Pipe Cns 04

POWER AND INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING INSTRUCTION: FAMILIARIZE THE FOLLOWING This is a type of reaction turbine usually with typical spiral water enters the runner radially at its outer periphery direction (imparting energy to the runner) while flowing along shaped profiles to discharge axially. It is the most widely hydraulic turbine for modern power generation purposes. a. Pelton Turbine c. Turgo Turbine b. Francis Turbine d. Kaplan Turbine

casing where and changes the complexused type of

ANSWER: (B)Francis Turbine It is an expanding tube connecting the outlet passage of a turbine with the tail water. a. Draft Tube c. Penstock b. Forebay d. Surge Chamber ANSWER: (A)Draft Tube It is a hydroelectric plant in which excess water is pumped to an elevated space during off-peak period and the stored water will be used to drive hydraulic turbines during the peak period to meet the peak demand. a. Run-of-River Plant c. Pumped Storage Plant b. Storage Plant d. None of the above ANSWER: (c) Pumped Storage Plant It is a channel that conducts water away from the turbine. a. Headrace Pipe c. Penstock b. Forebay d. Tailrace ANSWER: (D) Tailrace This is a grid or screen composed of parallel bars to catch floating debris. It prevents leaves, branches, and other water contaminants from entering the penstock. a. Surge tank c. Butterfly valve b. Trash Rack d. Weir ANSWER: (B) Trash Rack It is the term used that refers to water in the reservoir. a. Headwater c. Tailwater b. Discharge d. Stored water ANSWER: (A) Headwater This is a propeller- type reaction turbine with both adjustable guide vanes and runner blades. a. Kaplan Turbine c. Turgo Turbine b. Pelton Turbine d. Cross-flow ANSWER: (A) Kaplan Turbine

It is basically hydroelectric power utilizing the difference in elevation between high and low tide to produce energy. a. Water power c. Fluid Power b. Tidal Power d. Wave Power ANSWER: (B) Tidal Power The power output of this plant depends on the water flow in the river; at low river flows the output decreases accordingly. a. Pumped Storage Plant c. Storage Plant b. Run-of-River Plant d. All of the above ANSWER: (B) Run-of-River Plant The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam. a. Forebay c. Penstock b. Draft tube d. Tailrace ANSWER: (C) Penstock A kind of fluid flow where in the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do not cross or intersect. a. Turbulent flow c. Critical flow b. Laminar flow d. Steady flow ANSWER: (B) Laminar Flow It conducts the water around the turbine. a. Spiral casing ` b. Draft tube

c. Wicket gate d. Governor

ANSWER: (A) Spiral Casing These are movable vertical vanes that are actuated by the governor to control the flow of water and therefore the energy supplied to the runner. a. Spillway c. Headrace pipe b. Runner d. Wicket gate ANSWER: (D) Wicket gate The speed of a hypothetical model turbine having the same configuration as the actual turbine, when the model would be of the proper size to develop 1 hp at a head of 1 ft. a. Synchronous speed c. Runaway speed b. Specific speed d. Turbine speed ANSWER: (B) Specific speed The difference in elevation between the headwater and the tailwater or tailrace. a. Dynamic head c. Gross head b. Net head d. Effective head ANSWER: (C) Gross Head

The ratio of the effective head to the gross head. a. Mechanical efficiency b. Penstock efficiency

c. Hydraulic efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency

ANSWER: (B) Penstock Efficiency The ratio of the head utilized to the effective head. a. Mechanical efficiency c. Hydraulic efficiency b. Penstock efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency ANSWER: (C) Hydraulic effenciency Heads between 70 and 800 ft generally indicate this type of turbine. a. Impulse turbine c. Reaction turbine b. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine ANSWER: (C) Reaction Turbine Heads below about 70 ft call for this type of turbine. a. Impulse turbine c. Reaction turbine b. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine ANSWER: (B) Propeller turbine The functions of this hydraulic turbine part are: (1) It enables the turbine to be set above the tailwater level without losing any head thereby. and (2) It reduces the head loss at submerged discharge to increase the net head available to the turbine runner. a. Spiral casing c. Wicket gate b. Draft tube d. Butterfly valve ANSWER: (B) Draft Tube It is a tank with free surface provided at the transition from the lowpressure headrace or tunnel to the penstock. It protects the headrace pipe or tunnel from excessive changes in pressure and supplying or storing water as required. a. Surge tank c. Butterfly valve b. Draft tube d. Spillway ANSWER: (A)Surge tank The rotating part of the turbine where the water imparts its energy onto the turbine shaft. a. Runner c. Impeller b. Flywheel d. Lobe ANSWER: (A) Runner The formation and collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when the pump inlet suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the liquid is called a. Priming c. Foaming b. Cavitation d. Net positive suction head ANSWER: (B) Cavitation

A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of the oil and will help determine how long oil will flow at a given temperature is known as ________________. a. Pour point c. Relative density b. Flash Point d. Viscosity ANSWER: (D) Viscosity A flow at low Reynold’s number with smooth steam lines and shear and conduction effects owing entirely to the fluids molecular viscosity and conductivity. a. Turbulent c. Critical b. Laminar d. Non-viscous ANSWER: (B) Laminar The fact that the buoyant force on a floating object is equal to the weight of displaced liquid is known as a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Archimedes’ principle b. Continuity equation d. Law of Conservation of mass ANSWER: (C) Archimedes’ principle The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to a. add energy to the flow c. add mass to the flow b. extract energy from the flow d. none of the above ANSWER: (B) extract energy from the flow It connects the turbine outlet to the tailwater so that the turbine can be set above the tailwater level. a. draft tube c surge chamber b. penstock d. spillway ANSWER: (A) draft tube It provides an efficient and safe means of releasing flow water that exceeds the design capacity of the dam. a. draft tube c. surge chamber b. penstock d. spillway ANSWER: (d) spillway The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given head with no losses in the pump is called: a. brake power c. indicated power b. hydraulic power d. none of the above ANSWER: (B)hydraulic Power The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and maximum at the center because of the a. velocity effect c. viscous effect b. temperature effect d. none of the above ANSWER: (C) Viscous effect

The work termed for pumps, compressors, fans and blowers is negative since work a. done by the fluid c. done on the fluid b. rejected by the fluid d. none of the above ANSWER: (C) done ON the fluid (-) This is a type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water the turbine will start moving. a. Steam turbine c. Reaction turbine b. Francis turbine d. Pelton wheel turbine ANSWER: (D) Pelton wheel turbine A device used to prevent water hammer in turbine. a. Governor c. guard b. Surge tank d. wicket gate ANSWER: (B) Surge Tank This is a vent or hole in the earth’s surface usually in volcanic region, from which steam, gaseous vapors, or hot gases issue. a. Magma c. Fumarole b. Geyser d. Fault ANSWER: (C) Fumarole The typical depth of a geothermal production well in meters. a. 1000 c. 1500 b. 3000 d. 4000 ANSWER: (B) 3000 A wind energy mechanical or a. b.

system transforms the ______________________ of the wind into electrical energy that can be harnessed for practical use. Potential Energy c. Internal Energy Heat Energy d. Kinetic Energy

