Class 10 Nso 5 Year

ebook NATIONAL SCIENCE OLYMPIAD

5

Years (2014-2018) Solved Papers

INSTANT

CLASS

10

Copyright © 2019 Science Olympiad Foundation. Printed with the permission of Science Olympiad Foundation. No part

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CLASS 10

Contents ÂÂ NSO 2014 - SET A ÂÂ NSO 2014 - SET B ÂÂ NSO 2015 - SET 1 ÂÂ NSO 2015 - SET 2 ÂÂ NSO 2016 - SET A ÂÂ NSO 2016 - SET B ÂÂ NSO 2017 - SET A ÂÂ NSO 2017 - SET B ÂÂ NSO 2018 - SET A ÂÂ NSO 2018 - SET B

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Set A Year 2014

17th NSO - SET A

2

Logical reasoning 1.

2.

If yesterday was Saturday’s tomorrow and tomorrow is Wednesday’s yesterday, then what day would it be today? A. Sunday B. Monday C. Tuesday D. Friday

A. C.

4.

acbb bcab

cb

b

4 6

B. D.

5 2

There are seven figures, the first and last of which are unmarked, and the remaining are marked as P, Q, R, S and T. These seven figures form a series. However, one of the five marked figures does not fit into the series. Identify that figure in the given options.

bab B. D.

bacc cabb

Study the following information and answer the question given below. I. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North. II. B is not a neighbour of G. III. F is at the immediate right of G and neighbour of E. IV. G is not at the extreme end. V. A is sixth to the left of E. VI. H is sixth to the right of C. After making the linear arrangement, we join them to form a circular arrangement by joining A and H. Which of the following is the odd one out? A. B-D B. E-F C. A-C D. H-G The positions of four policemen A, B, C and D is given in a circular park. The park is divided into sixteen plots. P, Q, R and K are the offenders whom they have to catch after given moves. The given figure shows their positions. (Note that the by-lanes are North-South and East-West.)

If A, B, C and D were to move clockwise four plots and P, Q, R and K were to move anti-clockwise six plots, then out of the given options, who two would be North and South respectively? A. P and A B. R and D C. Q and B D. P and C 5.

6.

In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the options below it. Select the correct option. ba

3.

A. C.

In the following number series, how many 4s are there, which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of the pair of numbers immediately following 4? 534648947645748448023431472

A. C.

P R

B. D.

Q S

7.

A large cube is dipped into a tub filled with colour. When the cube is taken out, it is observed that all its sides are painted. This large cube is now cut into 125 small but identical cubes. How many of the smaller cubes have exactly three faces painted? A. 4 B. 8 C. 9 D. None of these

8.

Select the mirror image of given combination, if the mirror is placed vertically to the left. A. C.

9.

B. D.

Following two figures show the expenditure on various items by families A and B. Which of the conclusions given below is not correct?

A. B. C. D.

A spends B spends B spends A spends

more on food than B. more on clothing than A. equal amounts on food and clothing. more on rent than on any other item.

10. In a certain code language, the letters immediate next to vowels are replaced with D, all other consonants with preceding letters and the vowels are replaced with Z. How will the word STANDING be written in that code language? A. RSZMCZMF B. TSZMCZFM C. RSZMCZDF D. RSZDCZDF

17th NSO - SET A

11.

3

In the following question, a related pair of figures is followed by four other pairs of figures. Out of the four pairs, select the pair that has a relationship similar to that in the question pair. The best answer is to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.

A.

B.

C.

D.

A. 14. P is the son of Q while Q and R are sisters to one another. T is the mother of R. If S is the son of T, which of the following statements is correct? A. T is the brother of Q. B. S is the cousin of P. C. Q and S are sisters. D. S is the maternal uncle of P.

B.

C.

15. Figures P, Q and R shows a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Figure R shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Select a figure from the options which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of figure R.

D.

12. A set of figures carrying certain characters is given. Assuming that the characters in each set follow a similar pattern, find the missing character. A.

13

B.

15

C.

17

D.

19

A.

B.

C.

D.

13. Select the figure from the options which will replace the question mark (?) in the given series.

Science 16. A body is suspended from a spring balance kept in a satellite. The reading of the balance is W1 when the satellite goes in an orbit of radius R and is W2 when it goes in an orbit of radius 2R. Then A. W1 = W2 B. W1 < W2 C. W1 > W2 D. W1 ≠ W2 17. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Magnetic field is not associated with a stationary charge. Statement 2 : Magnetic field can be detected by means of its effect on a current carrying conductor. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

B. C. D.

Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

18. Three identical resistors are connected across a voltage source V such that one of them is in parallel with other two, which are connected in series as shown. The power dissipated through the first one, compared to the power dissipated by each of the other two is _______. A. The same B. Half as much C. Twice as much D. Four times as much V

17th NSO - SET A

4

19. A coordinate axis as shown in figure is kept in front of a converging lens at a distance 2f from it, where Y f is the focal length of the lens. Which of the following shows the approximate shape of the X image? Assume that X-axis is the principal axis of the lens. Z Y Z X

A.

Z

Y

C.

Z

Y

D.

X



X

B.

X Y



Z

20. A box of mass 2 kg has an initial speed of 10 m s–1 at the foot of the ramp. Given that the friction along the ramp is 2 N, –1 s find the height h that h m 10 the box reaches when its 60° 2 kg speed is 5 m s–1. –1 (Take g = 10 N kg ) A. 2.5 m B. 3.4 m C. 4.0 m D. 6.0 m 21. A boy stands between two vertical walls. After making a loud clap, he hears two echoes at an interval of 1 s. If the distance between the two walls is 1000 m, what is his distance from the nearest wall? (Take speed of sound = 300 m s–1). A. 425 m B. 215 m C. 265 m D. 365 m 22. Energy released in the fission of 1 kg of U-235 is equivalent to energy obtained from burning of coal weighing approximately ______. A. 25 ton B. 250 ton C. 2500 ton D. 25000 ton 23. A glass sphere of radius 1 m and refractive index 3 is silvered at its back. A point object is kept at 2 a distance of 1 m from the front face, as shown in figure. Find the position of the final image. −5 A. m 1m 7 7 m B. 1m 5

C.

−13 m 7

D.

7 m 13

24. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its initial direction, travelling in air. The particle is seen to follow the path as shown in the figure. (i) The magnetic field Entry strength may have been increased while the particle was travelling in air. B (ii) The particle lost energy by ionising the air. (iii) The particle lost charge by ionising the air. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. (ii) only B. (i) and (ii) C. (ii) and (iii) D. (i), (ii) and (iii) 25. The height of mercury in a barometer at sea level is higher than that at the top of a hill. Which of the following inferences about this observation is correct? A. The air molecules at sea level have higher mass than that of at the top of a hill. B. The air molecules at sea level experience less gravitational force than that of at the top of a hill. C. The air molecules per unit volume at sea level are greater than that of at the top of a hill. D. The speed of air molecules at sea level is lower than that of at the top of a hill. 26. Nandita mixed two solutions X and Y. She recorded the following observations and conclusions in her notebook. I. A yellow precipitate is formed. II. It is a double displacement reaction. The solutions X and Y respectively are A. Pb(NO3)2 , KI B. AgNO3, NaCl C. Na2SO4, BaCl2 D. FeCl3, NH4OH 27. Which of the following is not an isotope of the other three? A. C.

7p 8n 7p 6n

B.

D.





8p 9n 7p 7n

28. Compound X decolourises acidified potassium dichromate to produce an acid with a pH value of 4.5. Which of the following could be the structure of X? A. CH3CH2COOH B. CH3CH2CH2OH D. CH3CH2CH3 C. CH2 CH CH3

17th NSO - SET A

5

29. The positions of four elements K, L, M and N in the periodic table are shown below : Group 13 K – Ga

Group 14 – L M

Group 15 – – N

Which of the following statements are correct? I. K, L, M and N are metalloids. II. K is a metal while L, M and N are non-metals. III. Among these four elements, K is the smallest in size. IV. K is a metal while L and M are metalloids and N is a non‑metal. A. II and III B. I and III C. III and IV D. None of these 30. Five students have different amounts of substances. Nitika : 6.022 × 1024 atoms of Ca Sagar : 2 g of C Pooja : 0.5 g atom of Ag Ranjan : 0.3 mole of H2SO4 Yash : 6.022 × 1025 atoms of CO2 [At. wts. of Ag = 108 u, S = 32 u, Ca = 40 u, C = 12 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u] Arrange the students in decreasing order of masses of the substances that they have. A. Sagar > Ranjan > Pooja > Nitika > Yash B. Yash > Nitika > Ranjan > Pooja > Sagar C. Yash > Nitika > Pooja > Ranjan > Sagar D. Pooja > Sagar > Yash > Ranjan > Nitika 31. Four solutions labelled as P, Q, R and S have pH values 1, 9, 3 and 13 respectively. Which of the following statements about the given solutions is incorrect? A. Solution P has higher concentration of hydrogen ions than solution R. B. Solution Q has lower concentration of hydroxyl ions than solution S. C. Solutions P and Q will turn red litmus solution blue. D. Solution P is highly acidic while solution Q is weakly basic. 32. The atomic numbers of some elements are given below : Element

M

N

O

P

Q

Atomic number

15

9

3

18

12

The number of valence electrons 8, 2, 1, 7 and 5 respectively are present in A. Q, P, O, N, M B. N, O, Q, M, P C. P, Q, O, N, M D. O, P, N, M, Q

33. Three hydrocarbons X, Y and Z are shown below: X : CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3; Y : Z : CH3CH2 CH CH CH3 Identify the incorrect statements about these three hydrocarbons. I. X and Y both differ by a CH2 unit. II. X and Z have the same boiling point. III. All have different general formulae. IV. Y and Z have different molecular masses. A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. All the statements are incorrect. 34. Study the given graphs carefully.

Graph-1 : The heating curve of substance P

Graph-2 : The cooling curve of substance Q

Which of the following statements is correct? A. The melting point of the substance P is 200°C. B. The boiling point of the substance Q is 50°C. C. At point ‘b’, the substance P exists in both solid and liquid states. D. At point ‘x’, the substance Q exists in both liquid and gaseous states while at point ‘d’, the substance P exists in both gaseous and liquid states. 35. Aditya accidentally mixed copper sulphate crystals with sand. How can he recover the copper sulphate crystals? Add water to the mixture and filter. 1. Evaporate the filtrate to dryness. 2. Heat the filtrate until it is saturated, and let it 3. cool. Wash the residue, and dry it between sheets of 4. filter paper. A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1 and 4

17th NSO - SET A

6

36. Identify the given organisms, match them with their peculiar features as shown in the table and select the option with all the correct matches.

(i) P Q R S A. B. C. D.

(ii)

(iii)

Unicellular Multicellular Prokaryotic Eukaryotic (i) P, R, U, V P, R, V, T P, R, U, V P, R, V, T

T U V W

(ii) P, S, V P, S, V P, S, V P, S, V

39.

Which path a molecule of carbon dioxide in the alveolus of the inferior lobe of lung takes on its journey to the outside? A. Q → U → S → V → X → W → R → T → P B. Q → S → U → V → X → W → T → R → P C. Q → S → U → V → X → W → R → T → P D. Q → S → U → X → V → W → R → T → P

(iv)

Cell wall present Cell wall absent Autotrophic Heterotrophic (iii) P, S, W, U P, S, U, W Q, S, W, U P, S, W, U

(iv) Q, S, V, W Q, S, U, W Q, S, T, W Q, S, T, W

37. Albumin is the most abundant protein in blood plasma, accounting for approximately 60% of all plasma protein. A person was found to have reduced level of plasma albumin due to kidney damage. Which of the labelled part(s) would you expect to be the primary site of damage for this patient?

40. A large forest area got burnt in a massive fire. The species that would invade such bared area to rapidly colonize it have __________ , __________ and __________ characteristics. Fill up the blanks from the given choices and select the correct option. (i) Long lifespan (ii) Rapid reproduction (iii) Fast growth (iv) Strong dispersal ability (v) Strong defense against natural enemies or predators. (vi) Large sized individuals A. (i), (ii), (iii) B. (ii), (iii), (iv) C. (i), (iv), (vi) D. (iii), (iv), (vi) 41.

A. C.

U, T R only

B. D.

P only P, Q, S

38. Four seedlings of equal size and length are taken and given different treatments: Plant P : Tip not removed, nothing applied. Plant Q : Tip removed, nothing applied. Plant R : Tip removed, gelatin block was placed on cut edge. Plant S : Tip removed, gelatin block with auxin was placed on cut edge. What would be the correct order of growth rates of the plants? A. S > P > R > Q B. S > R > P > Q C. P > R > Q > S D. P > S > Q > R

Given are different parts of respiratory tract. P. Nasal cavity Q. Alveolar duct R. Larynx S. Respiratory bronchioles T. Epiglottis U. Terminal bronchioles V. Lobular bronchioles W. Trachea X. Bronchus

(i) SER (iii) Lysosome (v) Ribosome

(ii) Golgi apparatus (iv) RER (vi) ER

Using the words in the box complete the synthesis process of digestive enzymes before their exocytosis then select the option that will complete the following passage correctly. The (a) provides extensive surface on which (b) 1. carry protein synthesis or synthesis of digestive enzymes. Synthesized enzymes enter (c) and then (d) 2. for modification. The modified enzymes are stored in (e) which 3. pass outwardly and fuse with plasma membrane during exocytosis. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) A. (iv) (v) (vi) (ii) (iii) B. (iv) (v) (vi) (iii) (ii) C. (i) (v) (vi) (ii) (iii) D. (i) (v) (vi) (iii) (ii)

17th NSO - SET A

7

42. R is an organic compound containing only carbon, chlorine and fluorine. It is produced as a volatile derivative of methane, ethane and propane. It has been widely used as refrigerant, propellent and solvent. Montreal protocol phased out manufacture of such compounds because R contributes to S in the atmosphere. Which of the following would not be a consequence of S? A. Increased incidence of severe sunburns B. Increased incidence of cataracts C. Increased incidence of premature skin aging D. Increased rates of lung cancer 43. Rohan made the following statements regarding the section of a tissue as shown in the given figure. (i) It provides mechanical support to the plants. (ii) Its cell wall shows localized thickenings. (iii) Cells are dead. (iv) Cells are filled with protoplasm and have narrow lumen. (v) Cells have hard secondary walls. (vi) It is distributed in almost all parts of the plant body. Which among them are incorrect?

