.6 sec 1515. Which of the following statements is false? a. Wavelengths of visible light is greater than the wavelengths of microwaves b. Frequency of radio waves is less than frequency of infrared waves

c. d.

Frequency of ultraviolet is greater that frequency of infrared Wavelength of x-rays is greater than wavelength of gamma rays

1516. How much at 200 deg C must be added to 50 grams of the same oil at 20 deg C to heat it to 70 deg C: a. 12.39 grams c. 19.23 grams b. 29.12 grams d. 23.91 grams 1517. The temperature of three different liquids are maintained at 15 deg, 20 deg, and 25 deg respectively. When equal masses of the first two liquids are mixed, the final temperature is 18 deg. C. and when equal masses of the last two liquids are mixed, the final temperature is 24 deg. C. What temperature will be achieved by mixing equal masses of the first and the last liquid? a. 15.83 deg. C c. 8.65 deg. C b. 10.30 deg. C d. 23.57 deg. C 1518. A wooden pole (s.g. = 0.65), 9 cm and 9 cm long by 5 m long, hangs vertically from a string in such a way that 3 m are submerged in water and 2 m are above the surface. What is the tension in the string? a. 18.9 N c. 19.6 N b. 20.8 N d. 19.8 N 1519. A 10 g block slides with a velocity of 20 cm/sec on a smooth level surface and makes a head on collision with a 30 gram block moving in the opposite direction with a velocity of 10 cm/sec. If the collision is perfectly elastic, what is the velocity of the 30 gram block after the collision? a. 15 cm/sec c. 25 cm/sec b. 10 cm/sec d. 5 cm/sec 1520. A solid cube material is 0.75 cm on each cube. It floats in oil of density 800 kg/cu m with one-third of the block out of the oil. What is the density of the material of the cube? a. 533 kg/cu.m c. 513 kg/cu.m b. 523 kg.cu.m d. 543 kg/cu.m

1521. If a particle’s position is given by the expression X(t) = 3.4t 3 – 5.4t meters, what is the acceleration of the particle after t = 5 seconds? a. 1.02 m/s2 c. 3.40 m/s2 b. 102 m/s2 d. 18.1 m/s2

1522. Ocean water is used to condensate spent steam at 260 deg. F from a nuclear power plant into water at 140 deg. F. If the ocean temperature is 60 deg. F, and the cooling water leaves the condenser at 100 dg. F, how many pounds of ocean water are needed to condensate each pound of spent steam? Take the specific heat of ocean water to be 1 BTU/lb-F deg and specific heat of steam to be 0.5 BTU/lb-F deg. Heat of vaporization of water in BTU/lb is 970. a. 26.7 lb c. 25.8 lb b. 28.2 lb d. 27.4 lb 1523. A man whose weight is 667 N and whose density is 98 kg/cu. can just float in water with his head above the surface with the help of a life jacket which is wholly immersed. Assuming that the volume of his head is (1/15) of his whole volume and that the specific gravity of the life jacket is 0.25, find the volume of the life jacket. a. 0.006 cu.m c. 0.040 cu.m b. 0.001 cu.m d. 0.004 cu.m 1524. A 100 gas steel tank weighs 50 lb when empty. Will it float in seawater when it is filled with gasoline? The weight density of gasoline is 42 lb/ft3 that of seawater is 64 lb/ft3, and 1 gal = 0.134 ft3. What is the total weight of the tank when filled with gasoline? a. not float & 584 lb c. float & 858 lb b. sink & 876 lb d. float & 613 lb 1525. A roller starts from rest at the highest point of the track 30 m above the ground. What speed will it have at ground level if the effect of friction is neglected? a. 35.6 m/s c. 65.2 m/s b. 58.8 m/s d. 24.5 m/s 1526. A steel rail 30 m long is firmly attached to the roadbed only at its ends. The sun raises the temperature of the rail by 50 deg

C, causing the rail to buckle. Assuming that the buckled rail consist of two straight parts meeting in the center, calculate how the center of the rail rises. (Coefficient of linear expansion = 12 x 10-6/ºC): a. 0.47 m c. 0.41 m b. 0.49 m d. 0.52 m 1527. A closed cylindrical tank 2 m in diameter and 4 m depth with axis vertical contains 3 m depth of water. Air at a pressure of 0.06 kg/cm2 is pumped into the cylinder above the liquid surface. Determine the total normal force acting on the wall of the tank. a. 15,720 kg c. 13,800 kg b. 12,550 kg d. 16,400 kg 1528. How much perspiration must evaporate from a 5.0-kg baby to reduce its temperature by 2 deg? The heat of vaporization for water at body temperature is about 580 cal/g. For the body, c = 0.83 cal/g deg C. a. 13.4 g c. 15.7 g b. 14.3 g d. 12.5 g 1529. A piece of wood weighs in mass units 10.0 g in air. When a heavy piece of metal is suspended below it, the metal being submerged in water, the “weight” of wood in air plus metal in water is 14.0 g. The “weight” when both wood and metal are submerged in water is 2.00 g. Find the density of the wood. a. 830 kg/cu. m c. 840 kg/cu. m b. 845 kg/cu. m d. 820 kg/cu. m 1530. A ball is dropped into a solid floor from an initial height, h 0. I the coefficient of restitution, e, is 0.90, how high will the ball rebound? a. 0.81 h0 c. 0.45 h0 b. 0.85 h0 d. 0.90 h0 1531. A cubical copper block is 1.50 cm on each edge submerged in oil which ρ = 820 kg/cu. m, what is the tension on the string that is supporting the block when submerged? ρc u m = 8920 kg/cu. m a. 0.268 N c. 0.249 N b. 0.789 N d. 0.148 N

1532. A 60-kg motor sits on four cylindrical rubber blocks. Each cylinder has a height of 3 cm and a cross-sectional area of 15 cm sq. The shear modulus for this rubber is 2 MPa. If the sideways force of 300 N is applied to the motor, how far will it move sideways? a. 0.124 cm c. 0.102 cm b. 0.075 cm d. 0.092 cm 1533. A 5 kg block is moving at a speed of 5 m/s. What is the force required to bring the block to a stop in 8 x 104 seconds? a. 18.8 kN c. 15.4 kN b. 13.2 kN d. 9.2 kN 1534. A car moving at 70 km/hr has a mass of 1700 kg. What force is necessary to decelerate it a rate of 40 cm/s2? a. 4250 N c. 680 N b. 0.680 N d. 42.5 N 1535. Determine the submerged depth of a cube of steel 0.30 m on each side floating in mercury. The specific gravities of steel and mercury are 7.8 and 13.6, respectively. a. 0.155 m c. 0.184 m b. 0.165 m d. 0.172 m 1536. The mass of a certain object is 10 gm. What would its mass be if taken to the planet mars? a. 6 gm c. 10 gm b. 0 d. 20 gm 1537. Two men pull horizontally on ropes attached to a post, the angle between the ropes being 45º. If man A exerts a force of 150 lb and man B a force of 100 lb, find the magnitude of the resultant force and the angle it makes with A’s pull. a. 198 lb, 30º c. 258 lb, 36.5º b. 185 lb, 42º d. 232 lb, 17.5º 1538. A uniform area jet travels at 600 ft/sec and 100 ft 3/sec. What horizontal force acts on the water if it undergoes a 90° turn? a. –3,91 x 105 lbf c. –1.16 x 105 lbf 5 b. –3.25 x 10 lbf d. –1.91 x 105 lbf 1539. A object weighs 1,500 grams in air, 1,250 grams in water. Determine the specific gravity of the object. a. 5 c. 7

b.