ANSWER: (D) Kinetic Energy It is the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean waters. a. Tide range c. Wave b. Tide d. Water current ANSWER: (B) Tide The power available in the wind is proportional to the ________________ of its speed. a. Cube c. Square b. Fourth Power d. All of the above ANSWER: (A) Cube

It is the maximum tidal range. a. Neap tides b. Ebb tide

c. Spring tide d. Tidal wave

ANSWER: (C) Spring Tide Natural gas is considered _______________ when it is almost pure methane. a. Dry c. Wet b. Saturated d. Superheated ANSWER: (A) Dry In this type of reactor, the water is heated by the nuclear fuel and boils to steam directly into the reactor vessel. It is then piped directly to the turbine. The turbine spins, driving the electrical generator, producing electricity. a. Heavy Water Reactor c. Boiling Water Reactor b. Pressurized Water Reactor d. All of the above ANSWER: (C) Boiling Water Reactor It is an air pollution control device that works by electrically charging the particles of fly ash in the flue gas and collecting them by attraction to charged metal plates. a. Wet scrubber c. Electrostatic Precipitator b. Bag houses

d. Cyclone Separator

ANSWER: (C) Electrostatic Precipitator This nuclear reactor component, which is made up of carbon and beryllium, slows down the fast neutrons that are born during the fission process. a. Control Rods c. Moderator b. Coolant d. Reflector ANSWER: (C) Moderator These boron coated steel rods are used to regulate the rate of fission chain reaction. They are withdrawn from the core to start the chain reaction and inserted all the way into the core to stop it. a. Control Rods c. Moderator b. Coolant d. Reflector ANSWER: (A) Control Rods In general usage, the term “combined cycle power plant” describes the combination of a gas turbine generator(s) (____________________ cycle) with turbine exhaust waste boiler(s) and steam turbine generator(s) (Rankine cycle) for the production of electrical power. a. Diesel Cycle c. Otto Cycle b. Reheat Cycle d. Brayton Cycle ANSWER: (D) Brayton Cycle

Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed when layers of buried plants and animals are exposed to intense heat and pressure. It has been dubbed as the “fuel of the future” or “green fuel” and comprises mainly of _________________. a. Propane c. Butane b. Ethane d. Methane ANSWER: (D) Methane It is the coal ash that exits a combustion chamber in the flue gas and is captured by air pollution control equipment such as electrostatic precipitators, baghouses, and wet scrubbers. a. Ash c. Bottoming Ash b. Fly Ash d. Refuse ANSWER: (B) Fly Ash Also known as value of less a. b.

brown coal, it is the lowest-rank solid coal with a calorific than 8,300 Btu/lb on a moist mineral-matter free basis. Bituminous coal c. Peat Lignite d. Anthracite

ANSWER: (B) Lignite It means using the same energy source for more than one purpose, such as using the waste heat from an engine for space heating. a. Superposing c. Topping b. Cogeneration d. Combined Cycle Plant ANSWER: (B) Cogeneration The minimum amount of air required for the complete combustion of fuel. a. Stoichiometric Air c. Excess Air b. Actual Air d. Percentage excess air ANSWER: (A) Stoichiometric Air The device or instrument used for measuring the calorific value of a unit mass of fuel is called: a. calorimeter c. salinometer b. pyrometer d. thermometer ANSWER: (A) Calorimeter When water (H2O) in the products of combustion is in the vapor or gaseous form, the heating value is known as: a. Higher heating value (HHV) c. Lower heating value (LHV) b. Heating value (HV) d. Gross calorific value (GCV) ANSWER: (C) Lower heating Value (LHV)

The percent excess air is the difference between the air actually supplied and the theoretical air required divided by: a. the theoretically air supplied b. the deficiency air supplied c. total air supplied d. none of the above ANSWER: (A) the theoretically air supplied During a combustion process, the components which exist before the reaction are called ______ a. reactants c. products b. flue gases d. none of the above ANSWER: (A) reactants The minimum amount of air needed for the complete combustion of fuel is called ________ a. excess air c. theoretical air b. combustion air d. none of the above ANSWER: (C)Theoretical air A gas which will not be found in the flue gases produced from the complete combustion of fuel oil is a. carbon dioxide c. hydrogen b. oxygen d. nitrogen ANSWER: (C) hydrogen The higher heating value is determined when the water in the products of combustion is in a. solid form c. vapor form b liquid form d. gas form ANSWER: (B) Liquid Form The amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit weight or volume of fuel is known as: a. heating value c. latent heat b. sensible heat d. work of compression ANSWER: (A) Heating Value An “ attemporator ” is another name for a. Dry pipe b. Superheater ANSWER: (D) Desuperheater

c. Reheater d. Desuperheater

What is the fundamental indicator of good combustion? a. Colorless smoke. b. Releasing maximum nitrogen content of the combustion with minimum oxygen, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide content. c. Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil combustibles in the flue gas. d. Saturated clean smoke. ANSWER: (C) Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil combustibles in the flue gas. It is a solidified mass of fused ash. a. Sludge b. Carbon residues

c. Solidified ash d. Clinker

ANSWER: (D) Clinker Why does older types of economizers were constructed invariably of cast iron? a. Because cast iron resists corrosion better than mild steel and the pressures were comparatively low. b. Because it is cheap. c. Because cast iron is more abundant than any other type of steel. d. Because it’s thermal conductivity is very small and it gives greater efficiency to the system. ANSWER: (A) It is an accessory often installed on modern boilers to preheat air for combustion before it enters the boiler furnace. a. economizer c. air preheater b. reheater d. forced-draft fan ANSWER: (C) air preheater a. b. c. d.

What components are included in the proximate analysis in solid fuel? Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and excess oxygen Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, ash and moisture Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, nitrogen and ash Fixed carbon, volatile matter, ash and moisture ANSWER: (D) Which element of fuel is not combustible? a. Carbon b Sulfur

c. Hydrogen d. Oxygen

ANSWER: (D) Oxygen A device or an instrument used to record the cylinder pressure of an engine and piston travel in an X-Y graph, where pressure forms the vertical axis and piston travel forms the horizontal axis. a. Engine Indicator c. Planimeter b. Pyrometer d. Dynamometer ANSWER: (A) Engine Indicator