A. C.

(i), (iii), (iv), (v) (ii), (iv), (vi)

B. D.

(ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (ii), (iv), (v)

44. The given graph shows the concentration of dissolved oxygen along a river. At which point is sewage emptied into the river? A.

P

B.

Q

C.

R

D.

S

45. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (a) Increased egg production (i) Viral disease (b) White leghorn (ii) Carp (c) Ranikhet (iii) Fish by-product (d) Isinglass (iv) Layers (e) Silver carp (v) Exotic fish (f) Bombay duck (vi) Silver revolution (g) Rohu and Catla (vii) Marine fish (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) A. (iv) (vi) (i) (iii) (v) (vii) (ii) B. (vi) (iv) (i) (iii) (vii) (v) (ii) C. (vi) (iv) (i) (vii) (v) (iii) (ii) D. (vi) (iv) (i) (iii) (v) (vii) (ii)

Achievers Section Direction (Q. 46 & 47): Refer to the given passage and answer the following questions. Metals are extracted from their ores by different methods depending on their position in the activity series.

A. B. C. D.

(a)-(v), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii), (e)-(i) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii), (e)-(i) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(i) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii), (e)-(iv)

47. Metals which are extracted by heating, electrolysis and by reduction with carbon respectively are A. Copper, magnesium, zinc B. Mercury, aluminium, lead C. Mercury, sodium, calcium D. Both A and B

46. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (a) Highly reactive metals (i) S (b) Calcination (ii) T (c) Electrolytic reduction (iii) P (d) Less reactive metals (iv) R (e) Roasting (v) Q

48. The dwarf variety of garden pea plants are now known to have a mutation in a gene needed for synthesis of gibberellin. F1 plant obtained by Mendel from the tall (TT) × dwarf (tt) cross were tall. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the given information? (i) Gibberellin causes elongation of stems. (ii) Heterozygous (Tt) plants produce the same amount of gibberellin as homozygous dominant (TT) plants. (iii) Gibberellin induces production of auxin. (iv) Mutation may have occurred in a gene producing an enzyme.

17th NSO - SET A

A. C.

(i) and (ii) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

8

B. D.

(ii), (iii) and (iv) (i), (ii) and (iv)

49. The given figure shows monthly changes in the human ovary during the reproductive cycle.

B. C.

D.

The hormone produced by structure ‘R’stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete luteinizing hormone. The hormone produced by structure ‘S’ is responsible for the development of female secondary sex characters. The hormones produced by ‘P’ and ‘Q’ stimulate the proliferation of the endometrial lining of the uterine wall.

50. A particle starts from rest at time t = 0 and moves in a straight line with acceleration as plotted in given graph. The speed of the particle will be maximum at time ____.

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the labelled structure(s)? A. Before puberty, only structure ‘T’ undergoes meiosis.

A.

1s

B.

2s

C.

3s

D.

4s

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Class 10

Set B Year 2014

17th NSO - SET B

2

Logical Reasoning 1.

2.

3.

4. 5.



Some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the options below it. Select the correct option. A. C.

__ __ aba __ __ ba __ ab abbba B. abbab baabb D. bbaba

In the given number series, how many 9s are there which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of the pair of numbers immediately following 9? 87 89 A. C.

996845938492519226943925 37 4 B. 3 6 D. 5

If A is coded as 5, L as 16, J as 14 and so on. Following this code, STAR is coded as 296, which of the following represents the code of JAILER ? A. 316 B. 395 C. 237 D. 553

7.

8.

Abhishek said that he was born on 29 February 1900. What birthday will he celebrate in the year 2000? A. 99th B. 25th th C. 100 D. Abhishek is lying If the image of a figure in water is seen as what is the actual figure? A.





, then

B.



C.

D.

6.

Study the Venn diagram carefully and select the correct statement.

Mr. Sinha has six children – Pankaj, Ravi, Varun, Amit, Vikas and Prateek. They all were born on 13th November, but each was born in a different year, during six consecutive years. It is also known that (i) Pankaj is elder to Varun. (ii) Ravi is elder to both Amit and Vikas. (iii) Prateek is two years older than Amit. (iv) Pankaj was born either in the year 2002 or 2003. (v) The oldest member of the group was born in the year 2000. (vi) Amit is elder to both Vikas and Varun. Which of the following is the correct list of the group, from the youngest to the oldest? A. Varun, Pankaj, Ravi, Amit, Vikas, Prateek B. Varun, Vikas, Pankaj, Amit, Prateek, Ravi C. Varun, Vikas, Amit, Prateek, Pankaj, Ravi D. Varun, Vikas, Amit, Pankaj, Prateek, Ravi Select the pair that has a relationship similar to the pair in Fig. (X). The best answer is to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.

I

II

Fig. (X)



A.



C.

9.

I

II

I

II



B.



D.



B. C. D.

II

C D E Q P

K R

There are some postgraduates who are rural people. No professor is urban. All post-graduates are rural. All post-graduates are urban.

I

N

W

A.

II

A group of four policemen A, B, C and D is combining a circular park divided into sixteen plots. P, Q, R and K are the offenders who they have to catch after given moves. The figure below shows their positions. Note that the by-lanes are North-South and East-West. A B



I

S



If both A, B, C, D and P, Q, R, K moves clockwise three plots, then who would be positioned North-East and South-West from the given options respectively? A. A and P B. C and P C. D and Q D. B and R

17th NSO - SET B

3

10. Find the missing number, if the given matrix follows a certain rule row-wise or column-wise.

A. C. 11.

8

6

7

3

7

5

14

12

13

9

13

?

9 13

B. D.

13. There are seven figures, the first and last of which are un-numbered and the remaining are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series. However, one of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. Select the figure which does not fit into the series.

7 11

Select a figure from the options which will continue the series as established by the five problem figures. Problem Figures

A. C.

1 4

1

2

3

4

B. D.

3 2

5

14. Which of the following figures will complete the given figure matrix? A.

A.

B.

B.

?

C. C.

D. D.

12. Six different faces of a cube are coloured in three different colours – black, green and blue. This cube is now cut into 216 smaller but identical cubes. If N is the number of cubes that is not coloured on any of its faces, then which of the following best describes the value of N ? A. 125 < N < 130 B. 120 ≤ N ≤ 125 C. 115 ≤ N ≤ 120 D. 50 < N < 100

15. A is the brother of B. B is the brother of C. D is the father of A. Which of the following statements cannot be definitely true? A. B is the brother of A. B. B is the son of D. C. A is the brother of C. D. C is the brother of A.

Science 16. A network is constructed using five resistors, each of resistance R, and three switches K1, K 2 and K 3. Which switch combination will give rise to maximum total resistance between points X and Y? R R X

K1

R K2

R

K1 K 2 K3 A. Open Closed Open B. Open Closed Closed C. Closed Closed Closed D. Closed Open Closed

R

K3

Y

17. A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from west to east as shown in the given figure. The direction of magnetic field will be north to south, at a point ______. A. B. C. D.

N W

W

E S

E

Directly above the wire Directly below the wire Located in the plane of the paper, on the north side of the wire Located in the plane of the paper, on the south side of the wire.

17th NSO - SET B

4

18. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : A concave mirror and a convex lens both have the same focal length in air. When they are submerged in water, they will still have the same focal length. Statement 2 : The refractive index of water is greater than the refractive index of air. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 19. An explosion takes place at a distance of 3200 m away from a sound detector that detects only the sound coming from the ground. Explosion The sound detector detects Sound two sound signals at detector 0.64 s and 0.80 s after the Air explosion. Find the depth 3200 m x x of the soft ground. Soft ground A. 1200 m Hard ground B. 2400 m C. 3600 m D. 4800 m 20. A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm is dipped in water as shown in the given figure. S Given that the refractive 10 cm 4 and object 3 S is placed on the principal axis of the concave mirror. The final image formed by Concave mirror the system is at 85 cm from water surface A. 4 85 B. cm from mirror surface 4 94 C. cm from water surface 3 94 D. cm from mirror surface. 3

index of water is

5 cm 3

21. An acrobat swings from point P to Q as shown in the given figure. The length of the swinging rod is 5 m. The minimum initial speed, the acrobat must have, at point P is (Take g = 10 N kg–1) A.

10 m s–1

B.

20 m s–1

C.

50 m s–1

D.

Cannot be determined

22. A heater, a fan and a bulb are connected to the 12 V battery as shown in the given diagram.

The fan with a resistance of R has a potential difference of 6 V across it and a current of 1 A through it. The bulb has a current of 2 A flowing through it. Which of the following statements is true? A. The voltage across the bulb is 6 V and its resistance is 2R. B. The voltage across the bulb is 6 V and its resistance 1 is R. 2 C. The voltage across the heater is 6 V and its resistance is 2 R. D. The voltage across the heater is 6 V and its 1 resistance is R. 2 23. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding a typical solar cell? (i) It develops a voltage of 0.5 to 1 volt. (ii) It can produce only upto 0.5 W of electricity. (iii) It is made from silicon. (iv) Efficiency of solar cell is low. (v) It is used for many scientific and technological applications. A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only C. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only D. All of these 24. Two identical balls, P and Q are being dropped from different levels of a building. If ball P takes twice the time than ball Q to reach the ground, then ______. A. The distance travelled by ball P is half the distance travelled by ball Q B. The distance travelled by ball P is twice the distance travelled by ball Q C. The distance travelled by ball P is four times the distance travelled by ball Q D. The distance travelled by ball P is eight times the distance travelled by ball Q 25. A satellite moves in a circle around the Earth. The radius of this circle is equal to one half of the radius of the Moon's orbit. The satellite completes one revolution in 1 2 lunar month B. lunar month A. 2 3 C.

21/2 lunar month

D.

2–3/2 lunar month

17th NSO - SET B

26. Oxide M is a colourless gas. It reacts with oxygen to form a reddish-brown gas, oxide N. The solubility of oxides M and N in various solvents is shown below : Solvent Oxide M Oxide N Water Insoluble Soluble Aqueous NaOH Insoluble Soluble Hydrochloric acid Insoluble Insoluble Which of the following statements is correct? A. Oxide M is an acidic oxide. B. Oxide M is an amphoteric oxide. C. Oxide N is a basic oxide. D. Oxide N is an acidic oxide. 27. The boiling points of some gases found in air are given below : Element Krypton Neon Nitrogen Oxygen Boiling –152 –246 –196 –183 point (°C) If liquid mixture is fractionally distilled, the order of gases distilled out (starting from first) is _____. A. Krypton, neon, nitrogen, oxygen B. Neon, nitrogen, oxygen, krypton C. Nitrogen, neon, oxygen, krypton D. Oxygen, neon, nitrogen, krypton 28. How many of the total number of electrons in a molecule of ethyne C2H2 are not involved in bonding? A. 4 B. 10 C. 6 D. 0 29. Study the given graph carefully.

5

31. A compound P contains two hydrogen, one sulphur and four oxygen atoms. Another compound Q contains five hydrogen, one oxygen and one nitrogen atoms. The formula of a new compound formed by the divalent anion of P and monovalent cation of Q is A. NH4HSO4 B. (NH4)2SO3 C. NH4HSO3 D. (NH4)2SO4 32. A part of the periodic table is given below : Groups

1

2

13

14

c and d contain same number of protons. Pairs (a, b), ( f, g) and (i, j) are isobars. Pairs (c, d) and (g, h) are isotopes. e and f have different number of neutrons. correct statements are I, II and IV B. I, III and IV I and III D. All of these

Metal X 30. Strips of metal X were dipped into two solutions as shown below : A greyish metallic Silver nitrate Zinc nitrate deposit was found on solution solution both strips. Which of the following could be metal X? A. Cu B. Mg C. Pb D. Fe

16

17

18

Periods 2 Q L R H 3 M 4 N V 5 G (The letters are not the actual chemical symbols of the elements.) Choose the incorrect statement among the following. A. Q and R combine together to form a compound, Q 2 R 3. B. N is a metal with valency 2 and L is a non-metal with valency 3. C. G is the most reactive metal and H is the most reactive non-metal. D. M for ms ionic compou nds and V is ver y reactive. 33. Schematic atomic structures of four different R and 147S 3– are I, II, III and IV elements 199P, 2412Q 2+, 28 14 respectively.

I

I. II. III. IV. The A. C.

15

III The incorrect representations are A. I, II and IV B. C. III and IV D.

II

IV I, III and IV I and III

34. In the following reactions ethanol is either a reactant or product. I. Combustion of ethanol II. Dehydration of ethanol to ethene III. Fermentation of glucose IV. Oxidation of ethanol to ethanoic acid The reactions in which water is also either a reactant or product are A. I, III and IV B. II, III and IV C. I, II and IV D. I and IV

17th NSO - SET B

35. The melting and boiling points of three pure substances X, Y and Z are given in the table. Substance Melting point Boiling point (°C) (°C) 55 280 X –6 65 Y – 100 – 34 Z

At room temperature, 25°C A. Z is a gas B. X is a volatile liquid C. Y is a solid D. All are correct.

36. Study carefully the key depicting the type of plant tissues : Key : Types of meristematic tissue – P, Q Types of permanent simple tissue – R, S Types of parenchymatous tissue – T, U Identify these tissues (P to U) from the list of their functions given below. (i) It provides mechanical support, elasticity and tensile strength to the body. (ii) This tissue is responsible for linear growth of an organ. (iii) It provides a protective covering around seeds and nuts. (iv) It provides buoyancy to aquatic plants to help them float. (v) It is responsible for growth of leaves and internodes. (vi) It performs the process of photosynthesis. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) A. Q S T R U P B. S Q R T P U C. T U P Q S R D. P Q T R U S 37. Refer to the diagramshowing the vascular tissue from a dicotyledonous plant and answer the following question. Which of the following statements correctly compares structures P and Q? A. P has cell wall made of lignin, but Q has cell wall made of cellulose. B. P transports substances only from roots to leaves, but Q transports substances in either direction. C. P comprises cells that largely lack cytoplasm, but Q comprises cells that possess cytoplasm. D. P contains water and mineral salts, while Q contains food substances in the form of starch.

6

38. Cells without nucleoli die because they do not possess ______. A. Centrioles and so are unable to undergo cell division B. Lysosomes and so are unable to destroy worn out organelles C. Mitochondria and so are unable to obtain energy D. Ribosomes and so are unable to manufacture proteins. 39. Pea plants can have smooth seeds or wrinkled seeds. One of the phenotypes is completely dominant over the other. A farmer decides to pollinate one flower of a plant with smooth seeds using pollen from a plant with wrinkled seeds. The resulting pea pod has all smooth seeds. Which of the following conclusion(s) can be drawn? 1. The allele for smooth seeds is dominant over that for wrinkled seeds. 2. The parent plant with smooth seeds is a homozygote. 3. The parent plant with wrinkled seeds is a homozygote. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3 Direction : Refer to the food web given below to answer questions 40 and 41.