6

d. 8

1540. A rotating steel ring has mass density of 7850 kg/m 3. At what angular velocity will the stress reach 200 MN/m 2 if the mean radius is 250 mm? a. 230.47 rad/min c. 850.5 rad/hr b. 638.47 rad/sec d. 790 rad/day 1541. If a force of 86 lb parallel to the surface of a 20° inclined plane will push a 120-lb block up the plane at constant speed, what force parallel to the plane will push it down at constant speed? a. 4.06 lbs c. 86.5 lbs b. 45.1 lbs d. 40.04 lbs 1542. An airplane pilot sets a compass course due west and maintains an air speed of 120 mph. After flying for one-half hour he finds himself over a town which is 75 mi west and 20 mi south of his starting point. Find the magnitude of wind velocity. a. 50 mph c. 55 mph b. 60 mph d. 65 mph 1543. A uniform area jet travel at 600ft/sec and 100ft 3/sec. What horizontal force acts on the water if it undergoes a 90 0 turn? a. –3.91 x 105 lbf c. –1.91 x 105 lbf b. –3.26 x 105 lbf d. –1.16 x 105 lbf 1544. A cylindrical tank having a diameter of 1.5 m and a height of 4 m is open at one end and closed at the other end, It is placed below the water surface with its open end down. How deep below the water surface should the tank be placed if the depth of water inside the tank is 1.8m? a. 8.41 m c. 6.21 m b. 7.22 m d. 5.84 m 1545. A wooden spherical ball with sp.gr. of 0.42 and a diameter of 30 cm is dropped from a height of 4.2 m above the surface of the water at the deep of the swimming pool. If the ball barely touches the bottom of the pool before it began to float, how deep is the swimming pool at the point? a. 3.91 m c. 3.19 m b. 3.40 m d. 3.04 m

1546. How long could a 2000-hp motor be operated on the heat energy liberated 1 mi3 of ocean water when the temperature of the water is lowered by 1 0C and if all these heat were converted to mechanical energy? a. 371.56 years c. 435.12 min b. 341.65 hrs d. 213.75 sec 1547. An iceberg has a density of 57.1 lbm/ft3. If its floats in fresh water, what percent of the iceberg’s volume will be visible? a. 10.5% c. 7.5% b. 5.5% d. 8.5% 1548. A balloon rising vertically with a velocity of 16ft/sec, releases a sandbag at an instant when the balloon is 64 ft. above the ground. Compute the position of the sandbag ¼ sec. After release. a. 5ft c. 3ft b. 1ft d. 0.4ft 1549. A scientist plan to make a pulse laser with rate of 200 J in 35 seconds. What is the power? a. 7 GW c. 7.72 GW b. 5 GW d. 5.72 GW 1550. An elevator weighs 1000 pounds and is supported by a 5/16” cable, 1500 feet long. When the elevator carries a 1500 pound load, the cable elongates 6” more. What is the modulus of elasticity of the cable? a. 460 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi) b. 5.87 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 231 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi) d. 609 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi) 1551. An object weights 1,500 grams in air, 1250 grams in water. Determine the specific gravity of the object. a. 5 c. 7 b. 6 d. 8 1552. A piston-cylinder system contains a gas, which expands under a constant pressure of 1200 lbf/ft2. If the piston is displaced 12” during the process, and the piston diameter is 24”, what is the work done by the gas on the piston? a. 7894 ft-lbf c. 1234 ft-lbf

b.

3768 ft-lbf

d. 6578 ft-lbf

1553. 2 lbm of 200°F iron (Cp = 0.1 BTU/lbm-°F) are dropped into a gallon of 40°F water. What is the final temperature of the mixture? a. 33.77°F c. 43.74°F b. 34.47°F d. 53.77°F 1554. A particle of charge +3 x 10-9 C is situated in a uniform electric field directed to the left. In moving to the right a distance of 5 cm, the work of an applied force is 6 x 10 -5 J and the charge in kinetic energy of the particle is +4.5 x 10 -5 J. What is the work of the electrical force? a. kinetic energy only b. kinetic energy + electrical potential c. electric potential only d. kinetic energy – electric potential 1555. In a laboratory experiment, 50 grams of copper is heated by a steam at 100°C, is dropped into the 50 grams aluminum calorimeter containing 100 grams of water at 27°C. If the final temperature of the mixture is 30°C, find the specific heat of copper. (Caluminum = 0.22 cal/g - C°). a. 0.077 cal/g-C° c. 0.99 cal/g-C° b. 0.095 cal/g-C° d. 0.66 cal/g-C° 1556. A plane wall 2 x 3 m and 20 cm thick. Its thermal conductivity is 0.5 W/m-K. If the temperature difference between opposite faces is 60C°, find the heat flux. a. 155 watts per square meter b. 150 watts per square meter c. 145 watts per square meter d. 160 watts per square meter 1557. A plane wall 2 x 3 m and 20 cm thick, its thermal conductivity is 0.5 W/m-K. If the temperature difference between opposite faces is 60C°, find the heat flow: a. 930 watts c. 800 watts b. 920 watts d. 900 watts 1558. Two piers A and B are located on a river, one mile apart. Two men must make round trips from pier A top pier B and return. One man is to row a boat at a velocity of 4 mi/hr relative to

the water, and the other man is to walk n the shore at a velocity of 4 mi/hr. The velocity of the river is 2 mi/hr in the direction from A and B. How long does it take each man to make to roundtrip? a. 0.67 hr, 0.6 hr c. 0.5 hr, 0.3 hr b. 0.5 hr, 0.46 hr d. 0.67 hr, 0.5 hr 1559. The electron emitted from a hot filament are accelerated in an electric field until their velocity is 5 x 10 to the positive 9 th power cm/sec. Find the wavelength of the electrons? a. 0.660 c. 0.153 b. 0.009 d. 0.146 1560. To what height will pure 60°F diameter glass tube open to the end? a. 0.36 inch c. b. 0.26 inch d.

water rise in a 0.1-inch atmosphere to the other 0.46 inch 0.16 inch

1561. A body of mass 50 grams is at rest at the origin, x = 0, on a horizontal frictionless surface. At time t = 0, a force of 10 dynes is applied to the body parallel to the x-axis, and 5 sec later the force is removed. What is the position of the body at t = 5 sec? a. 2.5 cm c. 3.5 cm b. 2.8 cm d. 1.5 cm 1562. A river flows due North with a velocity of 3 mph. A man rows a boat across the river, his velocity relative to the water being 4 mph, due East. What is his velocity relative to the earth? a. 3 mph c. 5 mph b. 4 mph d. 8 mph 1563. What average horsepower is developed by a 180 lb man when climbing in 10 sec. a flight of stairs which rises 20 ft, vertically? Express this power in kilowatts. a. 0.974 c. 1.466 b. 0.378 d. 0.488 1564. A hockey puck leaves a player’s stick with a velocity of 30 ft/sec and slides 120 ft before coming to rest. Find the coefficient of sliding friction between the puck and the ice? a. 0.217 c. 0.117

b.

0.127

d. 0.317

1565. Heat is supplied to 20 lbm of ice (cp – 0.5 BTU/lbm - °F) at 0°F at the rate of 160 BTU/sec. How long will it take to convert the ice to steam (cp = 0.5 BTU/lbm - °F) at 213°F? a. 163.78 sec c. 153.78 sec b. 173.76 sec d. 157.38 sec 1566. A safe weighing 600 lb is to be lowered at constant speed down a skid, 8 ft long, from a truck 4 ft high. If the coefficient of sliding friction between safe and skid is 0.30. How great a force parallel to the plane is needed? a. 140 lbs c. 146 lbs b. 142 lbs d. 144 lbs 1567. A safe weighing of 600 lbs is to be lowered at constant speed down a skid, 8 ft long, from a truck that is 4 ft high. If the friction by the safe surface and the skid is 0.30, what will you do with the safe? a. Nothing c. push down b. hold back d. lift safe 1568. What is the sea level (g = 32.2 ft/sec 2) specific weight (lbm/ft3) of liquid with density of 58.3 lbm/ft3? a. 58.3 lbm/ft3 c. 64.3 lbm/ft3 b. 43.3 lbm/ft3 d. 25.3 lbm/ft3 1569. A piston-cylinder system contains a gas which expands under a constant pressure of 1200 lbf/ft2. If the piston is displaced 12” during the process, and the piston diameter is 24”, what is the work done by the gas on the piston? a. 3768 ft-lbf c. 6587 ft-lbf b. 1234 ft-lbf d. 7894 ft-lbf 1570. 1 kw-hr is equivalent to: a. 2545 BTU b. 2545 cal

c. 3412 BTU d. 3412 cal

1571. A sphere of radius 5 x 10 to the negative two cm. and density of 1.1 gm/cc falls at a constant velocity through a liquid density 1.00 gm/cc and viscosity of 1.00 poise. What is the velocity of the falling sphere is cm/sec? a. –0.400 c. –0.744 b. –0.544 d. –1.533