This diagram is used by the operating engineer to detect or determine leaky piston packing, sticking piston, incorrect valve timing, loose bearings, restricted and or outlet piping, etc. a. Timing diagram c. T-s diagram b. P-h diagram d. Indicator diagram ANSWER: (D) Indicator Diagram The effective weight of the brake arm when the brake band is loose. a. Tare Weight c. Gross Load b. Net Load d. Net Tension ANSWER: (A) Tare Weight The power output of the generator. a. Ideal Power b. Brake Power

c. Indicated Power d. Electrical Power

ANSWER: (D) Electrical Power The amount of fuel needed to perform a unit of power. a. Specific fuel consumption c. Steam rate b. Heat Rate d. Mass flow rate ANSWER: (A) Specific Fuel Consumption The ratio of heat converted to useful power to the heat supplied. a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency ANSWER: (C) Thermal Efficiency The ratio of the actual power of the engine to its ideal power. a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency ANSWER: (D) Engine efficiency The ratio of the cylinder volumes after and before the combustion process. a. Compression ratio c. Expansion ratio b. Cutoff ratio d. All of the above ANSWER: (B) Cut-off ratio The position of the piston when it forms the smallest volume in the cylinder. a. Crank End Dead Center Position c. Bottom Dead Center Position b. Head End Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume ANSWER: (B) Head End Center Position The position of the piston when it forms cylinder. a. Crank End Dead Center Position b. Head End Dead Center Position ANSWER: (A) Crank End Dead Center Position

the

largest

volume

in

the

c.Top Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume

When four events take place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an engine, the engine is called: a. rotary engine c. steam engine b. 2-stroke cycle engine d. 4-stroke cycle engine ANSWER: (B) 2-stroke cycle engine What is the model cycle for spark ignition engine? a. Diesel cycle c. Brayton cycle b. Otto cycle d. Carnot cycle ANSWER: (B) Otto cycle Diesel engine fuel is rated in terms of: a. Cetane number b. Power output

c. Octane rating d. Net Calorific Value

ANSWER: (A) Cetane The distance that the piston can travel in one direction. a. Bore ` c. Stroke b. Clearance d. Displacement ANSWER: (C) Stroke The minimum volume formed in the cylinder when the piston is at the top dead center. a. Displacement volume c. Clearance volume b. Cylinder Volume d. None of the above ANSWER: (C) Clearance volume It is a fictitious pressure which, if it acted on the piston during the entire power stroke, would produce the same amount of net work as that produced during the actual cycle. a. Average pressure c. Maximum pressure b. Mean effective pressure d. Minimum pressure ANSWER: (B) Mean effective pressure The ratio of constant pressure specific heat to the constant volume specific heat. a. Compression ratio c. Expansion ratio b. Cutoff ratio d. Specific heat ratio ANSWER: (D)Specific heat ratio The ideal cycle for the compression-ignition reciprocating engines. a. Diesel cycle c. Otto cycle b. Dual cycle d. Carnot cycle ANSWER: (A) Diesel Cycle

The power developed in the engine cylinder as obtained from the pressure in the cylinder. a. Ideal power c. Indicated power b. Brake power d. Electrical power ANSWER: (C) Indicated Power The pressure and torque spent in overcoming friction of reciprocating and revolving parts of the engine and automobile before it reached the drive shaft. a. Electrical losses c. Indicated power b. Brake power d. Friction power ANSWER: (D) Friction Power It is an instrument for determining brake power, usually by the independent measurement of force, time and distance through which the force is moved. a. Planimeter c. Dynamometer b. Anemometer d. Barometer ANSWER: (C) Dynamometer It is the indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of gasoline. a. Octane Number c. Cetane Number b. Compression Ratio d. Viscosity ANSWER: (A) Octane Number Draws fuel from tank through the primary fuel filter. This provides flow throughout the low portion of the fuel system. a. Fuel injection pump c. Fuel transfer pump b. Valve lifter d. Oil pan ANSWER: (C) Fuel transfer pump Acts as a balancer and provide momentum during dead stroke in a cycle. a. Flywheel c. Crankshaft b. Oil cooler d. After cooler ANSWER: (A) flywheel Are steel tubes with seat at both ends and bridges the motion from camshaft to rocker arm. a. Push rod c. Valve lifter b. Suction bell d. Flywheel ANSWER: (A) Push rod Passage of coolant from the engine block to the cylinder head. a. Water jacket c. Oil cooler b. Fuel transfer pump d. Turbo charger ANSWER: (A) Water jacket

Are used to cool incoming air so that the volume of air available is increased. a. After cooler c. Radiator b. Waste gates d. Muffler ANSWER: (A) After cooler The difference between the maximum and minimum volume. a. Displacement Volume c. Clearance Volume b. Top Dead Center d. Differential Volume ANSWER: (A) Displacement Volume These are used to seal the gasses within the cylinder and to keep oil out. a. Piston Rings c. Combustion Chamber b. Cylinder Liner d. Piston Plug ANSWER: (A) Piston Rings Process where the heat is added in the Otto cycle. a. constant temperature c. constant volume b. constant entropy d. constant pressure ANSWER: (C) constant volume Process where the heat is added in the Diesel cycle. a. constant temperature c. constant volume b. constant entropy d. constant pressure ANSWER: (D) constant pressure It is used to reduce the friction of bearings and sliding surfaces in machines and thus diminish the wear, heat and possibility of seizure of the parts a. Lubricant c. Gasoline b. Wax d. Benzene ANSWER: (A) Lubricant In a heat engine, the ratio of brake power to the indicated power is called: a. thermal efficiency c. mechanical efficiency b. generator efficiency d. engine efficiency ANSWER: (C) mechanical efficiency The efficiency of Otto cycle depends upon the a. pressure ratio b. compression ratio ANSWER: (B) compression ratio

c. specific heat rati d. cut-off ratio

The maximum temperature of Diesel cycle will occur a. after isentropic compression b. at the end of isobaric heating c. after isentropic expansion d. at the beginning of adiabatic compression ANSWER: (B) at the end of isobaric heating

The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period of time. a. Demand Factor c. Capacity Factor b. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor ANSWER: (B) Load Factor The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the overall maximum demand of the whole system. a. Demand Factor c. Capacity Factor b. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor ANSWER: (D) Diversity Factor The sum of the continuous ratings of all the equipment and outlets on the customer’s circuit. a. Reserve load c. Maximum demand b. Peak load d. Connected load ANSWER: (D) Connected load The ratio of the duration of the actual service of a machine or equipment to the total duration of the period of time considered. a. Operation factor c. Utilization factor b. Demand factor d. Capacity factor ANSWER: (A) Operation factor The ratio of the brake mean effective pressure to the indicated mean effective pressure. a. Mechanical efficiency c. Brake engine efficiency b. Indicated engine efficiency d. Brake thermal efficiency ANSWER: (A) Mechanical efficiency The ratio of the combined engine efficiency to the brake engine efficiency. a. Combined engine efficiency c. Generator efficiency b. Combined thermal efficiency d. Brake engine efficiency ANSWER: (C) Generator efficiency The ratio of the average load to that of the peak load of a plant is called: a. output factor c. demand factor b. load factor d. capacity factor ANSWER: (B) load factor The ratio of the peak load to the connected load is known as: a. output factor c. demand factor b. load factor d. capacity factor ANSWER: (C) demand factor

The difference between the power plant installed capacity and the peak load is called: a. average load c. connected load b. reserve over peak d. none of the above ANSWER: (B) reserve over peak A series of processes during which the initial state point and the final state point are the same. a. Process c. Change of state b. Cycle d. All of the above ANSWER: (B) Cycle The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is equal to ______________. a. 1.00 c. 1.40 b. 0.90 d. 1.30 ANSWER: (A) 1.00 The relation pV=C represents a process or change of state, which is known as _________. a. Isometric process c. Isobaric process b. Isothermal process d. Isentropic process ANSWER: (B) Isothermal process In the relation pVn= C, if the value of n= 0 the process is said to be ___________. a. Isometric process c. Isobaric process b. Isothermal process d. Polytropic process ANSWER: (C) Isobaric process In a Carnot cycle, the heat rejection in the ____________________ process. a. Isentropic expansion c. Isentropic compression b. Isothermal expansion d. Isothermal compression ANSWER: (D) Isothermal compression A system in which the mass inflow and outflow are not equal or vary with time and in which the mass within the system changes with time. a. b. c. d.