40. A non-biodegradable insecticide known as DDT was sprayed onto the pine trees. In which of the following organisms would most of the DDT eventually accumulate? A. Golden-crowned kinglet B. Pine borer C. Salamander D. Snake 41. With reference to the given food web, which of the following statements is true? A. There is only one organism that makes organic compounds from inorganic substances. B. There is no such one organism that converts organic compounds into inorganic substances. C. The inability of the oak tree to produce acorns would affect the red-tailed hawk more than the snake. D. Removal of X would cause an increase in the population of all the organisms.

17th NSO - SET B

7

42. The following data regarding two different plant species was obtained. Plant Average Average Texture mass of of pollen diameter pollen grain of pollen grain/mg grain/mm 15 200 Smooth, dry X 45 1800 Spiky, sticky Y What valid conclusion(s) can be drawn from the data? 1. Plant Y is more likely to be wind-pollinated. 2. Plant Y is more likely to be self-pollinated than plant X. 3. Since plant Y has larger and heavier pollen, a larger mass of pollens must be produced by plant Y per unit time to achieve the same efficiency of pollination as plant X. 4. The stigma of plant X is likely to have a larger surface area than those of plant Y. A. 4 only B. 1 and 3 D. 3 and 4 C. 2 and 4 43. Read the following statements (a - c) and select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in any two of the statements. (a) (1) is a bacterial disease, while (2) is a viral disease. (b) (3) is the mode of prevention of diseases. (c) (4) and (5) are diseases which spread through sexual act. A. (1)-Chicken pox, (2)-Typhoid, (4)-Syphilis, (5)-Cholera B. (1)-Cholera, (2)-Chicken pox, (3)-Prophylaxis

C. D.

(3)-Immunization, (4)-AIDS, (5)-Tuberculosis (3)-Vaccination, (4)-Syphilis, (5)-Jaundice

44. Study the given flowchart. Which of the following are the correct examples of W, X, Y and Z?

A. B. C.

D.

W X Ulothrix Marsilea Riccia Marsilea Lycopodium Marchantia Spirogyra Dryopteris

Y Z Selaginella Cycas Cycas Ipomoea Pinus Ipomoea Funaria Pinus

45. A student suggests that plant cells do not require mitochondria since they have chloroplasts. Which of the following statements would you use to convince him otherwise? A. Having both chloroplasts and mitochondria would maximise the rate of photosynthesis. B. Having both chloroplasts and mitochondria would maximise the rate of energy production. C. Mitochondria would be necessary at night when chloroplasts are no longer able to photosynthesize. D. The chemical energy stored in glucose cannot be efficiently utilized in the cell without mitochondria.

Achievers section 46. The plot represents the flow of current through a wire at three different times. The ratio of charges flowing through the wire at different intervals is A. 1 : 2 : 3 C. 3 : 2 : 2

B. D.

1:1:1 2:3:3

Direction (Q. No. 47 & 48): Refer to the given passage and answer the following questions. Redox reactions are those in which oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously. Oxidation is the gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen while reduction is the loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen. Those given off in the oxidation are taken on by another species in the reduction reaction. A substance which helps the other substance to undergo oxidation is called an oxidising agent. Similarly, a substance which helps the other substance to undergo reduction is called a reducing agent.

47. In the reaction, MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 A. HCl is reduced to Cl2 whereas MnO2 is oxidised to MnCl2 B. HCl is oxidised to H2O whereas MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2 C. HCl is reduced to Cl2 whereas MnO2 is oxidised to H2O D. HCl is oxidised to Cl2 whereas MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2. 48. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are not correct? Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 I. Fe2O3 is getting oxidised to Fe. II. Fe2O3 is acting as a reducing agent. III. CO is acting as a reducing agent. IV. CO is getting reduced to CO2. A. III only B. I, II and IV C. II and IV D. I and III

17th NSO - SET B

8

49. Refer to the diagram of the human digestive system to answer the following question.

What would be the likely consequence of swapping S and T i.e., from the stomach, food will pass through T to S? A. The digestive enzymes would be denatured. B. The intestinal contents would be highly alkaline and would damage the wall of T. C. The intestinal contents would be too dry and unable to pass through S properly. D. Water absorption would be highly reduced.

50. The graph below shows the hormonal changes during a normal menstrual cycle. What would be a likely consequence if the hormone represented by graph Q is lacking in an adult female?

A. B. C. D.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

The uterine lining might not be sufficiently stable to support an implanted embryo. Levels of the hormone represented by graph P would be higher than normal. Fertilization of ovum would fail to occur. There would be no significant effect since the functions of the hormones overlap.

Class 10

Set 1 Year 2015

logical reasoning 1.

2.

3.

4.

In a certain code language, ‘si po re’ means ‘book is thick’, ‘ti ma re’ means ‘bag is heavy’, ‘ka si’ means ‘interesting book’ and ‘de ti’ means ‘that bag’. Which of the following means ‘that is interesting’ in that code language? A. ka de re B. ti po ka C. de si re D. ka re ma

Which area is cultivated by rice and maize only? A. 9 B. 8 C. 2 D. 7 6.

Fig. (X)

Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the Problem Figures. Problem Figures

A.

B.

C.

D.

If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’; ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’; ‘A ∅ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, then which of the following options indicate X is son of Y ? A. Y ∅ Q # R + X – T B. Y ∅ Q # X – R – T C. Y ∅ Q # R – X + T D. Y ∅ Q # R – T + X In which of the following options, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part?

Find the correct water image of the given Fig. (X).

A.

B.

C.

D.

7.

Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed in all the three figures. A. 600 60 10 21 5 54 6 B. 640 612 ? 80 C. 680 30 2 20 3 17 4 D. 630

8.

How many such pairs of letters are there in the given word each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? ENTERTAINMENT A. C.

9.

2

B. D.

A.

B.

A.

Sheet (X) B.

C.

D.

C.

D.

In the given figure, rectangle, square, circle and triangle represents the regions of wheat, gram, maize and rice cultivation respectively.

1

3 4

2

8 7

5 6

9 10 11

Four More than five

A square transparent sheet (X) with a pattern is given. Find out from the options as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line.

Fig. (X)

5.

Three Five

10. Two different positions of a dice are shown. What is the number of dots at the top, if 5 dots are at the bottom? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 3 | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1

Science 11.

Two cars, A and B are moving with a constant speed of 10 m s–1. Car A is moving on a circular path of radius r and car B is moving on a straight road. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Both cars are moving with uniform velocity. B. Distance moved and magnitude of displacement are equal for car A, at any time. C. Motion of car B is not accelerated. D. Motion of car A is non-uniform circular motion.

12. In an X-ray machine, an electron is subjected to a force of 10–23 N. Time taken by the electron (initially at rest) to cover a distance Then _____. (Take mass of A. x = 1, y = – 7 C. x = 4, y = – 6

16. A satellite is orbiting around the earth. The centripetal force on the satellite is F. The gravitational force of the earth on the satellite is also F. The net force on the satellite is A. Zero B. F F 2F D. C. 2 17. The variation of resistance of a wire at room temperature with increase in its length is tabulated here. Length of wire (m)

of 10 cm is x × 10 y s. the electron = 10–30 kg) B. x = 2, y = – 4 D. x = 2 , y = – 8

13. A convex mirror of radius of curvature R produces th

 1  an image  of the size of the object.  2 N + 1  The distance of the object from the mirror is A. NR B. 2 NR NR NR D. C. 2 ( 2 N + 1) ( 2 N + 1) 14. Two men, A and B, are facing Flat and hard wall a flat and hard wall as shown in the given figure. When man 600 m 900 m A makes a clap, man B hears two claps. The speed of sound 1200 m A in air is 320 m s–1. What is the interval between the two B claps heard by man B? A. 2.14 s B. 2.78 s C. 3.16 s D. 3.75 s 15. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the magnetic field lines produced by a current carrying circular loop?

A.

B.

C.

D.

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1 |

Resistance of wire (W) 2.5 5.0 7.5 10.0 12.5

200 400 600 800 1000

If the resistivity of the material of wire is 2 × 10–7 W m, then the area of cross-section of the wire is A. 1 × 10–6 m2 B. 2 × 10–6 m2 –6 2 C. 4 × 10 m D. 16 × 10–6 m2 18. The given figure shows the phenomenon of recombination of the spectrum of white light using two prisms. White light

5

3

1

White light

2 6

4

If V, I, B, Y, O and R denote violet, indigo, blue, yellow, orange and red colours respectively, then which of the following options correctly lists the colour of marked rays? 2 4 3 6 1 5

A. B. C. D.

R R V V

V V R R

B Y B Y

Y B Y B

I O I O

O I O I

19. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Biomass is the waste of living things and the dead parts of the living things. B. The energy obtained from biomass is called the bioenergy and it is a non-renewable source of energy. C. The main constituent of biogas is methane which has a higher calorific value than that of petrol. D. Biogas is produced by anaerobic degradation of biomass in the presence of water but in the absence of oxygen. 3

20. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : An alpha particle projected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field which is directed out of the plane of the paper. Statement 2 : If we stretch the thumb, fore finger and middle finger of our left hand such that they are mutually perpendicular, and the fore finger points in the direction of magnetic field and the middle finger in the direction of current, then the thumb will point in the direction of the force acting on the conductor. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

24. Observe the given figures carefully. P

Cork

Glass tube

Air

Clamp stand

Burner

Figure 1 Q Hydrogen Water vapours

Figure 2 Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. P is (i) and Q is (ii) . Q acts as the (iii) agent while H2 acts as the (iv) agent.



21. A boy of mass 50 kg, runs up a flight of 120 stairs, each measuring a height of 25 cm, in one minute and 40 seconds. If g = 10 m s–2 , then the power of the boy is A. 150 W B. 750 W C. 500 W D. 250 W

(i) A. Copper B. Copper hydroxide C. Copper D. Copper oxide

22. The given figure shows a ray diagram for the image formation of an object AB by a convex lens.

(ii) Copper oxide Copper carbonate Copper oxide Copper

(iii) Reducing

(iv) Oxidising

Reducing

Oxidising

Oxidising

Reducing

Oxidising

Reducing

25. In the given reactions sequence, Acidified K2Cr2O7 heat (C2H6O) (Obtained by fermentation)

X

If A′B′ < AB, then A. BX = B′X C. 2XY = BX

B. D.

XY > YB′ BY < 3YB′

23. The graph shows the change in temperature with time when ice at –20°C is heated to 120°C. Temperature/°C

120 100 80 60 40 20 0 –20

S

Q P

T

U

R Time

Which entry in the options shows the correct change taking place between the points? Points Changes A. P to Q Average energy of particles remains constant B. Q to R Ice melting C. R to S The volume of steam is increasing D. T to U Water boiling 4

Y

X acid catalyst

C4H8O2 (Used in making perfumes)

443 K conc. H2SO4



Z

X, Y A. B. C. D.

Ni/H2

C2H6

and Z are respectively CH3CH2OH, CH3COOCH3 and CH CH CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2COOH and CH2 CH2 CH3OCH3, CH3COCH2OH and CH2 CH2 CH3CH2OH, CH3COOH and CH2 CH2

26. Match the metals given in column I with the methods of extraction given in column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II P. Mercury (i) Heating with coke Q. Zinc (ii) Electrolytic reduction R. Iron (iii) Thermite reaction S. Aluminium (iv) Heating alone P Q R S A. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) B. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) C. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) D. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1

27. To write a letter with a graphite pencil, 0.001 g of carbon is required. The total number of carbon atoms used in writing the letter is A. 6.023 × 1023 B. 1 C. 5 × 1017 D. 5.02 × 1019 28. Sodium hydroxide solution is added to each of the following test tubes and heated. Sodium carbonate

Zinc I

II

Sodium bicarbonate

Aluminium

III

IV

In which test tube, the reaction will not occur? A. I B. II C. III D. IV 29. Observe the given flowchart carefully. Gunpowder Dissolve in carbon disulphide and filter

Filtrate (X)

Evaporate

Crystals of X are obtained.

Residue (Y and Z) Let it dry up

Dissolve in water and filter

Filtrate (Y)

Residue (Z)

Crystals of Y are obtained.

By drying in air, Z is obtained.

Evaporate, concentrate and crystallise

X, Y A. B. C. D.

and Z are respectively Sulphur, Charcoal and potassium nitrate Potassium nitrate, charcoal and sulphur Sulphur, potassium nitrate and charcoal Charcoal, potassium nitrate and sulphur.

30. Which of the following reactions are exothermic in nature? (i) Evaporation of water (ii) Dissolution of sodium hydroxide in water (iii) Dilution of sulphuric acid (iv) Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water (v) Combustion of methane gas A. (i), (iv) and (v) B. (ii), (iii) and (v) C. (i), (ii) and (iv) D. (i), (iii) and (iv) 31. The A. B. C. D.

31 32 atoms 30 14 Si, 15P and 16 S have the same Nucleon number Number of electrons Number of neutrons Number of protons.

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1 |

32. The positions of four elements P, Q, R and S are shown on the outline of a part of the periodic table. Element X has a high melting point and is a good conductor of electricity. It forms chlorides XCl2 and XCl3. Which element is X?

P Q

A. C.

S

R

P R

B. D.

Q S

33. Steam at 100°C is a more effective heating agent than water at the same temperature because A. Steam is a form of hot vapours and water is hot liquid B. 1 kg of water at 100°C has 22.6 × 105 joules more energy than 1 kg of steam at the same temperature C. 1 kg of steam at 100°C has 22.6 × 10 5 joules more energy than 1 kg of water at the same temperature D. None of these. 34. Find A. B. C. D.

the incorrect match. Cs and Ga – High melting point Cu – No reaction with dil. HCl Pb and Hg – Poor conductors of heat Mg and Mn – React with very dil. HNO3

35. The given flow chart shows one of the pathways of glucose breakdown. Identify ‘P’ and ‘Q’. In muscle cells In cytoplasm P Q + Energy Glucose A. Ethanol and carbon dioxide B. Pyruvate and carbon dioxide C. Pyruvate and lactate D. Ethanol and pyruvate 36. Read the following statements about the transmission of nerve impulse and select the correct ones. (i) In a neuron, nerve impulse travels from the axonal end to the dendritic end as: Axonal end Axon Cell body Dendritic end (ii) The chemicals released from the axonal end of one neuron cross the synapse and generate a similar electrical impulse in the dendrite of another neuron. (iii) A neuron transmits the nerve impulses not only to another neuron but also to the muscle cells and gland cells. (iv) The neurotransmitter released at the post-synaptic membrane, diffuses across the synapse and comes into contact with the chemoreceptor sites in the pre-synaptic membrane. A. (i) and (ii) only B. (ii) and (iii) only C. (iii) and (iv) only D. (i) and (iv) only 5

37. Study the given concept map of the cell and select the option which is correct regarding E, F, G and H. Type of cell

Has a cell wall Contains chloroplast E

A. B. C. D.

Has no cell wall

Does not contain chloroplast

Contains nucleus

F

G

Does not contain nucleus H

E can be an onion skin cell and G can be an animal nerve cell. F can be a root cell of a plant and H can be a mature mammalian RBC. E can be a leaf cell of a plant and H can be an onion skin cell. F can be a mature mammalian RBC and G can be an animal nerve cell.