1572. A railroad train is traveling at 100 ft/sec in still air. The frequency of the note emitted by the locomotive whistle is 500 HZ. What is the wavelength of the sound waves in front of the locomotive? a. 3.0 ft c. 2.5 ft b. 2.0 ft d. 3.4 ft 1573. A ball dropped from the cornice pass a window 9ft high. How below the cornice? a. 15ft b. 16ft

of a building takes 0.25 sec to far is the top of the window c. 17ft d. 18ft

1574. A 16 lb block is lifted vertically at a constant velocity of 20 ft/sec through a height of 20 ft. Determine the force required to move the 16 lb block. a. 15 lb c. 16 lb b. 15.5 lb d. 17.8 lb 1575. The distance between two points is exactly 100 ft. This measurement is read correctly on a steel surveyor’s tape at 700F and with a 10-pound tension. If the tape measures another distance as 100 feet at 1000F and with 20-pound tension, what is the actual distance? The tape is 3/8 inch wide and 1/32 inch thick. a. 100.0875 ft c. 99.978 ft b. 100.0223 ft d. 99.498 ft 1576. 10 BTU are transferred in a process where a piston compresses a spring and in so doing does 1500ft-lbf of work. Find the change in internal energy of the system. a. 5.23 BTU c. 8.07 BTU b. 5.23 cal d. 8.07 cal 1577. One end of a horizontal is attached to a prong of an electrically driven tuning fork whose frequency of vibration is 240 vib/sec. The other end passes over a pulley and supports a weight of 6 lb. The linear weight density of the string is 0.0133 lb/ft. What is the speed of a transverse wave in the string? a. 132 ft/sec c. 130 ft/sec b. 120 ft/sec d. 115 ft/sec

1578. When a train has a speed of 10 mph eastward, raindrops which are falling vertically with respect to the earth make traces on the windows of the train which are inclined 30° to the vertical. What is the velocity of the raindrop with respect to the earth? a. 22 mph c. 10 mph b. 17.6 mph d. 20 mph 1579. A car traveling with a rated 60kph around a curve whose radius is 100m. What is the maximum speed? Coefficient of friction is 0.4. a. 95 kph c. 90 kph b. 99 kph d. 86 kph 1580. A gram bullet is propelled by a calories of usable energy. What a. 920 m/sec b. 910 m/sec

powder charge producing 500 is the bullet muzzle velocity? c. 930 m/sec d. 915 m/sec

1581. A spherical helium balloon as STP has a diameter of 60 ft. What is its lifting power? a. 8679 lbf c. 7870 lbf b. 7680 lbf d. 9876 lbf 1582. A ball rolls off the edge of a horizontal tabletop 4 ft. high and strikes the floor at a distance of 5 ft. horizontally from the edge of the table. What was the velocity of the ball at the instant of leaving the table? a. 15 fps c. 5 fps b. 25 fps d. 10 fps 1583. A thin uniform rod is 5 meters long and has a mass of 2.34 kg. Find its moment of inertia about a transverse axis through its center. a. 9.75 kg-m2 c. 29.25 kg-m2 b. 19.5 kg-m2 d. 4.875 kg-m2 1584. What is the basic material used in ceramic magnets? a. copper c. flat bars b. aluminum d. iron oxide 1585. A student determined to test the law of gravity for himself walks off a skyscraper 900 ft high, stopwatch in hand, and starts his free fall (zero initial velocity). Five seconds later,

Superman arrives at the scene and dives off the roof to save the student. What must Superman’s initial velocity be in order that he catches the student just before the ground is reached? (Assume that Superman’s acceleration is that any freely falling body) a. 230 fps c. 320 fps b. 400 fps d. 240 fps 1586. What is the density of a stone which weighs 19.9 lb in air and 12.4 lb in water? a. 156.8 lbm/ft³ b. 165.8 lbm/ft³ c. 256.8 lbm/ft³ d. 168.5 lbm/ft³ 1587. The Springfield riffle bullet weights 150 grains (7,000 grains= 1 lb). Its muzzle velocity is 2,700 ft/sec, and the length of the rifle barrel is 30 in. Compute the resultant force accelerating the bullet, assuming it to be constant. a. 977 lb c. 748 lb b. 877 lb d. 1077 lb 1588. A cylindrical tin can 4 inches in diameter and 4 inches long has 2/3 of its air removed. What is the force on each end? a. 184.6 lbf c. 118.4 lbf b. 150.7 lbf d. 123.1 lbf 1589. What area airfoil (CL = 0.5) is required to obtain a 5,000 lbf at 90 mph? The density of air s 0.075 lbm/ft³. a. 492.8 ft² c. 294.8 ft² b. 382.8 ft² d. 254.8 ft² 1590. A box is being pushed with a force of 40 lbs having an angle of 30 with the horizontal. Using a scale 1 in = 10 lbs, find the horizontal and vertical components of the force? a. FX = 32.6 lbs, FY = 34.6 lbs b. FX = 36.0 lbs, FY = 36.0 lbs c. FX = 34.6 lbs, FY = 34.6 lbs d. FX = 34.6 lbs, FY = 37.6 lbs 1591. Three planets of identical size and mass are oriented in space such that radiant energy can occur. The average temperature of planets A, B, and C are 284 K, 289K, and 283K, respectively. All three planets are massive enough that small

energy losses or gains can be considered to be isothermal processes. What are the entropy productions for the planet B and C if an energy transfer of 2330 KJ/kg occurs by radiation? a. (-8.052, 8.233) KJ/kg-K b. (-8.062, 8.233) KJ/kg-K c. (-8.072, 8.233) KJ/kg-K d. (-8.082, 8233) KJ/kg-K 1592. A scuba diver at a depth of 200 feet notices the bubbles he exhales have diameter of ½ inch. Assume the tension and the water temperature remains relatively constant. What is the pressure on the bubble? a. 404.4 lbf/in2 (psia) c. 202.4 lbf/in2 (psia) 2 b. 303.4 lbf/in (psia) d. 101.4 lbf/in2 (psia) 1593. A scuba diver at a depth of 200 ft notices the bubbles he exhales has diameters of ½ inch. Assume the tension and water temperature remains relatively constant. What is the depth if the diameter is ¼ inch? a. 1,500 ft c. 2,500 ft b. 1,600 ft d. 2,800 ft 1594. What is the velocity of sound in 150 0F(660C) air at standard atmospheric pressure? a. 1411 ft/sec c. 1311 ft/sec b. 1211 ft/sec d. 1511 ft/sec 1595. Two forces B1 and B2 act at a point. The magnitude of B 1 is 8 lb and its direction is 600 above the x-axis in the first quadrant. The magnitude of B2 is 5 lb and the direction is 53 0 below the x-axis in the fourth quadrant. What are the horizontal and vertical components of the resultant force? a. BX = 7 lbs, By = 2.9 lbs b. BX = 7 lbs, By = 3 lbs c. BX = 6.95 lbs, By = 2.9 lbs d. BX = 6.95 lbs, By = 3 lbs 1596. A 0.25 N bullet traveling at 500m/s hits a 44.75 N block suspended vertically by a 3m long string. Find the maximum angle in which the string makes with the vertical if the bullet imbeds itself in the block. a. 330 c. 28.90 0 b. 40 d. 300

1597. One end of a rope 50 ft long is attached o an automobile. The other end is fastened to a tree. A man exerts a force of 100 lb at the midpoint of the rope, pulling it 2 ft to the side. What is the force exerted on the automobile? a. 625 lbs c. 846 lbs b. 620 lbs d. 528 lbs 1598. The hammer of a pile driver weights 1000 lb and must be lifted a vertical distance of 6 ft in 3 sec. What horsepower engine is required? a. 5.34 hp c. 4.63 hp b. 3.64 hp d. 6.43 hp 1599. The mass of the moon is one eighty-first and its radius onefourth that of the earth. What is the acceleration of gravity on the surface of the moon? R e = 6.38 x 108 cm, Me = 6x1027 grams. a. 205 c. 197 b. 192 d. 190 1600. The mass of the moon is one eighty-first, and its radius onefourth that of the earth. What is the acceleration of gravity on the surface of the moon? a. 192 cm/sec2 c. 197 cm/sec2 2 b. 190 cm/sec d. 205 cm/sec2 1601. A batted baseball leaves the bat at an angle of 30 0 above the horizontal and is caught by an outfielder 400 ft from the plate. What was the initial velocity of the ball? a. 116 ft/sec c. 122 ft/sec b. 128 ft/sec d. 126ft/sec 1602. A billiard ball whose diameter is 80 mm. What is the height above the billiard table will the cue ball strike the billiard ball so that it will roll frictionless? a. 55 mm c. 60 mm b. 56 mm d. 40 mm 1603. Permanent magnet materials are available commercially into different classes one of these is … a. Heat sink alloys b. Quench hardened alloys

c. d.