Steady flow system Unsteady state, unsteady flow system Steady state system Steady flow, steady state system

ANSWER: (B) Unsteady state, unsteady flow system A form of energy that is a sole function of temperature for perfect gases and a strong function of temperature and weak function of pressure for nonperfect gases, vapors, and liquids. a. Internal energy c. Enthalpy b. Flow work d. Pressure energy ANSWER: (A) Internal energy

It is that portion of the universe, an atom, a certain quantity of matter, or a certain volume in space that one wishes to study. a. Heat c. Work b. System d. Efficiency ANSWER: (B) System It is the force of gravity per unit volume of a substance. a. Density c. Specific weight b. Specific volume d. Specific gravity ANSWER: (C) Specific weight It is a kind of thermodynamic system whose mass does not cross its boundaries. a. Open system c. Steady flow system b. Closed system d. Transient flow ANSWER: (B) Closed system Which law states that “the acceleration of a particular body is directly proportional to the resultant force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass? a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics b. First Law of Thermodynamics c. Second law of Thermodynamics d. Newton’s Second Law of Motion ANSWER: (D) Newton’s Second Law of Motion A substance that receives, transports and transfers energy. a. Reservoir c. Working substance b. Engine d. Heat sink ANSWER: (C) Working Substance A system where energy and mass cross its boundaries. a. Open system c. Isolated System b. Closed system d. Transient flow system ANSWER: (C) Isolated System The law of thermodynamics that deals with the law of conservation of energy, which states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed. a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics b. First Law of Thermodynamics c. Second law of Thermodynamics d. Third Law of Thermodynamics ANSWER: (B) First Law of Thermodynamics

It states that in any mechanical mixture of gases and vapors (those that do not combine chemically) the total pressure of the gaseous mixture such as moist air is equal to the sum of the partial pressure exerted by the individual gases or vapors. a. Joule’s Law c. Dalton’s Law b. Amagat’s Law d. Charles’ Law ANSWER: (C) Dalton’s Law It is a substance existing in the gaseous phase but relatively near its saturation temperature. a. Gas c. Air b. Vapor d. Oxygen ANSWER: (B) Vapor The point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are identical. a. Critical point c. Triple point b. Saturated liquid-vapor point d. Saturation Point ANSWER: (A) Critical point The point at which heat transfer stops. a. Steady-flow b. Thermal equilibrium

c. Thermodynamic equilibrium d. Steady-state

ANSWER: (B) Thermal equilibrium It is an solution.

instrument

used

for

determining

a. Barometer b. Calorimeter

the

specific

gravity

of

a

c. Hydrometer d. Manometer

ANSWER: (C) Hydrometer It refers to the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases according to the kinetic theory of heat. a. 0 oK c. 0 oR o b. -273 C d. All of the above ANSWER: (D) All of the above The area under the curve on _____________. a. Steady Flow Work b. Net Work

a

pressure-volume

diagram

represents

c. Nonflow Work d. Cycle Work

ANSWER: (C) Nonflow work A boiler steam pressure gage should have a range of at least _______ times the maximum allowable working pressure. a. 1.0 c. 1.25 b. 1.50 d. 1.75 ANSWER: (B) 1.50

It is a valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction only. a. Gate valve c. Globe valve b. Quick-return valve d. Check valve ANSWER: (D) Check valve An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is equal to _________. a. Zero c. Positive b. Negative d. None of the above ANSWER: (A) Zero The _________________ is constant in an adiabatic throttling process. a. Pressure c. Volume b. Internal energy d. Enthalpy ANSWER: (D) Enthalpy It is the ideal cycle for a gas turbine plant. a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle b. Diesel cycle d. Brayton cycle ANSWER: (D) It is the most thermal efficient cycle consisting of two (2) isentropic processes and two (2) isothermal processes. a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle b. Otto cycle d. Diesel cycle ANSWER: (A) How can the average temperature during heat rejection process of a Rankine cycle be decreased? a. increase boiler pressure b. increase inlet turbine pressure c. increase condenser pressure d. reduce turbine exit pressure ANSWER: (D) reduce turbine exit What is commonly done to a vapor power cycle when the turbine has excessive moisture? a. frosting c. diffusing b. reheating d. dehumidifying ANSWER: (B) reheating A form of energy that is transferred between two systems by virtue of temperature difference. a. Heat c. Kinetic Energy b. Potential Energy d. Electrical Energy ANSWER: (A) Heat

A thermodynamic process with no heat transfer. a. Isentropic Process c. Adiabatic Process b. Throttling Process d. All of the above. ANSWER: (D) All of the above An energy interaction that is not caused by a temperature between a system and its surrounding. a. Work ` c. Conduction b. Convection d. Heat

difference

ANSWER: (A) Work Changing of solid directly to vapor, without passing through the liquid state, is called a. Sublimation c. Condensation b. Evaporation d. Vaporization ANSWER: (A) Sublimation A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work associated with the container. From the first law of thermodynamics, the resulting work is: a. equal to the heat transfer b. equal to the change in internal energy c. equal to the volume times the change in pressure d. equal to zero ANSWER: (D) equal to zero The net work output of a heat engine is always __________________________. a. less than the amount of heat input b. more than the amount of heat input c. less than the amount of heat output d. none of the above ANSWER: (A) less the amount of hear input The sum of all the energies of all the molecules in a system, energies that appear in several complex forms. a. Enthalpy c. Internal Energy b. Kinetic Energy d. Potential Energy ANSWER: (C) Internal Energy It is a liquid whose temperature corresponding to its pressure. a. Saturated liquid b. Subcooled liquid ANSWER: (B) Subcooled liquid

is

below

the

saturation

temperature

c. Superheated liquid d. none of the above

a. b. c. d.