38. Which of the following options is incorrect regarding the part labelled as P in the given figure?

B. C. D.

It is a paired structure present in human male reproductive system. Its duct joins with the vas deferens. It secretes slightly acidic fluid, which increases sperm motility. Its secretion is rich in fructose sugar.

39. Select the correct match out of A. Vegetative propagation through rhizome B. Asexual reproduction by spore formation C. Sexual reproduction by gamete formation D. Asexual reproduction by fragmentation

(i) and (ii) only (iii), (iv) and (v) only (iii) and (iv) only Both A and C

41. In pea plants, round seeds (R) are dominant over wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y ) are dominant over green seeds (y) . When a cross is made between a pea plant having round and yellow seeds (RrYy) with a pea plant having round and green seeds (Rryy), what fraction of the progeny will have wrinkled and green seeds? 1 A. 2 1 B. 4 3 C. 8 1 D. 8 42. Given table gives some information about the trophic levels of a food chain. Trophic level

P

A.

A. B. C. D.

the following. – Ginger, Garlic – Sugarcane, Rhizopus – Pea, Hibiscus

W X Y Z

Biomass of organisms (In kg m–2) 14 2 20 9

Energy in the trophic level (In calories) 1000 10 10,000 100

Which of the following food chains is correct with respect to the given information? A. W Y Z X B. Y Z W X C. X Z W Y D. Y W Z X 43. The epithelial tissue that lines the stomach and the intestine is A.

– Spirogyra, Yeast

40. Given figures represent certain parts/structures (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) of plants and animals. Identify the pairs of structures that are homologous to each other and select the correct option.

B.

C.

D. (i) 6

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v) | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1

44. Which of the following is an incorrect match of phylum, type of coelom present in it and a characteristic feature? Phylum Coelom Feature (i)

Chordata

Coelomate

(ii)

Echinodermata

Pseudocoelomate

(iii) Arthropoda

Dorsal hollow nerve cord Water vascular system Chitinous exoskeleton Flame cells

Coelomate

(iv) Platyhelminthes Acoelomate

A. B. C. D.

(ii) only (iv) only (i) and (iii) only (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

45. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II (a) Sleeping (i) A water-borne bacterial sickness disease (b) Hepatitis (ii) Caused by a protozoan (c) Tuberculosis (iii) A viral disease that affects liver (d) Dengue (iv) Prevented by BCG vaccine (e) Cholera (v) A viral disease transmitted by mosquito A. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (v), (e) – (i) B. (a) – (v), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii), (e) – (i) C. (a) – (ii), (b) – (v), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii), (e) – (iv) D. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii), (e) – (v)

Achievers Section 46. Nine identical resistors of resistance 1 W each are connected as shown in the given figure.

Direction: Refer to the given paragraph and answer the questions 47 and 48. Akshita has arranged the following sets of experiments to observe the reactivity of different metals. Metal X

Experiment 1

B.

0.6

0.4

Equivalent resistance ()

3.

0.4 0.2

0.2

C.

0.6

A-B B-C C-A Terminals

A-B B-C C-A Terminals

0.8 0.6

D.

0.4

Equivalent resistance ()

A.

1.

0.8

0.8

0.8

0.6

0.4

0.2

0.2

A-B B-C C-A Terminals

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1 |

A-B B-C C-A Terminals

XSO4 solution Experiment 2

Metal X ZnSO4 solution Experiment 3

She recorded her observations in the given table.

2.

Equivalent resistance ()

Equivalent resistance ()

Which of the following bar graphs best shows the equivalent resistance between terminals A and B, between terminals B and C, between terminals C and A?

AgNO3 solution

Fe

Experiment

Initially

Finally

Colour of metal

p

Silver-grey

Colourless

Blue

Grey

Reddish‑brown

Colour of solution

q

Green

Colour of metal

r

Reddish-brown

Colourless

s

Colour of solution Colour of metal

Colour of solution

47. Identify X, p, q, r and s. A. X-Mg, p-Grey, q-Colourless, r-Greenish-yellow, s-Colourless B. X-Al, p-Grey, q-Colourless, r-Grey, s-Green C. X-Au, p -Golden, q-Green, r -Silver-grey, s-Yellow D. X-Cu, p-Reddish-brown, q-Blue, r-Reddish-brown, s-Colourless 48. Decreasing order of reactivity of given metals is A. Zn > X > Fe > Ag B. X > Zn > Fe > Ag C. Zn > Fe > X > Ag D. Zn > Fe > Ag > X 7

49. Study the given figure of the chloroplast and select the correct statement regarding it. R

50. P and Q in the given graph are the action spectra of the two enzymes. The two enzymes are

Q

A.

B. C.

The photosynthetic reactions that take place in the part labelled as Q are the enzymatic reactions which require the presence of light for their occurence.

The processes involving photolysis of water and evolution of molecular oxygen take place in the part labelled as P. Synthesis of assimilatory power (ATP + NADPH) takes place in the part labelled as Q. Excess of glucose molecules synthesised during photosynthesis are stored mainly in the form of glycogen represented as R in the given figure.

P

Activity of enzyme

P

D.

Q

2

A. B. C. D.

P P P P

8

pH

: Amylase : Pepsin : Sucrase : Lactase

Q Q Q Q

: Trypsin : Trypsin : Rennin : Amylase

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1

Class 10

Set 2 Year 2015

Logical reasoning 1.

Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed in all the three figures. 3 2

A. C. 2.

256

1 5

5

3

2

2

289

4

5

3

2

B. D.

361

5.

? 3

?

2 6

(1)

Select a figure from the options which will complete the pattern in Fig. (X).

? Fig. (X)

A.

C. 3.

6.

B.

D.

2

B.

C.

D.

A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of words, rearranges them in a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement. Input

: quick heat 51 82 39 war 91 green

Step I

: green quick heat 51 82 39 war 91

Which of the following is the last step of the given input? Input : down 52 24 81 plank wood home 43. A. C.

Study the following information carefully.

(iii) (iv) (v) (vi) Who A. C.

A.

(4)

Step III is the last step of this input.

A. B. C. D.

(ii)

(3)

Step III : green 39 quick 51 heat 82 war 91

Find the correct mirror image of Fig. (X), if the mirror is placed vertically to the left.

(i)

(2)

Step II : green 39 quick heat 51 82 war 91

3C09M6PE3TE

4.

There is a certain relationship between the figures (1) and (2). Establish the same relationship between the figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the options which will replace the (?) in figure (4).

A, B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to South – while M, N, O, P and Q are five ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D. M is at one end of the line. is sitting just opposite to N? B B. A D D. E

7.

B. D.

VI VII

If ‘–’ stands for ‘division’, ‘+’ for ‘multiplication’, ‘÷’ for ‘subtraction’ and ‘×’ for ‘addition’, then which of the following options is correct? A. B. C. D.

8.

V IV

6 6 6 6

+ 20 – 12 ÷ 7 – 1 = 38 – 20 ÷ 12 × 7 + 1 = 57 + 20 – 12 ÷ 7 × 1 = 62 ÷ 20 × 12 + 7 – 1 = 70

In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part?

| 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1

10. Study the given figure carefully.

9.

A.

B.

C.

D. What is represented by the number 7?

How many pairs of letters are there in the word DIPLOMACY which have the same number of letters between them as in English alphabet ? A. C.

Three Five

B. D.

A. B. C. D.

Four Six

Married doctors in the hospital Doctors having clinics Unmarried doctors having clinics Married doctors having clinics

Science 11.

A particle moves on a one-dimensional path. If motion of the particle is described by x(t) = t 2 – 3t + 2, then which of the following statements is correct? A. B. C. D.

x(t) > 0 and a(t) > 0 for all t > 0 v(t) > 0 and a(t) > 0 for all t > 0 x(t) > 0 and v(t) > 0 for all t > 0 None of these

12. Mr. Tiwari, who cannot see objects nearer than 1 m from his eyes, wants to read a book placed at a distance of 25 cm clearly. The nature and the power of lens required by Mr. Tiwari are A. B. C. D.

Nature of the lens Convex Concave Convex Concave

Power of the lens +5 D –5 D +3 D –3 D

13. Aditya weighing 50 kg runs along the rails with a velocity of 13.5 km h–1 and jumps into a trolley of mass 1 quintal, standing on the rails. The velocity with which the trolley starts moving along the rails, is A. C.

12.5 × 102 cm s–1 12.5 × 103 mm s–1

B. D.

12.5 × 10–2 dm s–1 12.5 × 10–1 m s–1

14. A bat produces ultrasound and audible sound at the same time. Which of the following statements is true? A. B. C. D.

Ultrasound travels faster than the audible sound. Ultrasound and audible sound have the same frequency. The wavelength of the ultrasound is longer than the wavelength of the audible sound. Ultrasound and audible sound will reach the same distance at the same time.

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1 |

15. The given figure shows the motion of a planet around the sun in an elliptical orbit with the sun at the focus. The shaded areas A1 and A2 shown in figure are such that A1 > A2 . If t 1 and t 2 represent the time taken by the planet to move from P to Q and R to S respectively, then A. C.

t1 = t 2 t1 > t 2

B. D.

t1 < t 2 Data insufficient

16. The given figure shows primary and secondary rainbows.

Which of the following options correctly lists the colours of marked rays? 1 2 3 4 A. Violet Red Red Violet B. Violet Red Violet Red C. Red Violet Violet Red D. Red Violet Red Violet 17. Seven identical resistors of resistance R each are connected as shown in the given figure. If R1, R 2 and R 3 are equivalent resistances between terminals A and B, between terminals C and D, and between terminals A and C respectively, then B. R1 = R2 < R3 A. R1 = R2 > R3 C. R1 < R2 > R3 D. R1 > R2 < R3 3

18. Four identical resistors are connected to a constant voltage supply as shown in the given figure.

A. B. C. D.

If the maximum power consumed by each resistor is P when connected individually to the same voltage supply then the maximum power consumed by the combination will be A.

Zero

C.

4 P 3

B.

P

D.

3 P 4

19. An electric current passes through a straight wire. Magnetic compass are placed at the points X and Y.

A. B. C. D.

Their needles will not deflect. Only one of the needles will deflect. The needles will deflect in the same direction. The needles will deflect in the opposite directions.

20. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Work done by the centripetal force in moving a body along a circle is always zero. Statement 2 : While moving in a circle, displacement of the body is along the centripetal force at each instant. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 21. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) A. B. C. D.

Energy received from the Sun in the form of radiation is called solar energy. Sun is radiating energy at the rate of 4.5 × 1023 kJ s–1 approximately. Solar energy is available in abundance without any cost. Solar energy is the cause of wind, storm, rain and snowfall. Solar energy is pollution free. (ii) only (ii) and (iv) only (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) only None of these.

22. An ionized gas contains both positive and negative ions. It is projected towards east to a region having uniform magnetic field directed into the plane of paper, then 4

Positive ions deflect towards north and negative ions deflect towards south Positive ions deflect towards south and negative ions deflect towards north All ions deflect towards south All ions deflect towards north.

23. Four students P, Q, R and S noted the initial colour of the solutions kept in beakers I, II, III and IV. After inserting zinc rod in each solution and leaving them undisturbed for two hours, the colour of each solution was again noted in the given table. Zn

Zn

ZnSO4 (II)

Al2(SO4)3 (I)

Student Colour Initial P Final Initial Q Final Initial R Final Initial S Final

Zn

Zn

FeSO4 (III)

I II Light green Colourless Colourless Colourless Colourless Light yellow Colourless Colourless Colourless Colourless Light blue Colourless Colourless Colourless Colourless Colourless

CuSO4 (IV)

III Light green Dark green Light green Light green Light green Colourless Light green Colourless

IV Blue Colourless Blue Colourless Blue Light blue Blue Colourless

Which student observed the colour change in all the four beakers correctly? A. P B. Q C. R D. S 24. Which of the following organic compounds does not have the same chemical properties as methanol? A. C.

C2H6O C4H10O

B. D.

C5H10O C7H16O

25. If 20 g of each of the following substances is taken then, which one of them will contain the greatest number of atoms? (Atomic mass of C = 12 u, Na = 23 u, H = 1 u, F = 19 u) A. C.

Methane Hydrogen fluoride

B. D.

Sodium Carbon

26. The given apparatus shows the reaction of steam with heated solid ‘X’. Mineral wool soaked in water

X

Z

Water

Heat

The equation for the reaction is Steam + Solid ‘X’ Solid ‘Y’ + Gas ‘Z’ X, Y and Z are respectively A. Copper, Copper oxide, Oxygen B. Lead, Lead oxide, Hydrogen C. Silver, Silver oxide, Oxygen D. Iron, Iron oxide, Hydrogen. | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1

27. Melting and boiling points of five different substances are given in the table. Substance Melting point (°C) Boiling point (°C) –219 –183 P –38 357 Q –23 77 R –17 179 S 113 445 T Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. Substance (i) will have the least ordered arrangement of particles at room temperature. Substances (ii) , (iii) and (iv) have a fixed volume but no fixed shape at room temperature. Substance (v) is solid at 100°C and is liquid at 200°C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) T R A. Q S P B. P Q R T S C. P Q R S T D. R P Q T S 28. Element M forms an ion, M2+ and element X forms an ion, X2–. The electronic arrangements of these ions are shown as

M 2+ ion

X 2– ion

Which of the following statements about the elements M and X is/are incorrect? I. M is in group 2 and period 4 of the periodic table. II. M is a non-metal and X is a metal. III. X is in group 15 and period 2 of the periodic table. IV. M and X form MX type compound. V. On moving from M towards X in the periodic table, electronegativity decreases. A. II, III and V B. I and IV C. Only II D. II and III 29. 0.1 mol of a basic substance (X ) requires 25 cm3 of 8.0 mol/dm 3 hydrochloric acid for complete neutralisation. X could be 1. 3. A. C.