Aluminum alloys Manganese alloys

1604. Find the radius of gyration k of a solid sphere, diameter 6 ft rotating about a diameter as an axis. a. 1.8 ft c. 2.0 ft b. 1.9 ft d. 2.5 ft 1605. The inner radius of a hollow cylinder is in 3 in, the outer radius is 4 in and the length is 6 in. what is the radius of gyration of the cylinder about x-axis? a. 5.54 in c. 2.54 in b. 3.54 in d. 1.95 in 1606. What diameter shaft is required to transmit 200 horsepower at 1.850 rpm if the maximum shear stress is 10,000 psi and the maximum twist is 1 degree per foot of length? The shaft is round steel. a. 1.41 in c. 2.54 in b. 1.51 in d. 2.95 in 1607. The draft of a ship with 4,700 ft2 of water line cross section is 12 feet. What cargo load is required to increase the draft 3 inches? Assume the seawater has a density of 64.0 lbm/ft3. a. 85,400 lbm c. 3,609,600 lbm b. 3684,800 lbm d. 75,200 lbm 1608. Find the horizontal and vertical components of a 40-lb force the direction of which is 500 above the horizontal to the right. a. Fx = 30.6 lbs, Fy = 24.6 lbs b. Fx = 30.6 lbs, Fy = 25.7 lbs c. Fx = 25.7 lbs, Fy = 30.6 lbs d. Fx + 24.6 lbs, Fy = 30.6 lbs 1609. A water-tight, cubical box with 12 inches outside dimensions, is made from ¼ inch plate. If SG = 7.7 for the iron. Will the box float? a. The box will sink c. The box will float b. The iron will float d. The box will not float 1610. An object is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed of 32ft/sec when it has reached one-half its maximum height. How high does it rise? a. 28 ft c. 32 ft

b.

30 ft

d. 34 ft

THERMODYNAMICS 1611. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without transfer of heat to or from the gas, the process is called a. isothermal c. isentropic b. adiabatic d. reversible 1612. The chief differences between liquids and gases are: The chief differences between liquids and gases are: A. Liquids are practically incompressible whereas gases are compressible B. Liquids occupy definite volumes and have free surfaces, whereas a given C. Mass of gas expands until it occupies of any containing vessel D. Liquids obey the principle of fluid mechanics; gases do not a. all three, A, B, and C b. B and C

c. the first two, A and B d. none of these

1613. The ratio of the density of a substance to that density of some standard substance is called a. relative density c. specific gravity b. specific density d. relative gravity 1614. The total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section of a pipeline is a function of: a. pressure and velocity b. pressure, density and velocity c. [ressure, velocity, density and viscosity d. flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy

1615. The fundamental reference dimension are mass, length and time. The fundamental SI units for them are kilograms (kg), meter (m) and seconds (s). The unit of force derived from these units is Newton (N). Consequently, the unit of pressure in N/m is called a. Pascal c. Mega Pascal b. Gage d. stress 1616. This law states that pressure applied at a point in a confined liquid is transmitted equally to all other points. a. Boyle’s law c. Charles’ law b. Lenz’ law d. Pascal’s law 1617. If the strain rate of the fluid is linearly proportional to the applied shear stress and is zero when the later is zero, the fluid is: a. Brownian c. Archimedean b. Newtonian d. Bernoullian 1618. A fluid for which the constant proportionality (the viscosity) does not change with rate of deformation is said to be: a. Newtonian fluid c. compressible fluid b. incompressible fluid d. ideal fluid 1619. If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the following describes the fluid? a. it has a constant viscosity b. it is a Newtonian gas c. it is a perfect gas d. it is at constant temperature 1620. The ratio of the change in pressure to the relative change in density, and measures the compressibility of a material is known in fluid mechanics as: a. bulk modulus of elasticity b. compression index c. compression ratio d. modulus of volume 1621. Refers to the formula giving the terminal velocity of spherical articles in liquid. a. Buckingham-Pi c. Newton’s law b. Archimedes’ law d. Stroke’s law

1622. This is the mechanical energy balance based on the first law of thermodynamics. It includes potential energy (PE), kinetic energy (KE), flow energy, losses and shaft work inputs, but omits thermal energy. Similar to the Euler equation, though written in differential form. a. Manning equation c. Bernoulli’s equation b. Kutter equation d. Hazen-Williams equation 1623. This formula relates the head loss with friction factor (f), the length to diameter ratio (L/D), and the kinetic energy v²/2g. a. Chezy c. Manning b. Kutter d. Dracy-Weisback 1624. This law is used for diffusional flow, and closely parallels conductive heat transfer. The form of the formula is Q = kIA where Q is the volume flow rate, k is the coefficient of permeability, I is the gradient, and A is the cross-sectional area of the flow. a. Darcy’s law c. Newton’s law b. Chezy’s law d. Bernoulli’s law 1625. Refers to the gradient at which flow in a pipe of a particular diameter will carry away any solids in it. a. critical c. sub-critical b. self-cleansing d. super critical 1626. A law that states that in a perfect fluid, the pressure exerted on it anywhere gets transmitted in all directions. a. Archimedes’ law c. Stoke’s b. Darcy’s d. Pascal’s law 1627. If the relative density of oil is 0.75, its density is a. 750 MPa c. 750 N/m² b. 750 Pa d. 750 kg/m³ 1628. The first law of thermodynamics is based in which of the following principles? a. conservation of mass b. action-reaction c. the enthalpy-entropy relationship d. conservation of energy

1629. At constant pressure, it is the increase in enthalpy per unit of mass when the temperature is increased one degree with its volume held constant is called: a. specific weight c. isotropic process b. adiabatic process d. isentropic process 1630. The equation of state of the gas for isothermal conditions: a. PV = constant c. PVK = constant n b. PV = constant d. none of these 1631. The equation of state of the gas for isentropic conditions: a. PV = constant c. PVK = constant b. PVn = constant d. none of these 1632. The equation of state of the gas for adiabatic conditions: a. PV = constant c. PVK = constant b. PVn = constant d. none of these 1633. In analyzing the steady flow of compressible fluids, the process involved which there is no change in temperature is involved is called: a. isothermal process c. adiabatic process b. isentropic process d. stagnation process 1634. The process involved in the analysis of a steady flow of compressible fluids in which no heat is added or taken away from the flow system is called: a. isothermal process c. adiabatic process b. isentropic process d. stagnation process 1635. The process involved in the analysis of a steady flow of compressible fluids is also a frictionless adiabatic process is called: a. isothermal process c. adiabatic process b. isentropic process d. stagnation process 1636. During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, which is true about the change in entropy? a. it is always zero b. it is always greater than zero c. it is always less than zero d. it is temperature dependent

1637. The compressibility (change in volume due to change in pressure) of a liquid is inversely proportional to its volume of elasticity is known as: a. bulk modulus c. modulus of elasticity b. shear modulus d. strain modulus 1638. Cavitation occurs when the pressure in the liquid falls below the _________ of that liquid. a. vapor pressure c. atmospheric pressure b. turbine speed d. peripheral speed 1639. Which statement is true for a fluid? a. it cannot sustain a shear force b. it cannot sustain a shear force at rest c. it is a liquid only d. it has a very regular molecular structure 1640. A fluid either liquid or gas, tangential or shearing force always come into being whenever motion takes place, thus giving rise to fluid friction because these forces oppose to movement of one particle past another. a. real fluid c. ideal fluid b. compressible fluid d. incompressible fluid 1641. One atmospheric pressure is equal to: a. 1013 mbars c. 760 mm of Hg b. 10.3 m of H2O d. all of these 1642. The pressure exerted by the atmosphere in every surface with which it comes in contact is known as: a. atmospheric pressure c. absolute pressure b. vapor pressure d. gage pressure 1643. Under normal condition at sea level, the atmospheric pressure is most nearly: a. 101.3 kPa c. 103.1 kPa b. 110.3 kPa d. 130.1 kPa 1644. Which of the following is most accurate about a streamline? a. it is a path of fluid particle b. it is a line normal to the velocity vector everywhere c. it is fixed in space in steady flow d. it is defined for non-uniform flow only