A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a Perpetual motion machine of the second kind Perpetual motion machine of the third kind Perpetual motion machine of the first kind None of the above ANSWER: (C) Perpetual motion machince of the first kind The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs ________. a. differ c. are the same b. are unequal d. none of the above ANSWER: (C) are the same A process with no heat transfer is known as a. isobaric process c. isothermal process b. adiabatic process d. isometric process ANSWER: (B) adiabatic process The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of: a. mercury c. oil b. gas d. water ANSWER: (D) water This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right angles to each other a. Series flow c. Parallel flow b. Cross flow d. Counter flow ANSWER: (B) Cross flow The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains constant is called the principle of _______. a. Conservation of Energy b. Conservation of Mass c. Second Law of Thermodynamics d. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics ANSWER: (A) Conservation of Energy A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same a. Isentropic c. Enthalpy Conservation b. Throttling d. Steady State ANSWER: (B) Throttling The sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies that appear in several complex forms. a. Kinetic Energy c. Internal Energy b. External Energy d. Flow Work ANSWER: (C) Internal Energy

A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding. Neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries. a. Open system c. Closed system b. Adiabatic system d. Isolated system ANSWER: (C) Isolated System A device used to measure small and moderate pressure difference. a. Manometer c. Bourdon gage b. Barometer d. Piezometer ANSWER: (A) Manometer A vapor having a temperature corresponding to its pressure. a. Superheated vapor b. Saturated vapor

higher

than

the

saturation

temperature

c. Super saturated vapor d. Subcooled vapor

ANSWER: (A) Superheated Vapor The energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its momentum. a. Internal energy c. Gravitational potential energy b. Work d. Kinetic energy ANSWER: (D) Kinetic Energy The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is constant and the change in internal energy is zero. a. Isobaric process c. Isothermal process b. Isometric process d. Polytropic process ANSWER: (C) Isothermal process The function of a pump or compressor is to a. transfer heat from one fluid to another b. increase the total energy content of the flow c. extract energy from the flow d. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow ANSWER: (B) This law states that “all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cannot be converted into mechanical work”. a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics b. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics c. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics d. All of the above. ANSWER: (B) 2nd Law of Thermodynamics The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute zero is called: a. Gage pressure c. Absolute pressure b. Vacuum pressure d. Saturation pressure ANSWER: (C) Absolute pressure

This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful horsepower developed by an engine and available on its crankshaft to the heat during the same time. a. Brake engine efficiency b. Indicated thermal efficiency c. Combined thermal efficiency d. Brake thermal efficiency ANSWER: (D) Brake thermal efficiency Flow work is equal to pressure times ____________. a. temperature c. entropy b. internal energy d. specific volume ANSWER: (D) specific volume This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of the body. a. internal energy c. kinetic energy b. potential energy d. work ANSWER: (B) potential energy Another term for constant volume process. a. isometric b. isovolumic

c. isochoric d. all of the above

ANSWER: (D) all of the above Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic expansion process in the turbine. a. Brake Work c. Actual Fluid Work b. Ideal Work d. Combined Work ANSWER: (B) Ideal Work The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the a. pressure c. entropy b. volume d. temperature ANSWER: (D) Temperature It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process to completely vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at a given temperature. a. latent heat vaporization c. hfg b. enthalpy of vaporization d. all of the above ANSWER: (D) all of the above It is a commonly used device for measuring temperature differences or high temperatures. a. Thermistor c. Thermocouple b. Bimetallic Strip d. Mercury in glass ANSWER: (C) Thermocouple

The science and technology concerned with precisely measuring energy and enthalpy. a. Thermodynamics c. Calorimetry b. Chemistry d. None of the above ANSWER: (C) Calorimetry The rate of doing work per unit of time a. Torque b. Force

c. Power d. Moment

ANSWER: (C) Power In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressure. What is the effect of superheating the steam to a higher temperature to the cycle thermal efficiency? a. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase b. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease c. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant d. none of the above ANSWER: (A) the cycle thermal efficiency will increase A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to the existing pressure. a. Superheated Vapor c. Wet vapor b. Saturated Vapor d. None of the above ANSWER: (A) Superheated Vapor It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into or out of a system. a. Mechanical work c. Nonflow Work b. Flow Work d. Electrical work ANSWER: (B) Flow Work A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation temperature corresponding to the existing pressure. a. Subcooled liquid c. Saturated liquid b. Unsaturated liquid d. Water ANSWER: (A) Subcooled liquid In this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes while the flue gases burn outside the tubes. a. Water-tube boiler c. Fire-tube Boiler b. Steam generator d. Electric Boiler ANSWER: (A) Water-tube boiler It shows the water level in the boiler drum. a. Water column c. Try cocks b. Gauge glass d. All of the above ANSWER: (B) Gauge glass

It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low water. a. Safety valve c. Fusible plug b. Relief valve d. Try cocks ANSWER: (C) Fusible plug It has several functions. When necessary it empties the boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud, scale, or sediment when the boiler is in operation and prevents excessive concentration of soluble impurities in the boiler. a. Blow-down line c. Boiler feedwater pump b. Steam valve d. None of the above ANSWER: (A) Blow-down line It is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue gases to preheat the air needed for combustion. a. Economizer c. Feedwater heater b. Reheater d. Air preheater ANSWER: (D) Air preheater It is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device which utilizes the heat of the flue gases. a. Economizer c. Open heater b. Closed heater d. Waterwalls ANSWER: (A) Economizer It is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the evaporative capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the same time protect the furnace walls from high temperature. a. Reheater c. Waterwalls b. Superheater d. Feedwater heater ANSWER: (C) Waterwalls It is based on the to steam at 212 oF a. b.

generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from water at 212 and equivalent to 33, 500 Btu/hr. One horsepower c. One kilowatt One boiler horsepower d. None of the above

F

o

ANSWER: (B) One boiler horsepower/BHP It prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain predetermined pressure by opening to allow excess steam to escape into the atmosphere when that point is reached, thus guarding against a possible explosion through excessive pressure. a. Relief valve c. Safety valve b. Fusible plug d. Pressure switches ANSWER: (C) Safety valve

In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass through _______________. a. inside the tubes c. outside the tubes b. inside the shell d. outside the shell ANSWER: (A) inside the tubes It is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at constant pressure. a. dry-bulb temperature c. wet-bulb temperature b. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature ANSWER: (B) dewpoint temperature In a _________________ cooling tower, the air moves horizontally through the fills as the water moves downward. a. Crossflow c. Counterflow b. Parallel flow d. Double-flow ANSWER: (A) Crossflow It is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air. a. Psychrometer c. Psychrometry b. Refrigeration d. Pneumatics ANSWER: (C) Psychrometry It is the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a certain volume of moist air at a given temperature to the mass of water vapor in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature. a. Humidity ratio c. Specific humidity b. Humidity d. Relative Humidity ANSWER: (D) relative humidity Air whose condition is such that any decrease in temperature will result in condensation of water vapor into liquid. a. Saturated air c. Unsaturated air b. Saturated vapor d. Moist air ANSWER: (A) Saturated air It is the warm water temperature minus the cold-water temperature leaving the cooling tower. a. Approach c. Terminal difference b. Cooling Range d. LMTD ANSWER: (B) Cooling Range The temperature where the relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor starts to condense is known as ___________________. a. dry-bulb temperature c. wet-bulb temperature b. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature ANSWER: (B) dewpoint temperature

The surrounding air ____________ temperature is the lowest temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in a cooling tower. a. Dry-bulb c. Wet-bulb b. Dew-point d. Saturation temperature ANSWER: (C) Wet-bulb Which is not a

major part of the vapor compression system? a. compressor c. condenser b. evaporator d. refrigerant