Al(OH)3 K2O 1 and 2 1 and 4

2. 4. B. D.

CuO NaOH 2 and 3 2 and 4

30. For the given redox reaction :

s 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1 |

A. B. C. D.

p-5, q-10, r-oxidation, s-reduction p-8, q-4, r-reduction, s-oxidation p-6, q-3, r-oxidation, s-reduction p-10, q-5, r-reduction, s-oxidation

31. Observe the given figure carefully. Flow of electrons

Metal X

Metal Y Electrolyte

For which pair of metals would electrons flow in the direction shown? Metal X Metal Y A. Copper Zinc B. Iron Aluminium C. Iron Magnesium D. Zinc Silver 32. A mixture consists of four substances. The properties of each of these substances are shown in the table. Substance

Solubility Solubility Reaction with in water in ethanol dilute nitric acid Naphthalene Insoluble Soluble No reaction Ammonium Soluble Insoluble No reaction chloride Calcium Soluble Insoluble No reaction chloride Magnesium Insoluble Insoluble Dissolves oxide to form magnesium nitrate Magnesium nitrate decomposes on heating to form solid magnesium oxide, oxygen gas and nitrogen dioxide gas. To obtain a pure dry sample of magnesium oxide from the mixture A. First dissolve the mixture in water, then add dilute nitric acid to the filtrate and finally, heat it to dryness. B. First dissolve the mixture in ethanol, then heat the filtrate to dryness. C. First dissolve the mixture in ethanol, then dissolve the residue in dilute nitric acid and finally, heat the filtrate to dryness. D. None of these. 33. Mark the correct statement.

r

2KMnO4 + 8H2SO4 + pFeSO4

Identify p, q, r and s.

qFe2(SO4)3 + 2MnSO4 + K2SO4 + 8H2O

A.

Latent heat of vaporisation is used to overcome the forces of attraction between molecules in solid state. 5

B. C. D.

During the phase change, from solid to liquid and from liquid to gas, the temperature increases. Incandescent light bulb is an example of plasma. If a few spoons of salt are dissolved in pure water then its boiling point becomes more than 100°C.

34. The schematic atomic structures of four elements are shown as

37. Which of the following statements about Spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct? A. B. C. D.

W

X

Y

Z

38. In a plant, smooth seeds (S) are dominant over wrinkled seeds(s) and green seeds (G) are dominant over orange seeds (g). A plant homozygous for smooth and green seeds is crossed with a plant having wrinkled and orange seeds. The F1 offspring are self-crossed to produce F2 generation. If a total of 144 offspring are produced, how many plants are expected to be having wrinkled and green seeds in F2 generation, according to a typical Mendelian cross?

These elements can combine with each other to form different compounds. The possible compounds are A. XW3, W2Z3, ZY2, YX4 B. W2Y3, XZ2, YZ2, XY4 C. WX3, W2Z3, YZ2, YX4 D. WX3, Z2W3, XY4, YZ2 35. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II (i) C  entrally located in animal a. Plasma membrane cells (ii) Permeable b. Cell wall (iii) S  electively permeable c. Lysosomes (iv) U  ncommon in plant cells d. Nucleus A. B. C. D.

a (ii) (ii) (iii) (i)

b (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

c (iii) (iv) (iv) (iii)

d (iv) (i) (i) (ii)

36. Read the following statements regarding epithelial tissues and select which of them are true and which of them are false. (i) Epithelial tissue is protective tissue in animal body. (ii) The lining of blood vessels, alveoli and kidney tubules are all made up of epithelial tissue. (iii) Epithelial cells have a lot of intercellular spaces. (iv) Epithelial tissues usually have no blood vessels. (v) Epithelial tissues usually rest on a thin cellular basement membrane. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) A. B. C. D. 6

F T T T

F F T T

T F F F

Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic. Leech is a freshwater form while all others are marine. Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three. All are bilaterally symmetrical.

T F T T

F F T F

A. C.

9 27

B. D.

18 81

39. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : A person who has already suffered from diseases like measles, small pox or chicken pox, becomes immune to subsequent attacks of these diseases. Statement 2 : When a particular microbe invades the same person for the second time, the immune system responds rapidly with greater vigour and eliminates the infection more quickly than the first time. A. B. C. D.

Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Statement 2 is true but statement 1 is false.

40. New plants may be grown from groups of cells that are taken from same/other plants. The given diagram shows a part of plant X. Cell samples obtained from which R of the labelled structures will grow into new plants that are genetically S identical to plant X? A. C.

P R

B. D.

P Q

Q S

41. The pea plant develops tendrils which help it to climb up a support. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the movement of tendrils in pea plant? A. B.

As the tendrils come in contact with a support, the part of tendril away from the support grows faster than the part in contact with the support. More auxin is diffused from its site of synthesis towards the side of tendril in contact with the support than the side away from the support. | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1

C. D.

The side of the tendril having more auxin grows faster than the side having less auxin. The tendrils exhibit directional movement due to growth in response to touch.

42. Read the given paragraph carefully. Red-coloured beetles are living on green leaves of bushes. These beetles increase in numbers by sexual reproduction. Crows, being their predators, consume beetles and regulate their population. During reproduction, few beetles develop green colour instead of red colour. This variation in body colour gives green coloured beetles an advantage and over the years, the number of green beetles in the population will increase generation after generation. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the given paragraph. (i) The given paragraph depicts an example of ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny. (ii) Artificial selection is exerted by crows. (iii) Natural selection is exerted by crows. (iv) More red-coloured beetles will be eaten up. (v) The given paragraph depicts an example of convergent evolution. A. (i), (iv) and (v) only B. (iii) and (iv) only C. (i), (ii) and (iii) only D. (ii) and (v) only 43. In a grassland, a large population of grass supports a fewer number of grasshoppers that support a smaller number of frogs. The latter support still smaller number of snakes and the snakes support very few falcons. Which of the following correctly represents the pyramid of numbers in this grassland? A.

B.

C.

D.

44. Which of the following contraceptive methods does not correctly match with its mode of action?

A. B.

C. D.

Contraceptive method Vasectomy Intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs) Oral pills Condoms

Mode of action – Blocks sperm transport – Prevent implantation

the sperms – Kill  – Prevent deposition of semen in vagina

45. Refer to the given diagram of human digestive system.

1

Digestive juices P, Q and R were collected from structures labelled as 1, 2 and 3 respectively. The digestive juices were then mixed with a buffer solution of pH = 2.

2 3

Small drops of these juices were then put on a strip of film coated with protein. Which of the following digestive juices will be able to digest the protein coat? A. B. C. D.

Digestive juice P only Digestive juice Q only Digestive juice R only Both digestive juices Q and R

Achievers Section 46. Two v – u graphs u are plotted using the new Cartesian sign v conventions. Here v v and u denote the u distance of image and (i) (ii) distance of object from pole (or optical centre) respectively. The graphs correspond to    (i) (ii) A. Convex mirror Convex lens B. Convex mirror Concave lens C. Concave mirror Convex lens D. Concave mirror Concave lens Direction : Refer to the given paragraph and answer the questions 47 and 48. A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1 |

solution is called pH scale. The p in pH stands for ‘potenz’ in German, meaning power. On the pH scale we can measure pH generally from 0 to 14. pH should be thought of simply as a number which indicates the acidic or basic nature of a solution. 47. pH of different solutions are given in the table. Solution P Q R S

pH 2.2–2.4 13.8–14.0 6.5–7.5 8.0–9.0

Arrange these solutions in the increasing order of OH– ion concentration. A. S < R < Q < P B. P < R < S < Q C. R < S < Q < P D. Q < S < R < P 7

48. Which of the following graphs shows the change in pH when zinc carbonate is added to hydrochloric acid until it is in excess? A.

14 pH 7 0

C.

B.

14 pH 7 0

D. Mass of ZnCO 3 added

C.

14 pH 7 0

Mass of ZnCO 3 added

Mass of ZnCO 3 added

14 pH 7 0

Mass of ZnCO 3 added

49. The thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) from the (1) stimulates the (2) to secrete the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), which in turn stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroxine. A (3) amount of thyroxine in the blood exerts (4) effect on (1) so that (5) TRH and TSH are produced. This eventually results in a (6) in thyroxine. It is called (7) feed back control. Select the option that correctly fills up the blanks in the above passage. A.

B.

(1)-Posterior lobe of pituitary gland, (2)-Hypothalamus, (3)-Low, (4)-Inhibitory, (5)-Lesser, (6)-Decrease, (7)-Negative

D.

(1)-Hypothalamus, (2)-Posterior lobe of pituitary gland, (3)-Lesser, (4)-Stimulatory, (5)-More, (6)-Increase, (7)-Positive (1)-Hypothalamus, (2)-Anterior lobe of pituitary gland, (3)-High, (4)-Inhibitory, (5)-Lesser, (6)-Decrease, (7)-Negative (1)-Anterior lobe of pituitary gland, (2) Hypothalamus, (3)-High, (4)-Stimulatory, (5)-More, (6)-Increase, (7)-Positive

50. Embryology refers to the study of development of an embryo of an organism from fertilised egg to young one. Given figures represent the Fish Reptile Bird Human early embryos of certain organisms (fish, reptile, bird and human). Select the correct inference drawn from these figures. A. An organism repeats its ancestral history during its embryonic development. B. Early embryos of all vertebrates exemplify homologous structures and divergent evolution. C. Dissimilarity in the embryos of different vertebrates shows that all the vertebrates have evolved from different ancestors. D. The complex body structures of embryos gave rise to simple body structures of adults.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1

Class 10

Set A Year 2016

logical reasoning 1.

A word-number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement. Input: huge elephant 39 dog 57 42 small 23 Step I: small huge elephant 39 dog 57 42 23 Step II: small 23 huge elephant 39 dog 57 42 Step III: small 23 huge 39 elephant dog 57 42 Step IV: small 23 huge 39 elephant 42 dog 57 Step IV is the last step of the given input. As per the rule followed in the above steps which is the last step for the given below input? Input: Mission impossible 2 13 7 Oscar winner 19. A. C.

2.

B. D.

V VII

How many pairs of letters are there in the word COMPENSATION which have the same number of letters between them as in English alphabets? A. C.

3.

IV VI

Five Six

B. D.

F

3

2

C.

G

G

B.

A.

2

G

D. 2

3

F

4.

M is sister of K. D is brother of K. F is mother of M. How is K related to F? A. Son B. Daughter C. Son or Daughter D. Wife

5.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits second to the left of D, who is third to the left of E. C sits third to the right of G, who is not an immediate neighbour of E. H sits third to the right of B, who sits second to the right of G. What is the position of A with respect to E? A. Third to the left B. Third to the right C. Second to the left D. Second to the right

A.

B.

C.

D.

The six faces of a cube are colored black, brown, green, red, white and blue, such that (i) Red is opposite to black. (ii) Green is between red and black. (iii) Blue is adjacent to white. (iv) Brown is adjacent to blue. Which of the following colors is opposite to white? A. Black B. Blue C. Brown D. Green

8.

Two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations on numbers progress from left to right. Rules:

Choose the correct mirror image of Fig. (X), if mirror is placed vertically to the left.

3

A set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper is given. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Select a figure from the options which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig. (Z).

7.

Four Seven

F

2

6.

(i)

If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be multiplied. (ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added. (iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is a perfect square, then even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square. (iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number. (v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from the first one. 10  15  5 14  11  p If p is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row? A. C.

6 5

B. D.

81 24

| 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1

9.

The following letters are coded as follows : Letter: FPMREKDAIHTU J W Digit/Symbol: 6 5 4 * 8 1 2 © 7 3 $ @ % 9 While coding the given letters following conditions are also to be observed. Conditions: (i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged. (ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter. (iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the first letter. A. C.

34@79© ©4@79©

HMUIWA

B. D.

10. In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part?

34@793 ©4@793

A.

B.

C.

D.

Science 11.

The given figure shows a P Q converging lens. The focal length and centre of C1 F1 R F2 C2 curvature of the lens are S marked along with four random points, P, Q, R and S. Which of the following set of points correctly represents the position of object and corresponding position of image? A. B. C. D.

Position of object P Q P Q

Position of image R S S P

12. Two resistance wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are connected in series in a simple electric circuit consisting of a voltage source of voltage V. Now, the same wires are connected in parallel in the same circuit for the same time but voltage source is replaced by another voltage source of voltage 2V. The ratio of heat produced in the two cases is A. C.

1:1 1:8

B. D.

1:4 1 : 16

13. A train starting from rest at one station, accelerates uniformly and attains a speed v after sometime. After travelling at this speed for sometime, it retards uniformly and stops at the next station. If R be the uniform resistance of the given track and the duration of the uniform motion is just half the total journey time, the average power supplied by the train engine is 3vR vR A. B. 2 2 3vR vR C. D. 4 4 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 |

14. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at some angle. A ray of light is incident on one of them at an angle of 35°. The light after reflection falls on the second mirror and gets reversed. The angle between the mirrors is A. C.

17.5° 52.5°

B. D.

35° 70°

15. Two identical spheres of radius R, made of a material of density r, are in contact with each other. If the gravitational attraction between them is F, then A. C.

r2 R2 r4 F∝ 6 R

F∝

B.

F ∝ r2 R 4

D.

F ∝ r4 R 4

16. A bar magnet is rotated on a shaft near to a coil which is connected to a resistor of resistance R as shown in the figure. S

N

Which of the following changes does not increase the induced current in the coil? A. B. C. D.

Moving the magnet closer to the coil. Turning the magnet in the opposite direction at the same speed. Turning the magnet in the opposite direction at a greater speed. Using a coil with more turns.

17. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : 1 atomic mass unit is equivalent to about 931 mega electron volts of energy. Statement 2 : 1 electron volt = 1.602 × 10–13 joule 3



A.



B.



C. D.

Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

18. A body is thrown vertically upward in air and air resistance is taken into account. The time of ascent is t1 and time of descent is t2 , then which of the following is true ?