1645. Absolute pressure is computed by the equation: a. Pabs = Patm + Pgage c. Pabs = Pgage – Patm b. Pabs = Patm – Pgage d. none of these 1646. All of the following is true about absolute pressure except: a. absolute pressure can be negative b. absolute pressure is the sum of atmospheric and gage pressure c. absolute pressure is measured above the absolute zero d. absolute pressure can never be negative 1647. Under which conditions is mass conserved in fluid flow? a. the fluid is baratropic b. the flow is adiabatic c. the flow is isentropic d. it is always conserved 1648. Under which of the following conditions is Bernoulli’s equation valid? a. all points evaluated must be on the same streamline b. the fluid must be incompressible c. the fluid must be inviscid d. all of the above 1649. Select the correct statement: a. local atmospheric pressure depends upon the deviation of locality only b. local atmospheric pressure is always c. standard atmospheric pressure is the mean d. standard atmospheric pressure is 720 mm Hg abs 1650. Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is zero? a. internal energy is negative b. entropy is non-zero c. specific volume is zero d. vapor pressure is zero 1651. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system? a. positive c. negative b. zero d. positive or negative

1652. How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process? a. adiabatic: heat transfer=0; isentropic: heat transfer ≠ 0 b. adiabatic: heat transfer≠0; isentropic: heat transfer = 0 c. adiabatic: reversible; isentropic: not reversible d. both heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible 1653. Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the most efficient? a. Brayton c. Rankine b. Carnot d. Rankine with reheat 1654. The ideal, reversible Carnot cycle involves processes. What type of processes are they? a. two isothermal and two isentropic b. all isothermal c. two adiabatic and two isentropic d. all adiabatic

four

basic

1655. Which of the following is not an advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle? a. lower equipment cost c. increased boiler life b. increased turbine life d. increased efficiency 1656. The bulk modulus of elasticity, K, for a gas constant temperature T is given by: a. P (p) c. R (T) b. P/p d. none of these 1657. The continuity equation: a. relates mass rate flow along a stream b. relates the relationship between work and energy c. requires that the flow must be laminar d. relates the momentum concept 1658. What is the Arrhenius equation for the rate of a thermally activated process? (A = reaction constant; T = absolute temperature; R = gas constant; Q = activation energy) a. rate = A℮-Q/RT c. rate = A℮Q/RT b. rate = A℮-QRT d. rate = A℮QRT 1659. An adiabatic process in a system is one in which: a. no heat enters or leaves the system b. the system does not work nor is work done on it

c. d.

the temperature of the system remains constant the pressure of the system remains constant

1660. A Carnot engine that operates between the absolute temperature T1 and T2: a. is 100% efficient b. has the maximum efficiency possible under these circumstances c. has an efficiency of T1/T2 d. has an efficiency equal to the actual engine that operates between T1 and T2 1661. Which of the following engines is normally the least efficient? a. gasoline engine c. diesel engine b. gas turbine d. Carnot engine 1662. A refrigerator a. produces coldness b. causes heat to vanish c. removes heat from a region and transport it elsewhere d. changes heat to coldness 1663. Heat is absorbed by the refrigerant in a refrigerator when it: a. melts c. vaporizes b. condenses d. is compressed 1664. How much heat is required to change 100 lbs of ice at 10°F to steam at 212°F? Assume the following: specific heat of ice = 0.5 BTU/lb∙°F heat of fusion of ice = 144 BTU/lb specific heat of water = 1 BTU/lb∙°F heat of vaporization of water = 970 BTU/lb a. 125,000 BTU c. 130,500 BTU b. 150,000 BTU d. 110,500 BTU 1665. What will be the pressure in KPa, at height of 2000 m in an isothermal atmosphere? Assuming T=20°C and Patm = 100 KPa a. 87 c. 79 b. 82 d. 71

1666. What pressure differential, in Pascals, exists at the bottom of a 3 m vertical wall when the temperature inside is 20°C and outside is 20°C. Assume equal pressure at the top. a. 15 c. 9 b. 12 d. 6 1667. The mass of water vapor per unit volume of air. a. absolute humidity c. relative humidity b. specific humidity d. critical humidity 1668. When gas is heated at constant pressure, the process called a. Isometric c. polytropic b. Isobaric d. isothermal 1669. When gas is heated at constant volume, the process is called a. isotropic c. isometric b. isobaric d. adiabatic 1670. An engine cycle containing two adiabatic and two isothermal processes. a. Carnot cycle c. Diesel cycle b. Rankine cycle d. Otto cycle 1671. It is the condition, pressure and temperature at which a liquid and its vapor are indistinguishable. a. dew point c. relative humidity b. absolute humidity d. critical point 1672. States that a heat engine cannot transfer heat from a body to another at higher temperature unless external energy is supplied to the engine. a. first law of thermodynamics b. Planck’s law c. second law of thermodynamics d. third law of thermodynamics 1673. Entropy is the measure of a. the change in enthalpy of a system b. randomless or disorder c. the internal energy of a gas d. the heat capacity of a substance

1674. The amount of heat passing through a body of 1m² crosssection and 1m thick in 1 hour at a temperature difference of 1°C. a. quantity of heat c. latent heat of solid b. specific heat d. thermal conductivity 1675. This heated air, being lighter, rises house or is forced through by a fan a. vacuum c. b. vapor d.

and circulates through the called steam forced convection

1676. Is one whose pressure is higher that the saturation pressure corresponding to its temperature. a. compressed gas c. combustion b. compressed liquid d. expansion ratio 1677. Is one whose temperature is below the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure. a. sub-cooled liquid c. compression b. condensation d. constant volume process 1678. It is a chart on which enthalpy is the ordinate and entropy is the abscissa. a. Ericson cycle c. Charles’ law b. Mollier chart d. Bernoulli’s chart 1679. Is one with rigid boundaries exchanging neither energy nor mass with its surroundings. a. entropy c. isolated system b. ideal gas d. heat 1680. Which of the following give the optimum intermediate pressure in case of two stage compression? a. p4 = (p1 +p2)/2 c. p2 = √p1p2 b. p3 = p1 +(p1+p2)/2 d. p = p1 + √(p1² +p3²) 1681. In the polytropic process we have the PVⁿ= constant, if the value of n is infinitely large, the process is called? a. constant pressure process b. constant temperature process c. adiabatic process d. constant volume process

1682. The thermodynamic cycle used in a thermal power plant is a. Ericsson c. Carnot b. Brayton d. Rankine 1683. For the same heat input and the same compression ratio a. both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient b. Otto cycle is less efficient compared to Diesel cycle c. efficiency depends mainly on working substance d. none of the above 1684. The change in enthalpy for small temperature change, ΔT, for an ideal gas is given by the relation a. ΔH = CU ΔT c. ΔH = (C/CV) ΔT b. ΔH = CP ΔT d. ΔH = CP ΔT 1685. Entropy, for reversible flow, is given by the relation a. dS = du + pd (1/p) c. S = u +pVs b. dS = TdqH d. dS = dqH/t 1686. In a then a. b.

polytropic process, if the work done in heat unit is w, the amount of heat transferred is given by W c. (τ - 1)W/(n – τ) ΤW d. (τ –n)W/(τ –1)

1687. A heat exchange process wherein the product of pressure and volume remains constant is called a. heat exchange process c. throttling process b. isentropic process d. hyperbolic process 1688. The S.I. unit for pressure is a. mm of water column b. Pascal

c. dynes/cm² d. all of the above

1689. Sterling cycle has a. two isothermal and two adiabatic process b. two adiabatic and two isentropic process c. two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes d. two isothermal and two constant volume processes 1690. Brayton cycle has a. two isentropic and two constant volume processes

b. c. d.

two isentropic and two constant pressure processes one constant pressure, one constant volume, two adiabatic processes two isothermal, a constant volume and a constant pressure processes

1691. Diesel cycle consists of a. isentropic, isothermal, constant volume, constant pressure processes b. two constant volume, one constant pressure, one isothermal process c. two isotropic, one constant volume, one constant pressure process d. two constant pressure, one constant volume, one isentropic process 1692. Ericsson cycle has a. two isothermal and two constant volume processes b. two isothermal and two isentropic process c. two adiabatic, constant volume and constant pressure process d. two isothermal and two constant pressure processes 1693. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same adiabatic compression ratio and work output because a. Otto cycle is highly efficient b. Brayton cycle is less efficient c. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only d. large volume of low pressure air cannot be efficiently handled in reciprocating engines 1694. Which cycle is generally used for gas turbines? a. Otto cycle c. Dual cycle b. Rankine cycle d. Brayton cycle 1695. The constant pressure gas turbine works on the principle of a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle b. Bell – Coleman cycle d. Brayton cycle