ANSWER: (D) refrigerant This refers to the rate of heat transfer attributable only to a change in dry-bulb temperature. a. sensible heating or cooling b. dehumidification c. humidification d. cooling and dehumidifying ANSWER: (A) sensible heating or cooling It is a binary mixture of dry-air and water- vapor. a. Dry air c. Moist air b. Saturated vapor d. Wet mixture ANSWER: (C) Moist air The temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer. a. Wet-bulb temp. c. Dew-point temp. b. Dry-bulb temp. d. Wet-bulb depression ANSWER: (B) Dry-bulb temp. The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air. a. enthalpy b. specific volume

c. humidity ratio d. relative humidity

ANSWER: (C) humidity ratio This system combines two vapor-compression units, with the condenser of the low-temperature system discharging its heat to the evaporator of the hightemperature system. a. Cascade systems c. Binary system b. Multi-stage system d. Multi-pressure system ANSWER: (A) Cascade systems A process of temperature.

increasing

the

humidity

a. Dehumidifying process b. Cooling process

ANSWER: (D) Humidifying process

ratio

at

constant

dry-bulb

c. Heating process d. Humidifying process

The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature of the air. a. Humidity Ratio c. Specific humidity b. Relative Humidity d. Moisture content ANSWER: (B) It is an air conditioning process that involves heating without changing the moisture content of air. The process is represented by a horizontal line in the psychrometric chart, from left to right. a. Sensible cooling process b. Humidifying process c. Sensible heating process d. Heating and dehumidifying process ANSWER: (C) It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity ratio without changing the dry-bulb temperature of air. The process is represented in the psycrometric chart by a vertical line, from up to down. a. Sensible cooling process b. Humidifying process c. Sensible heating process d. Heating and dehumidifying process ANSWER: (B) The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist air begins to condense when air is cooled at constant pressure a. Dew Point Temperature c. Dry Bulb Temperature b. Wet Bulb Temperature d. Condensing temperature ANSWER: (A) It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system which is a dimensionless quantity. a. Coefficient of Performance c. Energy Efficiency Ratio b. Energy Ratio d. Performance Ratio ANSWER: (A) It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more cylinders in place of a single cylinder compressor. a. Intercooled Compression c. Efficient Compression b. Multistage Compression d. High Power Compression ANSWER: (B) The transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interactions between the particles. a. Heat transfer c. Conduction b. Radiation d. Convection ANSWER: (C) Conduction

What is the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, air movement, and quantity of air in space? a. Refrigeration c. Psychrometry b. Air-conditioning d. Humidification ANSWER: (B) Psychrometry The non-condensing component of the moist air. a. Hydrogen b. Nitrogen

c. Water vapor d. Dry air

ANSWER: (D) Dry air The substance used for heat transfer in a vapor compression refrigerating system. It picks up heat by evaporating at a low temperature and pressure and gives up this heat by condensing at a higher temperature and pressure. a. Water c. Ammonia b. Air d. Gas ANSWER: (C) Ammonia What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the expansion valve and the intake of the compressor in a multi pressure refrigeration system? a. High-side pressure c. Condensing pressure b. Discharge pressure d. Low-side pressure ANSWER: (D) Low-side pressure A refrigerating machine that is classified as a one-ton machine has the capacity to produce a cooling effect of: a. 3.517 kW c. 211 kJ/min b. 12,000 Btu/hr d. All of the above

e. f. h.

n. p.

t. u.

ANSWER: (D) All of the above g. Axial fans are best suitable for application. i. A. Large flow, low head j. C. Low flow, high head k. B. High head, large flow l. D. Low flow, low head m. ANSWER: (A) Large flow, low head o. Which of the following axial fan types is most efficient? q. r. A. Propeller C. Tube axial s. B. Vane axial D. Radial ANSWER: (B) v.

w. x. y. z. aa. ab. Constant rotative speed of the hydraulic turbine runner under varying load is achieved by a ___________ that actuates a mechanism that adjust the gate openings. ac. A. Governor C. Wicket gates ad. B. Runner D. Draft tube ae. af. ANSWER: (A) Governor ag. ah. A pipe or conduit used to carry water from reservoir intake to a reaction turbine is known as: ai. A. Guide Vane C. Draft Tube aj. B. Wicket Gate D. Penstock ak. al. ANSWER: ( ) am. an. The efficiency of forward curved centrifugal fans compared to backward curved fans is_________ ao. A. Higher C. Lower ap. B. Same D. None aq. ar. ANSWER: (C) Lower as. at. When selecting a pump for a given application, it is usually desirable to use a pump that will operate near its BEP which stands for _________. au. A. Brake Effective Horsepower C. Best Effective Point av. B. Best Efficiency Point D. Break Even Point aw. ax. ANSWER: (B) Best Efficiency Point ay. az. In order to prevent shock or water hammering in the penstock when the governor quickly closes the gates, many turbines are provided with a _______________. ba.

bb. bc.

A. B.

Surge Tank Intake Valve

C. D.

Draft Tube Flywheel

bd. be.

ANSWER: (A) Surge Tank bf. bg. Name the fan which is more suitable for high pressure application? bh. A. Propeller type fan bi. B. Backward curved centrifugal fan bj. C. Tube-axial fans bk. D. All of the above bl. bm. ANSWER: (B) Backward curved centrifugal fan bn. bo. A type of centrifugal pump impeller characterized by wide passages for water and the ratio of outside impeller to impeller eye diameter is about 1.5. bp. A. Francis type C. Radial type bq. B. Mixed Flow type D. Axial type br.

bz.

bs.

ANSWER: (A) Francis type bt. bu. bv. bw. The seal that allows the impeller shaft of centrifugal pump to pass from outside of the pump to inside, while maintaining an air tight seal. bx. A. Sleeve C. Wearing Ring by. B. Mechanical Seal D. Packing ca.

ANSWER: (D) Packing cb. cc. Stationary guide vanes of a centrifugal pump surround the impeller converts velocity energy to pressure head. cd. A. Diffuser C. Volute Casing ce. B. Impeller D. Impeller vanes cf.

cl.

cg.

ANSWER: (A) Diffuser ch. ci. If two identical centrifugal pumps are installed in parallel the _______________ is doubled. cj. A. Flow rate C. Power ck. B. Head D. Efficiency cm.

ANSWER: (A) Flow rate cn. co. ____________ are used isolate as well as regulates the flow. have a high pressure drop even wide open. cp. A. Check Valve C. Ball Valve cq. B. Gate Valve D. Globe Valve cr.

cs. cu.

cy.

ANSWER: (D) Globe valve ct. Which pipe accessories do not belong to the group? cv. A. Elbows C. Tees cw. B. Unions D. Strainers cx. ANSWER: (D) Strainers cz.

They

da. ________________ pump periphery pumps. db. A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pumps dc. B. Vertical Turbine Pumps dd. C. Diaphragm Pumps de. D. Sliding Vane Pumps df.

dz.

en.

ev.

known

as

vortex

and

dg.