A. B. C. D.

t1 = t2 t1 > t2 t1 < t2 Cannot be predicted

19. A dish of mass 10 g is kept floating horizontally in air by firing bullets, each of mass 5 g, with the same velocity, at the rate of 10 bullets per second and the bullets rebound with the same speed in opposite directions. The velocity of each bullet at the time of impact is (Take g = 10 m s–2)

A. C.

1 m s–1 10 m s–1

B. D.

5 m s–1 100 m s–1

20. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(i)

The ratio of the speed of light to the speed of sound is called the Mach number. (ii) Speed of sound increases with increase in temperature. (iii) For hearing a distinct echo, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound should be 34.4 m. (iv) Wavelength of sound audible to human lies between 17 mm to 17 m. A. (iii) only B. (ii) and (iv) only C. (i), (iii) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)



21. In the given circuit, the total current supplied by the battery is

3

6

23. The given diagram shows the energy levels of the Reactants Energy reactants and products for a particular reaction : Products Which of the following Progress of reaction processes can be related to the given diagram? A. Ethyne gas burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water along with evolution of heat. B. When solid mercury (II) oxide is heated liquid mercury and oxygen gas are produced. C. Hydrogen gas combines with chlorine gas in the presence of light to form hydrogen chloride gas. D. Potassium chlorate decomposes in presence of heat to form potassium chloride and oxygen. 24. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Solubility of solids in liquids usually decreases with decrease in temperature and the extra amount of solute crystallises out. II. The solubility of gases in liquids increases on increasing the temperature. III. Solubility of gases in liquids increases on increasing the pressure. IV. While expressing the solubility of a substance temperature is not specified. A. I and III only B. II and III only C. I, II and IV only D. III and IV only 25. The given table shows a part of the periodic table. Groups → Periods ↓ 2 3

A. C.

1 A 3 A

3

B. D.

A. C. 4

–2.5 D – 6.25 D

B. D.

2A 6A

+2.5 D +1.5 D

13

14

15

16

Q P

S

T

17

18

R U

(98.89%) (99.6%)

100

22. A long-sighted person cannot see objects clearly at a distance less than 40 cm from his eye. The power of the lens needed to read an object at 25 cm is

3 to 12

P, Q, R, T and U are respectively A. Mg, S, Ar, Al, and Ne B. O, Mg, Ar, P and Ne C. Mg, O, Ne, P and Ar D. O, Mg, Ne, P and Ar

(% abundance)





2

26. Observe the given graph carefully and find the relative atomic mass of the isotopes.

4 6V

1

80 60 40 20

(19.9%) (0.37%) n = 5, n = 6, n = 7, n = 8, p=5 p=6 p=7 p=7 Atomic mass (u)



A. C.

27.86 u 14.86 u

B. D.

13.99 u 15.98 u

| 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1

Volume of gas (cm3)

27. Daivik, a class 10 student studied the reaction between a carbonate and an acid ,in the lab. His results are shown in the given graph : Experiment 1

Experiment 2 Time(s)

Which of the following experimental conditions did he use? Experiment 1

Experiment 2

A. (i) Excess acid, 5 g

Excess acid, 5 g carbonate, 40°C

B. (ii) Excess acid, 4 g

Excess acid, 1 g carbonate

carbonate, 20°C carbonate

C. (iii) 200 cm3 of 0.5 mol/dm3 100 cm3 of 1 mol/dm3 acid, excess carbonate

acid, excess carbonate

D. (iv) 150 cm3 of 0.1 mol/dm3 50 cm3 of 0.5 mol/dm3 acid, excess carbonate acid, excess carbonate 28. 8 g of E2O3 contains 5.6 g of ‘E’. How many moles of E does 16.8 g of the element ‘E’ contain? A. 0.1 B. 0.2 C. 0.3 D. 0.75 29. In an experiment, 5 cm3 of 1.0 mol/dm3 NaOH solution is gradually added to stirrer 10 cm3 of 1.0 mol/dm3 HCl solution containing methyl orange 5 cm3 of indicator. 1.0 mol/dm3 Which of the following changes will occur in the mixture?

A. B. C. D.

NaOH

10 cm3 of 1.0 mol/dm3 HCl and methyl orange

pH of the resultant solution increases. The methyl orange indicator changes colour from red to yellow. Number of moles of water decreases and beaker gets warmed up. A precipitate is formed.

30. The electronic configuration of an ion Z 2– is 2, 8. If the number of neutrons present in the parent atom ‘Z’ is 11 then the nucleon number of ‘Z’ is A. 16 B. 19 C. 20 D. 21 31.

The given diagram shows the arrangement of valence electrons in organic compound Q, having molecular formula X2YZ 2. What could be the compound Q? A. Methanol B. C. Methanoic acid D.

19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 |

Z X

Y

Z

X

32. Some properties of substances P, Q, R and S are given in the table : SubM. pt. (°C) B.pt. (°C) Electrical stance conductivity 44 280 Good P –7.2 59 Poor Q –101 –35 Poor R –39 357 Good S Which of the given substances represents a gaseous non-metal at room temperature? A. P B. R C. Q D. S 33. Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the given codes. Column I Column II P. A metal that forms (i) Cu two types of oxides Q. A metal used in hot (ii) Ag water apparatus R. A metal which can (iii) Fe displace hydrogen from steam only (iv) Zn S. A metal that does not react with air even at high temperature A. P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv) B. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iii), (iv), S-(ii) C. P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(i) D. P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iv), (ii) 34. Ms. Neelam, a class 10 teacher took Cu, Al, Pb and Zn strips respectively in four test tubes labelled as I, II, III and IV and added 10 mL of freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution to each test tube as shown in the figure :

Black residue would be obtained in test tubes A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. II and IV only. 35. Refer to the given table and select the incorrect statement regarding organelles X and Y. Cell organelle Function Helps in intracellular digestion X and autophagy Modifies, sorts and packages the Y materials coming from ER A.

Ethanol Ethanoic acid

B.

Organelle X arises from joint activity of endoplasmic reticulum and organelle Y. The membrane and hydrolytic enzymes of X are synthesised in Y. 5



C.



D.

Organelle X is abundant in leucocytes and macrophages whereas it is absent in mammalian red blood corpuscles. If organelle Y is absent in tadpole of frog then it will never metamorphose into an adult frog.

(ii) Organisms P and R are diploblastic whereas organism Q is triploblastic. (iii) Bodies of organisms P and Q are metamerically segmented. (iv) Organism Q bears special paired locomotory appendages called parapodia however in organism R tube feet helps in locomotion. (v) Excretion in organisms P and Q takes place by flame cells and nephridia respectively.

36. Shown below is the diagrammatic representation of an animal tissue, X.

Tissue X Which of the following holds true regarding this tissue? A. Tissue X is abundantly present in fat bodies of frog and blubber of whale. B. Tissue X is a type of dense connective tissue. C. Tissue X fills the spaces inside many organs and is commonly called packaging tissue of body. D. Tissue X is very strong and non-flexible vertebrate tissue.



37. Ritu was suffering from high fever for many days. Doctor advised her some antipyretic which she took according to the prescribed doses. Her temperature went down to normal but reoccurrence of fever continued. Doctor then advised Ritu to get her blood test done to rule out the presence of some antibodies and then gave her medications accordingly. She recovered soon. The given graphs show the result of her blood tests during illness (graph I) and after recovery (graph II).

What could be inferred from the given graphs? A. Ritu suffered from three kinds of pathogenic infections simultaneously. B. This time Ritu suffered only from that pathogenic infection for which her body produced antibody Q. C. Ritu might be vaccinated or had contracted the actual diseases in her life for which her body produced antibodies P and R. D. Both B and C



38. Refer to the given figure showing three different organisms P, Q and R. Select the correct statement(s) regarding these organisms. (i) Organism Q has true coelom whereas organisms P and R are pseudocoelomates. 6

A. C.

(ii) and (iii) only (iv) and (v) only

B. D.

(v) only (i) only

39. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g i s t r u e i n c a s e o f intercropping?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Crops are grown in definite pattern of rows. Fertilisers cannot be applied easily to different crops. Crops can be harvested and threshed separately. Spraying of pesticides for separate crops is not possible. (v) Seeds are mixed before sowing. A. (i), (iv) and (v) only B. (i) and (iii) only C. (iii) and (v) only D. (iv) and (v) only

40. Which of the following statements are incorrect about vegetative propagation in plants?

(i)



(ii)



(iii)



(iv)



(v)



A. B. C. D.

It makes possible the propagation of some seedless fruit plants like banana, etc. It is the means to produce genetically identical offspring. It makes plants more adaptable to the changing environmental conditions. Vegetative propagation by plant tissue culture can be used for the production of disease-free plants. It brings adequate dispersal of vegetative propagules and thus reduces over-crowding. (ii) and (iv) only (ii), (iv) and (v) only (i), (iii) and (iv) only (iii) and (v) only

41. Some humans are able to roll their tongue, while others are not. Two parents (both tongue-rollers) have four children, all of whom are not tongue-rollers. Which of the following statements hold true regarding this?

(i) The allele for tongue-rolling is dominant. (ii) The probability that their next child will be a tongue-roller is 0.5. (iii) The probability that their next child will not be a tongue roller is 0.75. (iv) Both parents have one allele for tongue-rolling and one allele for non-tongue-rolling. A. (i) and (iii) only B. (i) and (iv) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (ii) and (iv) only | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1

42. Refer to the given illustration.

Select the correct statement regarding this. A. The hormone secreted in large amounts in phase III is also responsible for maintaining pregnancy in human females. B. Primary follicle of ovary matures into Graafian follicle in phase II. C. Corpus luteum secretes progesterone in phase I however it degenerates completely in phase III. D. Both A and B

What could be inferred from the process illustrated above? A. B. C. D.

The given process illustrates speciation through genetic drift. The given process illustrates speciation through reproductive isolation. The given process depicts an example of natural selection. The given process depicts an example of artificial selection.

43. The given diagram shows a normal 28 day menstrual cycle in a human female.

44. Read the given paragraph. Photosynthesis in plants consists of two phases: X and Y. Phase X requires light energy and occurs in granum of chloroplast whereas phase Y is light independent and occurs in stroma of chloroplast. Which of the following holds true regarding phases X and Y of photosynthesis? A. B. C. D.

In phase X, light energy is used up in photolysis of water and molecular oxygen is evolved. In phase Y, electrons and protons are used up in synthesis of assimilatory power. Assimilatory power generated in phase Y is used up in phase X to convert CO2 into carbohydrates. Phase X utilises carbon dioxide gas of atmosphere whereas phase Y evolves oxygen gas that escapes into atmosphere.

45. Refer to the given food chain operating in an aquatic ecosystem.

When a new species X was introduced into this community, the population of platy fish rose and population of catfish fell over subsequent two weeks. Species X is most likely to be A. B. C. D.

Another herbivore like platy fish A predator of Daphnia only A predator of catfish only A predator of platy fish and prey of shark .

Achievers Section 46. The given figure shows the I-V curve (i) for a nichrome wire of fixed length and cross-section. I(A)

(ii) (i)

V(V)

Which of the following will yield the curve (ii)? A. Increase the length of nichrome wire. B. Decrease the thickness of nichrome wire. C. Replace the nichrome wire with a similar copper wire. D. None of these. 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 |

Direction: Refer to the given paragraph and answer the questions 47 and 48. An organic compound ‘A’ on heating with concentrated H2SO 4 forms a compound ‘B’ which on addition of one mole of hydrogen in presence of Ni forms a compound ‘C’. One mole of compound ‘C’ on combustion forms two moles of CO2 and three moles of H2O. 47. Which of the following represents the compound ‘C’? A. C2H6, a saturated hydrocarbon B. C2H4, an unsaturated hydrocarbon C. HCOOH, an unsaturated acid D. C2H5OH, a saturated alcohol 7

48. When ‘B’ and ‘C’ are added separately to the test tubes containing orange-brown liquid ‘X’, the colour disappears in case of ‘B’ but remains same in case of ‘C’. The name of the liquid ‘X’ and the substance responsible for colour change are respectively A. B. C. D.

Alkaline KMnO4 solution and ethanoic acid Alkaline KMnO4 and ethanol Bromine water and 1, 2-dibromoethane Bromine water and 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrabromoethane.

49. The given diagram shows a congenital defect in which the ventricular septum of the human heart fails to form fully resulting in a 'hole in the heart'.

C. D.

A reduction in the amount of oxygen brought to body cells A reduction in the pressure of blood entering the lungs.

50. Read the given statements each with one, two or three blanks and select the option that correctly fills any four of these. (i) An ecological pyramid of numbers is upright in P ecosystem and inverted in Q food chain. (ii) Pyramid of biomass is upright in inverted in S ecosystem.

R

and

(iii) Gases like CO 2 allow the T wave heat radiations of sun to reach the earth's surface but do not allow the U wave heat radiations reemitted by earth to escape, thereby causing V flux.

Ventricular septal defect

Which of the following would not be a likely consequence of this disease? A. B.

A reduction in the pressure of blood leaving through the aorta A reduction in the percentage of oxygenated blood in the aorta

(iv) Large amount of W is added to the atmosphere by marshes, paddy fields and biogas plants. A. P-Grassland, Q-Aquatic, T-Long, W-Sulphur dioxide B. Q-Parasitic, S-Pond, U-Long, W-Methane C. Q-Detritus, R-Pond, V-Greenhouse, W-Chlorofluorocarbon D. P-Parasitic, T-Short, U-Long, W-Carbon monoxide

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1

Class 10

Set B Year 2016

logical reasoning 1.

There are seven figures, the first and the last of which are un-numbered and the remaining are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series. However, one of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. The number of that figure is the answer.

A.

B.





C.

A. C.

2.

If ‘



‘×’ and ‘+’ denotes ‘÷’, then 20 + 25 × 5 − 3 = ? A. 63 B. 10 C. 31 D. 1015

3.

4.

5.

3 5

B. D.

4 1

6.

’ denotes ‘square’, ‘×’ denotes ‘+’, ‘–’ denotes

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below: Eight friends Q, R, S, T, V, W, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. There are three males and five females in the group of friends. No two males are immediate neighbours of each other. (i) V sits second to the right of his wife. (ii) S sits third to the right of V. (iii) W sits second to the right of her husband Z. Z is not an immediate neighbour of V's wife. (iv) T is a male and Y is not an immediate neighbour of V. (v) R sits second to the right of Q. Which of the following statements regarding S is definitely correct? A. S is one of the male members of the group. B. Both the immediate neighbours of S are females. C. S sits third to the left of T. D. W is an immediate neighbour of S. Sunil walks towards the East from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked towards the East. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and B? A. Four B. Two C. Three D. Can't be determined

7. 8. 9.



D.