1696. Which of the following provides the basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature? a. first law of thermodynamics b. second law of thermodynamics c. third law of thermodynamics d. zeroth law of thermodynamics 1697. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic processes are a. dynamic process c. quasi-static process b. stable process d. static process 1698. Isentropic flow is a. perfect gas flow b. irreversible adiabatic flow c. ideal fluid flow d. reversible adiabatic flow 1699. Exhaust gases from an engine possess a. solar energy c. chemical energy b. kinetic energy d. stored energy 1700. The extension and compression of helical spring is an example of a. isothermal cycle c. irreversible process b. adiabatic process d. reversible process 1701. Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free expansion process? a. heat supplied = zero b. heat rejected = zero c. work done = zero d. change in temperature = zero 1702. An ideal engine absorbs heat a temperature of 127 °C and exhaust heat at a temperature of 77 °C. Its efficiency will be a. 50% c. (127-77)/127 % b. 33% d. 13% 1703. The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure at which a. the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium b. the liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium

c. d.

the solid, liquid and the gaseous phases are in equilibrium the solid does not melt, liquid does not boil and the gas does not condensate

1704. According to Clausius Inequality statement for any cycle of process, reversible or irreversible a. cyclic δQ/T > 0 c. cyclic δQ/T = 0 b. cyclic δQ/T < 0 d. cyclic δQ/T ≤ 0 1705. A heat engine has the following specifications: Power developed 50 kW Fuel burned per hour 3 kg Heating value of fuel 75,000 kJ per kg Temperature limits 627°C and 27°C This engine is a. real c. costly b. impossible d. cheaper 1706. A heat engine is supplying heat at the rate of 30,000 J/s and gives an output of 9 kW. The thermal efficiency of the engine is a. 43% c. 55% b. 50% d. 30% 1707. According to Clausius statement, a. heat flows from hot substance to cold substance b. heat flows from hot substance to cold substance, unaided c. heat can flow from cold substance to hot substance with the aid of external work d. both (b) and (c) 1708. Select the cycle that consists of two isothermal and constant volume process. a. Joule cycle c. Otto cycle b. Diesel cycle d. Ericsson cycle 1709. “It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle and receives a given quantity of heat from a high temperature body and equal amount of work” The above statement is known as

a. b.

Gay Lussac law Kinetic theory

c. Kelvin – Planck law d. Joule – Thomson law

1710. Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers? a. turbo prop c. ramjet b. turbojet d. pulsejet 1711. In a a. b. c. d.

diesel engine, fuel is injected at the beginning of compression stroke before the end of compression stroke at the end of compression stroke after the end of compression stroke

1712. Which is not correct for calculating air standard efficiency? a. all processes are reversible b. specific heat remains unchanged at all temperature c. no account of the mechanism of heat transfer is considered d. gases dissociate at higher temperature 1713. A Bell – Coleman cycle is a reversed a. Stirling cycle c. Joule cycle b. Brayton cycle d. Carnot cycle 1714. According to Prettlier Thomson effect a. it is possible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle and receives a given quantity of heat from a high temperature body and does equal amount of work b. it is possible to construct a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a cooler body to hotter body c. heat can be converted into work d. work can’t be converted into heat 1715. A control volume refers to a. a specified mass b. a reversible process

c. an isolated system d. a fixed region in space

1716. The Beattie – Bridgeman equation of state is quite accurate in cases of a. all pressures above atmospheric pressures b. densities less than about 0.8 times the critical density c. near critical temperature

d.

near critical pressure

1717. Which of the following statement about Van der Waal’s equation is correct? a. it is valid for all pressure and temperature b. it represents a straight line on pv versus v plot c. it has three roots of identical value at the critical point d. the equation is valid for diatomic gases only 1718. A hydrometer scale for measuring the relative density (specific gravity) of liquids: a. Beckman scale c. Baume scale b. Beaufort scale d. Buckley scale 1719. Energy can neither be destroyed nor created, law of: a. none of these b. conservation of energy c. conservation of momentum d. conservation of mass 1720. A sealed tank contains 27oC at a pressure of 2 atm. If the temperature increases to 100oC the pressure inside the tank will be: a. 4.15 atm. c. 1.60 atm. b. 0.54 atm. d. 2.49 atm. 1721. The negative sign is for a gage reading called: a. transmission of pressure c. vapor pressure b. vacuum pressure d. pressure head 1722. Total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any suction in a pipeline is a function of: a. pressure and velocity b. flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy c. pressure, density and velocity d. pressure, velocity and volume 1723. Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature: a. combustion c. expansion ratio b. compression liquid d. compressed gas

1724. An instrument which is used to determine the specific gravity of a substance a. substance c. hydrometer b. throttling calorimeter d. odometer 1725. Assuming that the barometer reads 760 mm Hg, what is the absolute pressure for 90 cm Hg gage? a. 74.213 kPa c. 221.24 kPa b. 48 kPa d. 358 kPa 1726. During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is TRUE about the change in entropy? a. it is temperature dependent b. it is always less than zero c. it is always zero d. it is always greater than zero 1727. An instrument which used to measure small pressure a. venture c. orifice b. aneroid d. manometer 1728. The stress in a 90 cm. diameter pipe having a wall thickness of 9.5 cm. and a static head of 70 m of water is: a. 3.25 MPa c. 32.5 MPa b. 32.5 Kpa d. 325 Kpa 1729. An open chamber rests on the ocean floor in 49 cm. of sea water (sp. gr. = 1.03) What air pressure in Kpa must be maintained inside to exclude water: a. 495.1 Kpa c. 500.5 KPa b. 490.5 Kpa d. 496.7 Kpa 1730. For a heat engine operating between two temperatures (T 2 > T1), what is the maximum efficiency attainable? a. 1 – T1 /T2 c. 1 – T2 / T1 b. T1 / T 2 d. 1 – (T1)2 / T2 1731. When property changes cease, the bodies are said to be in: a. change in volume c. slug b. triple point d. thermal equilibrium

1732. A device produces 37.5 joules per cycle. There is one power stroke per cycle. Calculate the power output if the device is run at 45 rpm. a. 4.69 W c. 27.56W b. 28.125 W d. 14.063 W 1733. What height of mercury column is equivalent to a pressure of 100 psig? Density of mercury is 848 lb/ft3. a. 14 ft c. 12 ft b. 17 ft d. 11 ft 1734. A piston and cylinder arrangement contains saturated water vapor at 110 deg C. The vapor is compressed in a reversible, adiabatic process until the pressure is 1.6 MPa. What is the work done by the system per kilogram of water? a. –330 KJ/kg c. –509 KJ/kg b. –637 KJ/kg d. –432 KJ/kg 1735. What is the efficiency of an Otto cycle with a compression ratio of 6:1? The gas used is air: a. 0.512 c. 0.800 b. 0.488 d. 0.167 1736. During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is TRUE about the change in entropy: a. it is temperature dependent b. it is always less than zero c. it is always zero d. it is always greater than zero 1737. One leg of mercury U-tube manometer is connected to a pipe containing water under a gage pressure of 14.2 lb/in 2. The mercury in this leg stands 20 in. below the water. What is the height of mercury in the other leg which is open to the air? Specify gravity of mercury is 13.6? a. 3.6 ft c. 3.2 ft b. 1.5 ft d. 2.6 ft 1738. Five moles of water vapor at 100 degree C and 1 atmosphere are compressed isobarically to from liquid at 100 degree C. The process is reversible and the ideal gas laws apply. Compute the work, in joules, done on the system. a. 10.5 MJ c. 6 MJ b. 15 MJ d. 6 kJ

1739. Gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands from s volume of 0.40 m3 at a constant pressure of 200 KPa. Find the work done on the system. a. 16 KJ c. 14 KJ b. 10 KJ d. 12 KJ 1740. For a heat engine operating between two temperature (T2>T1), what is the maximum efficiency attainable? 1 

a. b.

T 1 T 2

T 1 T 2

c.