ANSWER: (A) Turbine (regenerative) Pumps dh. di. dj. Which types of pump does not belong to the group: dk. A. Screw Rotary Pump dl. B. Diaphragm Pump dm. C. Direct Acting Steam Pump dn. D. Centrifugal Pump do. dp. ANSWER: (D) Centrifugal Pump dq. dr. ds. dt. du. dv. dw. _____________ impellers are generally preferred when handling average waters, because it does no rust and machining it, making its surface smooth are easy. dx. A. Stainless Steel C. Cast-Steel dy. B. Bronze D. Cast-iron ea.

ec. ed. ef.

are

ANSWER: (B) Bronze eb. A valve used to prevent backflow in the fluid pipe is called: A. Check Valve C. Angle Valve ee. B. Globe Valve D. Gate Valve

eg.

ANSWER: (A) Check valve eh. ei. ______________ is a single-stage or multistage centrifugal pump with pumping element suspended from discharge piping also known as deep well or bore hole pumps. ej. A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pump ek. B. Vertical Turbine Pump el. C. Screw Pump em. D. Sliding Vane Pump eo.

ANSWER: (B) Vertical Turbine Pump ep. eq. ___________________ pumps are intended for handling thick pulps, sewage sludge, acid, or alkaline solutions, mixture of water and gritty solids that wear out metal pumps. er. A. Direct acting steam pumps es. B. Vertical Turbine Pumps et. C. Lobe pumps eu. D. Diaphragm pumps ew.

ANSWER: (D) Diaphragm pumps ex.

fg.

ey. ___________________ is that part of a rotary pump mounted on the drive shaft; it is the principal pumping member. ez. A. Idle Rotors C. Rotor fa. B. Stator D. Driver fb. fc. ANSWER: () fd. fe. ff. What is the relationship of the capacity of centrifugal pump, Q to impeller diameter, D, when there are two impeller diameters (one is original the other cut down diameter) in the same pump?

fm. fn. fo. fp.

fh. A. Q is fi. B. Q is fj. C. Q is fk. D. Q is fl. ANSWER: (B)

directly proportional to the square of D. directly proportional to D. inversely proportional to D. inversely proportional to the square of D.

fq. fr. What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal pump, P, to the impeller speed, N, is pump is at two different rotative speeds? fs.

fy.

gd.

ga. gb. gc.

ft. A. P is inversely proportional to the cube of N. fu. B. P is inversely proportional to N. fv. C. P is directly proportional to N. fw. D. P is directly proportional to the cube of N. fx. ANSWER: (D) fz. Hydraulic turbine suitable for low head: A. Pelton wheel C. Kaplan turbine B. Francis turbine D. Turgo turbine

ge.

ANSWER: (C) Kaplan turbine gf. gg. If two identical centrifugal pump system flow rate ____________________. gh. gk. gl.

gi. gj.

A. B.

is doubled is halved

are

installed

in

series,

the

C. remains the same D. zero

ANSWER: (C) remains the same gm. gn. The formation ad collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when pump inlet suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the liquid is called: go. A. sublimation C. water hammering gp. B. oxidation D. cavitation gq. gr. gs. ANSWER: (D) cavitation gt.

gu. The process done in centrifugal pump by filling-up the suction line and pump casing with liquid to remove air or vapors from the waterways of the pump is called: gv. A. priming C. water hammering gw. B. charging D. pumping gx. gy. gz. ANSWER: (A) priming ha. hb. Which term does not belong to the group: hc. A. gear pump C. vane pump hd. B. screw pump D. diaphragm pump he. hf. ANSWER: (D) diaphragm pump hg. hh. A type of condenser combines the functions of a condenser and cooling tower is called: hi. A. air-cooled condenser C. ground-cooling condenser hj. B. water-cooled condenser D. evaporative condenser hk. hl. ANSWER: (D) Evaporative condenser hm. hn. ho. An expansion valve with a fluid-charged remote bulb that maintains a constant degree of superheat in the evaporator is called: hp. A. thermostatic expansion valve C. automatic expansion valve hq. B. capillary tube D. float valve hr. hs. ANSWER: (A) Thermostatic expansion valve ht. hu. A refrigeration system ideally suited for use in air-craft because it is light in weight and requires less space is called: hv. A. mechanical vapor-compression C. air cycle hw. B. steam-jet D. vapor absorption hx. hy. ANSWER: (C) air cycle hz. ia. Refrigerant with chemical formula CHClF2 is designated by: ib. A. R134a C. R11 ic. B. R12 D. R22 id. ie. ANSWER: (D) R-22 if. ig. Refrigerant with chemical formula CF3CH2F is designated by: ih. A. R134a C. R11 ii. B. R12 D. R22 ij. ik. ANSWER: (A) R134a il. im. Which refrigerant does not belong to the group? in. A. ammonia C. methane io. B. propane D. Isobutane ip. iq. ANSWER: (A) ammonia ir. is. Carbon dioxide refrigerant is designated by: it. A. R717 C. R600

iu.

iv. iw.

B.

R744

D.

R 718

ANSWER: (B) R744 ix. iy. Piping, fittings and valves materials found suitable for use in ammonia refrigerant are manufactured from: iz. A. Copper C. Iron and Steel ja. B. Aluminum D. Brass jb. jc. ANSWER: (C) Iron and Steel jd. je. Which statement is correct with water-cooled shell and tube type of condenser? jf. jg. A. Refrigerant condensing inside tubes and water flowing in the shell. jh. B.Water flowing through passes inside tubes and the refrigerant condensing in the shell. ji. C. Both refrigerant and water flowing through passes inside tubes and refrigerant condensing. jj. D. A, B, and C are correct jk. jl. ANSWER: (B) jm. jn. In a vapour-absorption refrigeration system utilizing ammonia as refrigerant and the absorbent is: jo. A. Water C. Lithium Bromide jp. B. Carbon dioxide D. Air jq. jr. ANSWER: (A) Water js. jt. The most common secondary refrigerant medium used in indirect refrigeration system such as in industrial ice plants and cold storages. ju. jv. A. Hydrocarbon C. Air jw. B. Carbon dioxide D. Brine jx. jy. ANSWER: (D) Brine jz. ka. A constant restriction expansion device in refrigeration system which is merely a long tube with narrow bore is called. kb. A. Thermostatic expansion valve kc. B. Automatic expansion valve kd. C. Capillary tube ke. D. Float valve kf. . kg. ANSWER: (C) Capillary tube kh. ki. Mixtures of refrigerants but which behave like pure substance are called: kj. A. isomers C. azeotropes kk. B. hydrocarbons D. CFC kl. km. ANSWER: (C) azeotropes kn. ko. In refrigeration compressor that has an electric motor and a compressor built into an integral housing is commonly called:

kp. kq. kr.

ld.

A. hermetic compressor B. combined compressor

C. Open type compressor D. packaged compressor

ks.

ANSWER: (A) hermetic compressor kt. ku. Compounds with same chemical formula but different molecular structure (such R134 & R134a) are called: kv. A. brominated C. azeotropes kw. B. hydrocarbons D. isomers kx. ky. ANSWER: (D) Isomers kz. la. Which of the following refrigerants does not belong to the group? lb. A. Carbon dioxide C. Water lc. B. Ammonia D. Isobutane le.