How many such 5's are there in the given below arrangement each of which is immediately preceded as well as followed by an even digit? 949232595858543181747652126 132462 A. None B. One C. Two D. Three If ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is father of B’, ‘A # B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’, ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is sister of B’, then how is K related to M in H @ K $ L # M ? A. Husband B. Uncle C. Father D. Can't be determined Which of the following options show the face opposite to the face having + in the given net? A. D + B. M D C. A M D. A If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the seventh, the eighth and the ninth letters of the word HOARDINGS which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer. A. N B. S C. Y D. X

10. In the given Venn diagram, the triangle represents the houses having scooter, the square represents the houses having bike, the rectangle represents the houses having car and the circle represents the houses having washing machines. How many houses have scooter and car only ?

There is a certain relationship between figures (1) and (2). Establish a similar relationship between figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the given options that would replace the (?) in fig. (4).

2



A. C.

18 10

B. D.

22 14

| 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

SCIENCE 11.

The given diagram shows a ray of light travelling from medium X to medium Y. Medium X

A Split rings

30°

C. D.

S D Brushes

K

Which of the following statements is not correct ?

B.

C

Axle

Medium Y

A.

B N

60° 45° 45°

15. The given diagram shows an electric motor.

The refractive index of medium Y with respect to medium X is 2. The speed of light ray is slower in medium X than that in medium Y. Optical density of medium Y is greater than that of medium X. Frequency of light ray remains same in both media X and Y.

12. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recast into a wire 2 th of its original length, then resistance of the new 5 wire will be 2 R A. R B. 5 2 2 2 R C. D.   R . 5 5 13. A force of magnitude F1 accelerates a body of mass m from rest to a speed v. Another force F2 accelerates a body of mass 2m from rest to a speed 2v. The ratio of work done by force F2 to that by force F1 is A. 1 : 16 B. 16 : 1 C. 1 : 8 D. 8 : 1. 14. Two rays of light are incident normally on water. Both the rays pass through glass slabs of different heights, as shown in the figure. Refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If c is the speed of light in vacuum, then the time difference between the rays of light to reach the bottom is

h1

H h2

A.

H 2c

B.

8H 9c

C.

H − h1 − h2 3c

D.

h1 − h2 . 6c

19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 |

State the direction of movement of sides AB and CD when the key is switched on. Movement of AB Movement of CD A. Upwards Upwards B. Upwards Downwards C. Downwards Upwards D. Downwards Downwards 16. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. The minimum wind velocity for a windmill to function is 15 km h–1. B. For the operation of the ocean thermal energy conversion plants, the temperature difference between the water at the surface and water at depth upto 2 km should be 2°C. C. The value of solar constant is approximately 1.4 kW m–2. D. Nuclear energy is expressed in electron volts where 1 electron volt = 1.6 × 10–19 joules. 17. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of masses m1 and m 2 . When the toy carts are released, then spring exerts equal and opposite average force for the same time on both the toy carts. If there is no friction between the toy carts and the ground, then the velocity of toy carts are A. In opposite directions but in inverse ratio of masses B. In opposite directions but in direct ratio of masses C. Equal but in opposite directions D. Equal but in same direction. 18. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an P Q R S T equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q, R, S and T of identical shape and of the same material as P are now added as shown in the given figure. The same ray will now suffer A. Greater deviation B. Lesser deviation C. No deviation D. Same deviation. 19. A raft of wood of density 0.8 × 103 kg m–3 and mass 120 kg floats in water. How much weight should be put on the raft to make it just sink? A. 20 kg B. 30 kg C. 40 kg D. 80 kg 3

20. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : For a given time interval, average velocity has single value while average speed can have many values. Statement 2 : Velocity is the speed of an object moving in a definite direction. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 21. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option. Column I Column II P. Inner ear 1. Hammer Q. Outer ear 2. Auditory canal R. Middle ear 3. Pinna 4. Anvil 5. Auditory nerve 6. Cochlea   P   Q   R A. (1, 2) (3, 4) (5, 6) B. (2, 6) (3, 5) (1, 4) C. (5, 6) (2, 3) (1, 4) D. (2, 6) (1, 5) (3, 4) 22. The equivalent resistance of the given network of X resistances between points X and Y is A. 4 W B. 14 W Y C. 20 W D. 68 W.

25. Rahul, a class 10 student performed the following experiments in lab :

Anhydrous CuSO4

Green vitriol

Spirit lamp for slow heating

30 

(1)



I.

Colour of CuSO4 changes from white to blue in experiment 1. II. Colour of green vitriol changes from green to blue in experiment 1. III. A mixture of SO 2 and CO 2 is evolved in experiment 2. IV. White residue is left behind in test tube in experiment 2. A. I and IV only B. I, II and III only C. III and IV only D. II, III and IV only

1

(3)

Melting and boiling points of three substances are given in the table : Substance m.pt.(°C) b.pt.(°C) – 40 60 X 613 1214 Y –180 –160 Z

Electron Neutron Proton 10 12 11 17 20 17 10 10 8 10 10 10 17 18 17

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

P is a cation while R is an anion. Q and T are atoms of different elements. S has a nucleon number 20 and it is a noble gas. None of these.

A. B. C. D.

27. Observe the rate of evolution of hydrogen gas with five metals P, Q, R, S and T at room temperature.

Bubbles of hydrogen gas

4

(2)

Atom or ion P Q R S T

8

24 

24. Three different states of matter are shown in figures 1, 2 and 3.

(2)

Bunsen burner for strong heating

Which of the given observations are incorrect?

60 

23. Which of the following statements is correct? A. When a salt is dissolved in water, neutralisation reaction takes place. B. KNO3 when dissolved in water will give solution having pH < 7. C. When CuSO 4 is dissolved in water, it gives a solution having pH < 7. D. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 has pH = 7.

(1)

Residue from experiment 1

26. The given table shows the number of electrons, neutrons and protons in some atoms or ions of elements :

3 20 



Substances which exist in state 1 and 3 at room temperature are respectively A. X and Y B. X and Z C. Z and Y D. None of these.

Metal P

dil. HCl

dil. HCl

dil. HCl Metal Q

Metal R

Identify metals P, Q, R, S and P Q R A. Zn Al Mg B. Mg Al Zn C. Al Zn Mg D. Fe Zn Mg

Metal T

Metal S

T. S Cu Fe Fe Al



T Fe Cu Cu Cu

| 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

29. A compound ‘P’ having molecular formula, C3H6O2 reacts with Na metal to form a compound ‘Q’ and evolves a gas which burns with a pop sound. Compound ‘P’ on treatment with an alcohol ‘R’ in presence of an acid forms a sweet smelling compound ‘S’ having molecular formula, C5H 10 O 2 . On addition of NaOH to ‘P’, it gives ‘Q’ and water. ‘S’ on treatment with NaOH solution gives back ‘Q’ and ‘R’. Identify P, Q, R and S.    P   Q   R   S A. Ethanoic Ethanol Sodium Ethyl acid ethanoate ethanoate B. Propanoic Sodium Methanol Methyl acid propanoate propanoate C. Propanoic Sodium Ethanol Ethyl acid propanoate propanoate D. Ethanoic Sodium Ethanol Ethyl acid ethanoate ethanoate 30. The number of atoms of Mg, S and O present in 0.5 moles of MgSO4 are respectively (Given : Atomic mass of O = 16 u, Mg = 24 u, S = 32 u) A. 3.01 × 1023, 3.01 × 1023 and 12.04 × 1023 B. 3 × 1023, 3 × 1023 and 1.2 × 1023 C. 3.01 × 1023, 2.05 × 1023 and 12.04 × 1023 D. 3 × 1023, 12.05 × 1023 and 12.04 × 1023 31. X, Y and Z are elements of the same period in the periodic table. ‘X’ forms an acidic oxide, ‘Y’ forms a basic oxide and ‘Z’ forms an amphoteric oxide. Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing atomic numbers? A. X, Y, Z B. X, Z, Y C. Y, X, Z D. Y, Z, X 32. The given chromatogram was prepared using spots of five different inks :

Solvent flow

Starting line

How many different types of dyes were used to make these five inks? A. 3 B. 5 C. 4 D. 10 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 |

33. Excess of sodium hydroxide Y pellets are added to dilute hydrochloric acid and the Z temperature change of the mixture was measured over a period of time. The given graph W X shows the temperature change Time (s) with time. What can be inferred from the graph? A. Bonds are broken only during XY, so the temperature rises. B. Bonds are formed only during YZ, so the temperature drops. C. The reaction is exothermic as the temperature increases from X to Y. D. Both A and B. Temperature (°C)

28. In the given Venn diagram, points 1, 2 and 3 represent Solid 1 Liquid different colloidal systems : 3 2 Which of the following Gas best represents points 1, 2 and 3? 1   2 3 A. Boot polish Smoke Mist B. Whipped cream Dust fumes Hair cream C. Coloured glasses Fog Soap lather D. Milk Pumice stone Paints

34. The given set-up was arranged by Sachita to find the reactivity order of metals : Copper

(1)

X nitrate solution

Metal X

Metal Y

Y nitrate solution (2)

(3)

Copper nitrate solution

She recorded her observations as follows : 1.

Clean copper metal did not react with 1 molar solution of metal X nitrate. 2. Clean metal X dissolved in 1 molar solution of metal Y nitrate and metal Y was deposited. 3. Clean metal Y did not react with 1 molar copper nitrate solution. Metals X and Y could be respectively A. Gold and aluminium B. Zinc and iron C. Lead and silver D. Gold and silver.

35. Which of the following comparisons of the two birth control methods used by women are correct?

B. C.

Contraceptive pills No implantation of embryo No menstruation Reversible

D.

Ovulation occurs

A.

Tubal ligation Implantation of embryo occurs Menstruation occurs Reversibility is very poor No ovulation

36. Read the given statements that refer to natural selection. (i) Competition between organisms alters their genes. (ii) Parent organisms transmit useful and adaptable characteristics to the next generation. (iii) Organisms vary in their adaptations. (iv) Only one species can occupy an ecological niche. (v) Well-adapted organisms survive and reproduce. 5

Which statements summarise the theory of evolution by natural selection? A. (i),(ii),(iii) and (v) only B. (i),(ii),(iv) and (v) only C. (ii),(iii) and (v) only D. (ii),(iii),(iv) and (v) only 37. Refer to the given figures and select the correct option. Q

Leaf

Identify hormones P and Q. P A. Oxytocin B. Insulin C. Adrenaline D. Glucagon

Q Thyroxine Thymosin Oxytocin Vasopressin

40. Refer to the diagram showing an overview of the human nervous system. System Q

System P

Brain

Leaf

Stem

E

P

A. B. C. D.

Structures P and Q provide morphological and anatomical evidence to trace evolutionary relationships. P and Q are analogous organs as they have similar basic structural design and origin but perform different functions. Structures P and Q depict convergent evolution in plants. P and Q are homologous organs as they are quite different in fundamental structure and origin but perform similar function.

38. Refer to the given food web operating in an ecosystem. Large fish Frog X

Tadpole

Water beetle

Aquatic plants

39. Shown here are feedback control mechanisms of two hormones P and Q.

6

Releasing factor

Pituitary

Releases

Hormone Q

Level rises than normal Level falls than normal Mechanism II

Stimulatory effect

Accumulation Mechanism I

Inhibitory effect

Hormone P

Hypothalamus Stimulatory effect

Releases

A F B G

Based on the diagram which of the following observations is incorrect? A. The flow of nerve impulse through a reflex arc will be from A → E → F → G → B. B. Pain receptor could be an example of structure A. C. System P is central nervous system and system Q is peripheral nervous system. D. E is motor neuron, F is sensory neuron and G is relay neuron. 41. Refer to the given Venn diagram of types of muscles and select the correct option regarding their characteristics P, Q and R.

Insect larvae

A new species Y was introduced in this community which exclusively drove away species X from this area. What could be correctly assumed about species X and Y? A. Species Y could be a competitor of species X and competitively excluded the latter. B. Species Y could be a predator of species X and exclusively preyed upon it. C. Species X is a carnivore but species Y is an omnivore therefore is exposed to more food options. D. Both A and B

Pituitary

Spinal cord

A. B. C. D.

P – Presence of light and dark bands, Q – Unbranched, R – Uninucleate and involuntary P – Multinucleate and voluntary, Q – Branched, R – Never get fatigued P – Branched, Q – Presence of light and dark bands, R – Uninucleate and involuntary P – Unbranched, Q – Never get fatigued, R – Multinucleate and involuntary

42. In cats, the allele for short hair is dominant to that for long hair. A long-haired male cat mates with a homozygous short-haired female cat. What is the expected appearance of hair in their progeny? A. 100% short-haired B. 100% long-haired C. 50% long-haired and 50% short-haired D. 75% short-haired and 25% long-haired | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

43. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding V, W, X, Y and Z. Seed bearing plants

Which of the following statements regarding the experiment is true?

No

V

A.

No

W

B.

No

X

C.

No

Y

Yes

Seeds enclosed in ovary Yes

Seeds have two cotyledons Yes

Leguminous plants

D.

Yes

A. B. C. D.

Z

Species V consists of male and female cones formed by aggregation of micro and megasporophylls. In W, xylem consists of only vessels and tracheids are absent, however phloem consists of only companion cells. Species X may show parallel venation in leaves and scattered vascular bundles in stem. Y could be pea or beans whereas Z could be rice or wheat.

44. 10 cm3 each of solution X was poured into two separate Visking tubings. One Visking tubing was then placed in a test tube filled with 20 cm3 of solution Y, while other was placed in a boiling tube filled with 20 cm3 of solution Z. It may be assumed that the solutes in the solutions are too large to pass through the Visking tubing. The diagram shows the appearance of the Visking tubings after 20 minutes. Visking tubing

Visking tubing

Solution X

Solution X

Solution Y Setup P

Solution Z Setup Q

The amount of solute in each Visking tubing will change at the end of experiment. Solution X is hypotonic to solution Y and hypertonic to solution Z. The concentration of solute is highest in solution Z followed by X and Y. Both B and C

45. Refer to the given dichotomous key and identify P, Q, R, S, T and U. I.

(a) It is a communicable disease. – Go to II (b) It is a non-communicable disease. – Go to V II. (a) Direct transmission – Go to III (b) Indirect transmission – Go to IV III. (a) Spreads through sexual contact – P (b) Spreads through physical contact and – Q use of infected articles IV. (a) Transmitted through vectors – R (b) Spreads through contaminated – S food and water V. (a) Uncontrolled proliferation of cells – T (b) Hypersensitivity to certain – U antigens such as dust, pollen, etc. A. B. C. D.