1

d. 1 

T 2 T 1 (T )² 1 T 2

1741. A 20 liter sample of gas exerts a pressure of 1 atm. At 25 deg C. If its is expanded into a 40-liter vessel that is held at 100 deg C, what will be its final pressure? a. 0.50 atm. c. 0.315 atm. b. 1.0 atm. d. 0.63 atm. 1742. A 36 inch petcock is anchored by a thrust block at a point where the flow makes a 20 degree change in direction. The water flow rate is 185 ft/sec. The water pressure is 2,880 lb/ft2 everywhere in the penstock. What is the resultant force on the thrust block? a. 8,900 lb c. 2,800 lb b. 29,800 lb d. 120,300 lb 1743. As cylinder and piston arrangement contains saturated water vapor at 110 degree C. The vapor is compresses in a reversible adiabatic process until the pressure is 1.6 MPa. Find the work done by the system per kilogram of water: a. –432 kJ/kg c. –300 kJ/kg b. –637 kJ/kg d. –509 kJ/kg 1744. A reversible thermodynamic system is made of follow the Carnot cycle between the temperature limits of 650 degree F, and 150 degree F. 300 BTU of heat are supplied per cycle to the system. What is the change in entropy during the heat addition? a. 0.27 BTU/degree R c. 1.30 BTU/degree R

b.

0.46 BTU/degree R

d. 0.75 BTU/degree R

1745. A mercury barometer at the base of Mt. Makiling reads 654 mm and at the same time another barometer at the top of the mountain reads 480 mm. Assuming sp. weight of air to be constant at 12N/m3. What is the approximate height of Mt. Makiling? a. 1,934.5 m c. 4,168.2 m b. 3,508.4 m d. 2,647.7 m 1746. In a diesel engine, the cylinder compresses air from approximately standard pressure and temperature to about one-sixteenth the original volume and a pressure of about 50 atm. What is the temperature of the compressed air? a. 853 K c. 893 K b. 863 K d. 878 K 1747. If atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60°F at sea level, what is the pressure at 12,000 feet altitude if the air is compressed isothermally? a. 11.64 psia c. 19.54 psia b. 9.53 psia d. 19.63 psia 1748. An ideal gas in a cylinder is compressed adiabatically to one third its original volume. During the process 45 J of work is done on the gas by the compressing agent. By how much did the internal energy of the gas change in the process? a. 55 J c. 40 J b. 50 J d. 45 J 1749. Which of the following relationships is true for an ideal gas going through a reversible adiabatic process? a. cvdT + pdV = 0 c. cpdT + pdV = 0 b. cvdT – Vdp = 0 d. du + dh = ds 1750. Air at 400°F and 50 psia is compressed isothermally to onetenth of its original volume, What is the final pressure? a. 100 psia c. 375 psia b. 1000 psia d. 500 psia 1751. A gas is compressed in a reversible process from 15 psia and 68°F to 75 psia. If the compression process follows a polytropic relationship with n = 1.4, what work is done by the gas during the compression?

a. b.

1.7 x 106 ft-lb/pmole –1.7 x 106 ft-lb/pmole

c. –1.2 x 106 ft-lb/pmole d. 1.2 x 106 ft-lb/pmole

1752. For which type of process does the equation dQ = TdS hold? a. iothermal c. reversible b. isometric d. irreversible 1753. Which process does not belong to Carnot cycle process? a. Isentropic compression b. Irreversible adiabatic compression c. Reversible adiabatic expansion d. Constant temperature adding heat 1754. What is the sea level (g = 32.2 ft/sec 2) specific weight (lb/ft3) of liquid with density of 58.3 lbm/ft3? a. 58.3 lbm/ft3 c. 64.3 lbm/ft3 b. 48.3 lbm/ft3 d. 25.3 lbm/ft3 1755. An instrument use to measure pressure by using heightpressure relationship. a. hdrometer c. manometer b. hygrometer d. siphon 1756. A tank has gauge pressure of 500mmHg vacuum. Find the pressure in kPa gauge? Use a conversion factor from mmHg to kPa (pascal = N/m2) is 133.4. a. 66.7 kPa c. –66.7 kPa b. 70 kPa d. 80 kPa 1757. A Carnot cycle operates at maximum thermal efficiency. This is one of the useful statement in the second law of thermodynamics. a. True c. Partly False b. False d. Do not follow 1758. A gas has a density of 0.094 lbm/ft³ at 100 and 2 atm. What pressure is needed to change the density to 0.270 lbm/ft³ at 250F? a. 5.28 atm c. 7.28 atm b. 6.28 atm d. 8.28 atm 1759. Find the charge in internal energy of 10 lbm of oxygen gas when the temperature changes from 100 0F to 1200F, Cv = 0.157 BTU/lbm-OR.

a. b.

23.55 BTU 15.70 BTU

c. 14.63 BTU d. 10.23 BTU

1760. 4 lbm/sec of steam enter a turbine with velocity of 65ft/sec and enthalpy of 1350 BTU/lbm. The steam enter the condenser after being expanded to 1075 BTU/lbm and 125 ft/sec. The total heat loss from the turbine casing is 50 BTU/sec. What power is generated by the turbine? a. 1400 hp c. 1500 hp b. 1600 hp d. 1700 hp 1761. The amount of heat required to raised the temperature of 2 kg of iron (sp.heat = 0.115 kcal/kg- 0C) from 270C to 1000C is: a. 16.8 kcal c. 15.8 kcal b. 18.6 kcal d. 14.8 kcal 1762. What is the maximum height that a vacuum pump can lift 60 0 water if the atmospheric pressure is 14.6 psia and local gravity is 28 ft/sec2? a. 11.64 psia c. 19.54 psia b. 9.53 psia d. 19.63 psia 1763. Oil (density of 55 lbm/ft3) flows a 1 ft/sec through a 1-inch diameter pipe. A 0.2-inch diameter orifice (Cf= 0.6) is installed. What is the indicated pressure drop? a. 1682.7 lbf/ft2 c. 2082.7 lbf/ft2 2 b. 1482.7 lbf/ft d. 1882.7 lbf/ft2 1764. No heat can be produced without any losses of heat. This is one of the useful statement of the second law of thermodynamics. a. true c partly false b. partly true d. false 1765. The draft of a ship with 4700 ft2 of water line cross-section is 12 feet. What cargo load is required to increase the draft 3 inches? Assume that sea water has a density of 64.0 lbm/ft3. a. 85,400 lbm c. 3,609,600 lbm b. 3,684,800 lbm d. 75,200 lbm

1766. With what terminal velocity will an air bubble 1 mm in diameter rise in a liquid of viscosity 150 cp and density 0.90 gram/cc? Pair = 0.00129 gram/cc a. 0.42 cm/sec c. 0.32 cm/sec b. 0.54 cm/sec d. 0.24 cm/sec 1767. A turbine uses 100,000 lbm/hr of steam which enter with an enthalpy of 1400 BTU/lbm and essentially zero entrance velocity. 10,000 horsepower are developed. The exit velocity of the steam is 500 fps. Expansion is adiabatic. What is the exit enthalpy? a. 1240.8 BTU/lbm c. 1140.5 BTU/lbm b. 1540.5 BTU/lbm d. 1680.4 BTU/lbm 1768. How many BTU’s are needed to isothermally compress 4 lbm of 240° air twice the original pressure? a. –150 BTU c. +160 BTU b. +140 BTU d. –132 BTU 1769. What is the heat flow when 3 lbm of nitrogen undergo a closed system isothermal process at 300°F from an initial volume of 40 cubic feet to final volume of 22.5 cubic feet? a. 70 BTU c. 80 BTU b. –72 BTU d. –93 BTU 1770. What is the specific enthalpy of initially 80°F and to which 240 BTU a. 115 BTU/lb c. b. 120 BTU/lb d.