ANSWER: (D) Isobutane lf. lg. An expansion valve used for refrigeration system is called: lh. lk.

li. lj.

A. thermostatic expansion valve B. capillary tube

a

flooded

D.

type

of

evaporator

in

a

C. automatic expansion valve float valve

ll.

ANSWER: (D) Float Valve lm. ln. An atom in the refrigerant molecule considered responsible for the depletion ozone layer in upper atmosphere (stratosphere) lo. A. Cl atom C. F-atom lp. B. H atom/s D. C atom lq.

lu. lx.

lr.

ANSWER: (A) CL atom ls. lt. A vapour compression system used for production of low temperatures in which a series of refrigerants, with progressively lower boiling points, are used in series of single-stage units is called: lv. lw. ly.

A. B.

multipressure system single-stage system

C. D.

cascade system series system

ANSWER: (C) Cascade system lz. ma. mb. Which statement is correct on the effect of liquid subcooling in a vapor compression system? mc. md. A. subcooling both increases flashing of the liquid during expansion and the refrigerating effect. me. B. subcooling increases flashing of the liquid during expansion and increases the refrigerating effect. mf. C. subcooling both decreases flashing of the liquid during expansion and the refrigerating effect. mg. D. subcooling decreases flashing of the liquid during expansion and increases the refrigerating effect. mh. mi. ANSWER: (D) mj.

mk. Which statement is correct on the effect of suction vapor superheating in a vapor compression system? ml. mm. A. superheating both increases specific compressor work and the refrigerating effect. mn. B. superheating both decrease specific compressor work and the refrigerating effect. mo. C. superheating increases specific compressor work and decreases the refrigerating effect. mp. B. superheating decrease specific compressor work and increases the refrigerating effect. mq. mr. ANSWER: (A) ms. mt. Which statement is correct on the effect of increasing condensing pressure in a vapor compression system? mu. A. increasing condensing pressure both increases specific compressor mv. work and the refrigerating effect. mw. B. increasing condensing pressure both decrease specific compressor work and the refrigerating effect. mx. C. increasing condensing pressure increases specific compressor work my. and decreases the refrigerating effect. mz. D. increasing condensing pressure decrease specific compressor work and increases the refrigerating effect. na. ANSWER: (C) nb. nc. Freezing method utilizes the combined effects of low temperature and high air velocity to produce a high rate of heat transfer from product is called: nd. A. indirect contact freezing ne. B.immersion freezing nf. C. blast freezing ng. D. spray freezing nh. ni. ANSWER: (C) blast freezing nj. nk. A component installed a refrigeration system to ensure that no liquid enters the compressor and subcooled the liquid from condenser to prevent bubbles of vapor from impending the flow of refrigerant through expansion valve is called: nl. A. liquid-to-suction heat exchanger C. subcooler nm. B. flash chamber D. drier nn. no. ANSWER: (A) np. nq. Refrigerant used in steam-jet refrigeration is: nr. A. ammonia C. water ns. B. carbon dioxide D. air nt. nu. ANSWER: (C) water nv. nw. Which refrigerant is completely miscible with oil: nx. A. ammonia C. R12 ny. B. carbon dioxide D. R134a nz. oa. ANSWER: (C) R-12

ob. oc. Ammonia is not used in domestic refrigeration and comfort airconditioning because: od. A. ammonia is highly soluble in water. oe. B. ammonia is the cheapest refrigerant. of. C. ammonia is flammable and toxic. og. D. ammonia is non ozone depletion potential oh. oi. ANSWER: (C) ammonia is flammable and toxic oj. ok. Refrigerants 22 (R22) which is an HCFC, has 1/20 th the ozone depletion potential (ODP) of R11 and R12. Hence, it can be continue to be used for quite sometime. However, all these have global warming-potential (GWP). Because of this, R22 will have to be phased out by year: A. 2010 AD C. 2020 B. 2030 AD D. 2040 ol. om. ANSWER: (B) 2030 AD on. oo. op. oq. or. os. ot. ou. Which of the statements is incorrect regarding the functions of the liquid receiver? ov. A. stores unused refrigerant returning from condenser ow. B. stores refrigerant to be evaporated by the expansion valve ox. C. provides a place to store refrigerant when pumping out the evaporator during maintenance operations. oy. D. stores oil that is carried along with refrigerant. oz. pa. ANSWER: (D) pb. pc. A shutoff valve that is actuated by an electromagnetic coil is called: pd. A. solenoid valve C. float switch pe. B. float valves D. holdback valve pf. pg. ANSWER: (A)Solenoid valve ph. pi. Which of the following statement is not false? A. One ton of refrigeration is also known as one ton of refrigerant. B. The low pressure part of the refrigeration system is composed of the discharge line of the expansion valve to the suction of compressor. C. A system operating in a cycle and producing a net quantity of work from a supply system is known as refrigerator. D. Multi staging of the compressor will increase the work. pj. pk. ANSWER: (B) pl. pm. Refrigeration system of 2 tons capacity. Which of the following statements is correct? pn. A. The system has a COP of 2. po. B. The system has a refrigeration load of 400 Btu/min. pp. C. The system uses 2 tons of refrigerants.

pq. D. None of these is correct. pr. ps. ANSWER: (B) The system has a refrigeration load of 400 Btu/min. pt. pu. pv. It states that when two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body. They are in thermal equilibrium with each other and hence are at the same temperature. A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics B. 2nd law of Thermodynamics C. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics D. Boyle’s Law pw.

ANSWER: (C) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics px. py. pz. It states that the change of internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of only the temperature change qa. A. Charles’ Law c. Joule’s Law qb. B. Boyle’s Law d. Zeroth Law qc. qd. ANSWER: () qe. qf. qg. qh. The energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its momentum. qi. A. Potential Energy C. Internal Energy qj. B. Kinetic Energy D. Flow Work qk. ql. ANSWER: (B) Kinetic Energy qm. qn. The volume between the engine head and the piston when the piston is at the top dead center qo. A. Clearance volume C. Volume of gas drawn in qp. B. Displacement volume D. Volume of exhaust gas qq. qr. ANSWER: (A) Clearance volume qs. qt. The process in which both the intake and exhaust valves are closed, and the air-fuel mixture is processed by the upward piston movement. qu. A. Intake Stroke C. Power Stroke qv. B. Compression Stroke D. Exhaust Stroke qw. qx. ANSWER: (B) Compression Stroke qy. qz. Is a term expressing the combination of internal molecular energy, expansion work and flow work. ra. A. Entropy C. Internal Energy rb. B. Enthalpy D. Mechanical Work rc. rd. ANSWER: (B) Enthalpy re. rf. The combination of two refrigerants which cannot be separated by distillation process. rg. A. Hydrocarbon C. Azeotropes

rh.

rm. rn. ro.

B. Isotopes D. Zeotropes ri. rj. ANSWER: (C) Azeotropes rk. rl. R-600 is what refrigerant? A. Methane C. Butane B. Nonane D. None of these rp. rq. rr. rs. rt.

ANSWER: (C) Butane

ru.

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rv. rw.

rx. Note: Please keep this file CONFIDENTIAL