4 lbs of water, which is are added? 108 BTU/lb 150 BTU/lb

1771. If atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60F at sea-level, what is the pressure at 12,000 feet altitude if the air is compressed adiabatically? a. 29.62 psia c. 9.36 psia b. 9.26 psia d. 39.36 psia 1772. If the atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60°F at sea level, what is the pressure at 12,000 feet altitude if the air is compressed isothermally? a. 11.64 psia c. 15.54 psia b. 9.53 psia d. 18.63 psia 1773. The entrance enthalpy, velocity, and height of a 5 lbm/sec system are 1000 BTU/lbm, 100 ft/sec, and 100 feet

respectively. 50 BTU/sec are lost to the surroundings. The exit enthalpy, velocity and height are 1020 BTU/lbm, 10 ft/sec and 0 feet respectively. What is the input horsepower? a. 20 c. 210.8 b. 250 d. 300 1774. Gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.1 m3 at a constant pressure of 150 kPa. Calculate the work done by the system. a. 14 kJ c. 9 kJ b. 12 kJ d. 15 kJ 1775. The barometer reads 29.0 inches or mercury. What s the absolute pressure if a vacuum gage reads 9.5 psi? a. 4.74 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 474 lbf/in2 (psi) b. 47.4 lbf/in2 (psi) d. 474.4 lbf/in2 (psi) 1776. Assuming atmospheric conditions at sea level are 14.7 psia and 59°F. What is the expected pressure at 35,000 feet altitude? Assume the temperature decreases 3.5°F per 1,000 feet altitude. a. 6.789 psia c. 3.456 psia b. 4.567 psia d. 5.678 psia 1777. Two liquids enter a mixing chamber and are discharged at 800F at the rate of 50 gal/min. Liquid A enter at 140 0F with a specific heat of 10 BTU/gal- 0F. Liquid B enters at 65 0F with specific heat of 8.33 BTU/gal-0F. What is the volume flow for liquid B? a. 63.38 gal/min c. 41.38 gal/min b. 32.38 gal/min d. 74.38 gal/min 1778. Two liquids enter a mixing chamber and are discharged at 80°F at the rate of 50 gal/min. Liquid A enters at 140°F with a specific heat of 10 BTU/gal-°F. What is the specific heat of the mixture? a. 4.12 Btu/gal-°F c. 8.62 BTU/gal-°F b. 5.32 BTU/gal-°F d. 6.02 BTU/gal-°F 1779. A Carnot machine operates between the hot reservoir at 200°C and a cold reservoir at 20°C. When operated as an

engine it receives 1000 kJ/kg. Find the coefficient of performance (COP) when used as refrigerator. a. 1.77 c. 1.99 b. 1.63 d. 2.63 1780. To what height will a barometer column rise if the atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia and 68°F and the barometer fluid is water? a. 676.7 inches c. 476.7 inches b. 576.7 inches d. 376.7 inches 1781. One kg of air 1.2 kg/sq.cm at 30°C is compressed according to the law of PV where C = 1.36 until its volume is 0.5 cu.m. If it is compressed isothermally, what will be the % of saving work? a. 7.1% c. 6.9% b. 6.6% d. 7.0% 1782. An artificial satellite, constructed of aluminum, encircles the earth at a speed of 9,000 m/sec. Find the ratio of kinetic energy to the energy required to raise its temperature by 600C. The melting point of aluminum is 660. Assume constant specific heat capacity of 0.2 cal/g-C. a. 147.5 c. 337.5 b. 257.5 d. 538.7 1783. Helium ( R=0.468 BTU/lbm-R) is compressed isothermally from 14.7 psia and 68F. the compression ratio is 4. Calculate the work done by the gas in BTU/lbm. a. –564 c. –567 b. –375 d. –364 1784. A tank contains 3 cubic feet of 120 psig air at 80F. How many tires of volume 1.2 ft³ can be inflated to 28 psig at 80F. a. 8 c. 5 b. 4 d. 3 1785. A quantity of air 180F originally occupies 20 ft³ at 30 psig. The gas is compressed reversibly and adiabatically to 180 psig. What is the heat flow? a. 200 BTU c. 100 BTU b. 120 cal d. 0

1786. What horsepower is required isothermally compress 800ft 3 of air per minute from 14.7 psia to 120 psia? a. 100 hp c. 115 hp b. 108 hp d. 150 hp 1787. What is the pressure 8000 feet below the surface of the ocean? Neglect compressibility. a. 312,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) c. 912,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) b. 512,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) d. 712,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) 1788. What is the sea level (g = (lbf/ft3) of liquid with density of a. 58.3 lbm/ft3 b. 43.3 lbm/ft3

32.2 ft/sec 2) specific weight 58.3 lbm/ft3? c. 64.3 lbm/ft3 d. 25.3 lbm/ft3

1789. A 50 horsepower motor (75% efficient) drives a 900-rpm pump (90% efficient) that moves 5 ft3/sec of gasoline (SG = 0.728). What is the specific speed? a. 1381 c. 1679 b. 1466 d. 1569 1790. What is the pressure 8,000 feet below the surface of the ocean? Neglect compressibility. a. 512,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) c. 312,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) b. 712,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) d. 912,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) 1791. A Carnot machine operates between the hot reservoir at 2000C and a cold reservoir at 20 0C. When operated as an engine it receives 1000KJ/kg. Find the coefficient of performance (COP) when used as heat pump. a. 4.1 c. 2.63 b. 2.95 d. 2.88 1792. To what height will a barometer column rise if the atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia and 68 0F and the barometer fluid is ethyl alcohol? a. 157.9 inches c. 257.9 inches b. 359.9 inches d. 457.9 inches 1793. Assuming atmospheric conditions at sea level 14.7 psia and 590F. what is the expected 35,000 feet altitude? Assume the temperature decreases 3.5 0F per 1000 feet altitude.

a. b.

3.456 psia 4.567 psia

c. 5.678 psia d. 6.789 psia

1794. If atmosphere air is 14.7 psia and 60 0F at sea level. What is the pressure at 12,000 feet altitude if the air is compressed isothermally? a. 11.64 psia c. 15.54 psia b. 9.53 psia d. 18.63 psia 1795. The efficiency of an Otto cycle is 50% and k = 1.50. what is the compression ratio? a. 2 c. ½ b. 4 d. ¼ 1796. A quality of air at 1800F originally occupies 20ft 3 at 30 psig. The gas is compressed reversibly and adiabatically to 180 psig. What is the heat flow? a. 200BTU c. BTU b. cal d. 0 1797. The difference between stagnation and static pressures in pilot/static tube is 2.0 inch Hg. What is the relative velocity in air at 700F and 14.7 psia? a. 348.7 ft/sec c. 444.7 ft/sec b. 333.7 ft/sec d. 258.7 ft/sec 1798. What is the specific enthalpy of 4 lbs of water, which is initially at 800F and to which 240 BTU are added? a. 115 BTU/lb c. 108 BTU/lb b. 120 BTU/lb d. 150 BTU/lb 1799. Determine the specific gravity of carbon dioxide (150 0F , 20 psia) Using STP air as a reference. a. 1.7 c. 1.85 b. 1.8 d. 1.87 1800. What of air a. b.

horsepower is required to per minute from 14.7 psia 100 hp 108 hp

isothermally compress 800ft 3 to 120 psia? c. 115 hp d. 150hp

1801. Helium (R = 0.4968 BTU/lbm-0R) is compress isothermally from 14.7 psia and 68 0F. The compression ratio is 4. Calculate the work done by the gas. a. –364 BTU c. –584 BTU/lbm b. –357 BTU/lbm d. –537 BTU/lbm 1802. A quantity of gas occupies 1.2 cubic feet at STP. The gas is allowed to expand to 1.5 cubic feet and 15psia. What is the new temperature? a. 4500R c. 6280R b. 5900R d. 7840R 1803. A motorist equips his automobile tires with a relief-type valve so that the pressure inside the tire never will exceed 240 kPa (gage). He starts a trip with a pressure of 200 kPa (gage). He starts a trip with a pressure of 200 kPA (gage) and a temperature of 230C in the tires. During the long drive, the temperature of the air in the tires reaches 83 0C. each tire contains 0.11 kg of air. Determine the mass of air escaping each tire. a. 6.39 x 10-3 kg c. 2.59 x10–10 kg b. 6.39 x 10–3 kg d. 2.59 x 10-5 kg 1804. Oil (density of 55 lbm/ft3) flows at 1 ft/sec through a 1 inchdiameter pipe. A 0.2 inch diameter orifice (C=0.6) is installed. What is the indicated pressure drop? a. 1,428.7 lbf/ft2 c. 1,882.7 lbf/ft2 b. 1652.7 lbf/ft2 d. 2,082.7 lbf/ft2 1805. A scuba diver at depth of 200 feet notices the bubbles he exhales have diameter of ½ inch. Assume the tension and water temperature remain relatively constant. What is the pressure on the bubble at a depth of 400 feet? a. 155.0 lbf/in2 (psia) c. 177.0 lbf/in2 (psia) 2 b. 188.0 lbf/in (psia) d. 166.0 lbf/in2 (psia) 1806. A Scuba diver at a depth of 200 feet notices the bubbles he exhales have diameter of ½ inch. Assume the tension and water temperature remains relatively constant what is the pressure on the bubble? a. 404.40 9 (psia) c. 303.40 psia b. 101.40 psia d. 202.40 psia

1807. To what height will a barometer column rise if the atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia and 68 0F and the barometer fluid is ethyl alcohol? a. 157.9 inches c. 457.9 inches b. 357.9 inches d. 257.9 inches