P – Gonorrhoea, Q – Measles, R – Malaria, S – Cholera, T – Cancer, U – Hay fever P – Syphilis, Q – Small pox, R – Elephantiasis, S –Tetanus, T – Cancer, U – AIDS P – Hepatitis – B, Q – Syphilis, R – Tuberculosis, S –Kala azar, T – Plague, U – Cretinism P – AIDS, Q – Rabies, R – Sleeping sickness, S – Dengue, T – Yellow fever, U – Conjunctivitis

Achievers Section Direction: Refer to the given paragraph and answer questions 46 and 47. The table shows the melting points and boiling points of six elements P, Q, R, S, T and U. These elements represent consecutive members of periods 3 and 4 of the periodic table. Element P Q R S T U

Melting point (°C) 44 120 –101 –189 64 851

Boiling point (°C) 280 445 –35 –186 760 1494

46. If S is a noble gas, then the bond formed between T and R is A. Ionic B. Covalent C. Coordinate D. No bond is formed between T and R. 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 |

47. 0.2 mol of the chloride of element U reacts with excess of silver nitrate to form 57.4 g of silver chloride. The formula of chloride is (Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, O = 16 u, Cl = 35.5 u, Ag = 108 u) A. UCl B. UCl2 C. UCl3 D. UCl5 48. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of magnetic field (B) produced by a current carrying straight wire with the distance (r) from it ? B

B

B.

A. B

r

r

B

C.

D. r

r

7

49. Refer to the given diagram of a part of human male reproductive system and select the correct option regarding structures W, X, Y and Z.

50. Refer to the given flow chart which summarises the process of formation of blood clot. Identify P, Q, R, S and T. Injury

Y

W

In the region of injury, platelets rupture Releases

P

Z

Q

X

Converts

R

A. B. C. D.

Ca2+, Proteins

During vasectomy a small portion of Z is cut to prevent transport of sperms. W carries urine at the time of urination and semen at the time of ejaculation. Y and Z are paired structures which secrete an alkaline fluid that helps in lubrication of penis. If X is absent in a male then fructose sugar will be absent in his semen and sperms will not get sufficient energy to move in the female reproductive tract.

Formed in the liver in the presence of S

A. B. C. D.

Ca2+

Thrombin Catalyses

Fibrinogen

T Polymerisation and clot formation

P – Prothrombin, Q –Thromboplastin, R – Prothrombinase, S – Vitamin K, T – Fibrin P – Thromboplastin, Q –Prothrombinase, R – Prothrombin, S – Vitamin K, T – Fibrin P – Thromboplastin, Q –Prothrombin, R – Prothrombinase, S – Vitamin B, T – Fibrin P – Prothrombin, Q –Prothrombinase, R – Thromboplastin, S – Vitamin K, T – Fibrin

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

Class 10

Set A Year 2017

LOGICAL REASONING 1.

How many pairs of letters are there in the word SUPPOSITION which have as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? A. 4 B. 6 C. 7 D. More than 7

2.

Which of the following figures will complete the given figure matrix?

6.

A. 4 C. 1 7.

?

A. 3.

B.

C.

4.

5.

C.

There are seven figures, the first and last of which are unnumbered and the remaining five are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series. However, one of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. Select the figure that does not fit into the series.

8.

Study the given information and answer the following question. (i) 'P × Q' means 'P is father of Q'. (ii) 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is daughter of Q'. (iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is sister of Q'. (iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is husband of Q'. Which of the following indicates X is mother of W? A. W – Y ÷ X + Z B. W ÷ Y – X ÷ Z C. W + Y ÷ X – Z D. W – Y ÷ X – Z

9.

Count the number of triangles and rectangles respectively in the given figure. A. 22 and 8 B. 20 and 9 C. 21 and 9 D. None of these

D.

Read the following information and answer the question that follows. (i) Four persons P, Q, R and S eat mango, apple, orange or guava from Monday to Thursday. No two persons eat the same fruit on a day. Each of them eats only one fruit on a day and does not repeat it any other day. (ii) Neither R nor S eats orange or guava on Tuesday. (iii) Q eats apple on Wednesday. (iv) P eats guava on Monday. (v) R does not eat mango on Thursday. (vi) S eats apple on Monday. Which fruit does R eat on Monday? A. Apple B. Mango C. Guava D. Orange

10. Select the correct water image of Fig. (X).

Fig. (X) Fig. (X)

Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed either row wise or column wise. A. 16 C. 24

B. 21 D. 8

2

5 3 1 2 4 A. 1 B. 4 C. 5 D. 2

Fig. (X)

B.

4

B. 5 D. 7

D.

Which of the following options satisfies the same conditions of placement of dots as in Fig. (X)?

A.

In the given Venn diagram, square represents graduates, triangle represents self-employed people and circle represents the females. 1 Which of the following numbers 3 represent males who are graduates 7 5 6 and self-employed?

14 12 84 11 ? 88 18 9 81

B.

A.

C.

D.

SCIENCE 11.

2

The diagram shows a circuit containing three light bulbs. The circuit is connected to a 12 V battery. What is the current I flowing across 6 W light bulb?

A. B. C. D.

1 A 2A 0.67 A 0.92 A

12 V 4W I

3

W

6W

| NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1

12. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, then the new time period will become A. 10 hours B. 80 hours C. 40 hours D. 20 hours. 13. An ultrasound is used to measure the distance from the ship to the sea bed. A cathode ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.) placed in the ship traces a pulse sent from the ship and reflected pulse that returns. The time-base setting for the x-axis is 50 ms per division. The speed of ultrasound in water is 1500 m s–1. Find the distance from the ship to the sea bed. A. B. C. D.

450 600 900 750

m m m m

Pulse sent from ship

Reflected pulse from sea bed

18. An apartment block receives water from a nearby reservoir. A pump is necessary to lift the water into a storage tank at the top of the building. The acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s–2 . Tank

Reservoir

10 m Pump

50 m

One division = 50 ms

14. Let the refractive index of a denser medium with respect to a rarer medium be µ 12 and its critical angle qC . At an angle of incidence A when light is travelling from denser medium to rarer medium, a part of the light is reflected and the rest is refracted and the angle between reflected and refracted rays is 90°. What is the relation between angle A and qC? B. sec A = cos qC A. tan A = sin qC C. sin A = tan qC D. cos A= sec qC 15. A variable force F acting on F (N) a particle of mass m kg is 6 indicated by the force-time 3 graph as shown. The change 0 2 4 in momentum of the particle –3 over the time interval from –6 0 to 6 s is B. 6 kg m s–1 A. 4 kg m s–1 –1 C. 10 kg m s D. 12 kg m s–1.

6

t (s)

16. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Focal length of a spherical mirror  depends on distances of object and image from the mirror. Statement 2 : Focal length of a spherical mirror is equal  to the radius of curvature of spherical mirror. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 17. Which of the following statements are incorrect? (i) A typical solar cell can produce about 0.5 W electricity when exposed to the Sun. (ii) One atomic mass unit (u) is equivalent to about 931 MeV of energy. NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 |

(iii) The hydrogen bomb is based on thermonuclear fission reaction. (iv) Solar cells are less expensive and highly efficient. (v) India receives solar energy equivalent to 500 trillion kWh per year. A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (iii) and (iv) only C. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only D. (ii), (iv) and (v) only

How much energy does the pump supply to lift each kilogram of water into the tank? A. 50 J B. 100 J C. 400 J D. 500 J 19. Figure shows PQ, QR, RS and SP, the P walls of room PQRS, each measuring 8 m. The wall PQ has a full length plane mirror. A camera is placed at M the mid point of wall SR. In order to take clear image of the point R, S M the camera should be focused at A. 4 m B. 8 m C. 16 m D. More than 16 m.

Q

R

20. A man in a lift ascending with an acceleration throws a ball vertically up with a velocity u and catches it after time t1. Afterwards when the lift is descending with the same acceleration, the man again throws a ball vertically up with the same velocity and catches it after time t2 . The velocity of projection of ball is gt1t2 gt1t2 gt1t2 gt1t2 B. A. D. C. (t1 − t2 ) 2(t1 − t2 ) (t1 + t2 ) 2(t1 + t2 ) 21. Which of the following statements are correct? (i) A metallic wire carrying an electric current has associated with it a magnetic field whose direction is given by Maxwell's corkscrew rule. (ii) The pupil of eye acts like a variable aperture whose size can be varied with the help of cornea. (iii) A dc motor is a device which works on the basis of electromagnetic induction. (iv) Earth wire is used as a safety measure to ensure that any leakage of current to a metallic body does not give any severe shock to a user. (v) Hypermetropia is an eye defect which arises due to elongation of eye ball. A. (i), (iii) and (iv) only B. (ii), (iii) and (v) only C. (i) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) only 3

24. A few chemical properties of three metals X, Y and Z are summarised in the given table. Metal Chemical properties X Reacts with hot water and starts floating on the surface of water Y Reacts with steam Z Does not react with dilute acids as well as steam The methods which can be used to extract X, Y and Z from their ores are respectively A. Electrolysis, reduction with carbon and heating alone B. Heating with carbon, aluminothermy and electrolysis C. Calcination, aluminothermy and roasting D. Heating the metal oxide, heating with carbon and electrolysis. 25. Which of the following options shows the correct arrangement of different substances with increasing pH values? A. Ammonium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, lactic acid and sulphuric acid B. Sulphuric acid, lactic acid, sodium hydroxide and ammonium hydroxide C. Potassium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide, acetic acid and hydrochloric acid D. Hydrochloric acid, acetic acid, ammonium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide 26. Mitaali, a class 10 student wanted to study the speed of reactions of different acids with zinc metal. For this, she conducted the following experiments using zinc metal in excess. Experiment Acid used I. 100 mL of 0.2 mol/L HCl II. 100 mL of 0.2 mol/L H2SO4 III. 100 mL of 0.2 mol/L CH3COOH She measured the volume of H 2 gas produced at regular time intervals and summarised her results in a graphical form. Which of the following graphs best represents the results obtained in experiments I, II and III? 4

Volume of H2/cm3

B.

II III Time/s

C.

I II

D.

III

Time/s

Volume of H2/cm3

23. The given reaction occurs in a car battery when it is used to produce electricity. 2PbSO4 + 2H2O Pb + PbO2 + 2H2SO4 Which of the following statements are incorrect about this reaction? I. Pb is acting as an oxidising agent. II. H2SO4 is acting as a reducing agent. III. The reaction is a precipitation reaction. IV. PbO2 oxidises Pb to PbSO4. A. III and IV only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. I, II, III and IV

A.

I

Volume of H2/cm3

22. The masses of the wires of copper are in the ratio of 1:3:5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5:3:1. The ratio of their electrical resistance is A. 1:2:3 B. 1:3:5 C. 125:15:1 D. 1:25:125

II I

III

Time/s

27. The melting and boiling points of four different substances are given in the table. Substance M.pt. (°C) B.pt.(°C) 35 120 P – 45 55 Q 104 240 R –24 –4 S All the substances are heated from 0 °C to 100 °C. The substance which will change from solid to liquid and the substance which will change from liquid to gas are respectively A. Q and P B. P and Q C. R and S D. P and S. 28. Titanium chloride (TiCl 3) is used as a catalyst in plastic industry. How many chlorine atoms are there in 38.6 g of TiCl3? [Given : Atomic mass of Ti = 48 u, Cl = 35.5 u] B. 3.12 × 1023 A. 18.06 × 1023 C. 4.5 × 1023 D. 1.5 × 1023 29. The given part of the modern periodic table shows positions of elements a to j. a

e

b

f

g

c

d

h i j Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. Element i resembles sodium in properties and element ii belongs to the same group as nitrogen. The formula of the hydride of g is iii . The formula of compound formed between b and c is iv while the formula of compound formed between e and g is v . i ii iii iv v A. h g Hg bc2 e2g B. a j H2g bc3 eg C. b j Hg b2c eg2 D. h i Hg2 bc eg 30. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II (a) C2H5OH → CH3COOH (i) Conc. H2SO4, 170 °C (b) C2H5OH → CH2 CH2 (ii) H2, Ni (c) CH4 → CH3Cl (iii) Alk. KMnO4 (d) CH2 CH2 → CH3CH3 (iv) Cl2, sunlight | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1



A. B. C. D.

(a) (a) (a) (a)

-

(i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

31. Rohit and Mayuri conducted two experiments to study the types of chemical reactions as shown in the given figures. Y Z

34. The given apparatus is used to study the diffusion of a number of gases at the same temperature and pressure. Which of the following pairs Porous barrier of gases would diffuse into the Gas X Vacuum vacuum at the same speed? [Given : Atomic mass of H = 1 u, C = 12 u, N = 14 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u] B. CO and SO2 A. NH3 and H2 C. CO and N2 D. NH3 and N2 35. Refer to the given figures showing bones of wings of two animals X and Y. These wings are Z structures. Select the option that correctly identifies X, Y and Z.



They recorded their observations as : I. In experiment 1, yellow residue is left behind while in experiment 2 reddish brown solid is left behind. II. In both experiments, two different gases were given out. III. The colourless gas evolved in experiment 1 extinguishes the glowing splint while the gas evolved in experiment 2 turns green solution of acidified KMnO4 orange. IV. X is reddish brown gas while gases Y and Z both have burning sulphur smell. The incorrect observation(s) is/are A. IV only B. III only C. I and III only D. II and III only. 32. Schematic representation of three atoms X, Y and Z is given as p n

X

L Shell

p n

Y

N Shell

M Shell

p n

Z

Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. X, Y and Z are isotopes. II. X and Z have the same valency. III. The increasing order of atomic numbers is X < Z < Y. IV. X, Y and Z have stable electronic configurations. A. II and III only B. I and II only C. II and IV only D. None of these 33. Study the given Venn diagram carefully. Liquid 1 Solid Which of the following colloidal 3 2 Gas systems correctly represents 1, 2 and 3? 1 2 3 A. Fog Soap lather Smoke B. Hair cream Milk Foam C. Starch solution Dust fumes Mist D. Pearls Coloured glasses Cheese NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 |

X

Y

Z



A. Bat

Bird

Analogous



B. Bat

Insect

Homologous



C. Bird D. Bird

Bat Insect

Homologous Analogous X

X

Y

X

Y

Y

36. Refer to the given diagram. S T R Q Identify Q, R, S and T and Mammary Feathers select the correct option. glands A. R has hollow bones and Eggs with amniotic membrane possesses hair whereas S has cartilaginous endoskeleton Four limbs and lacks hair. B. The skin of Q is non-glandular and keratinised while the skin of T is glandular and non-keratinised. C. In R, muscular partition called diaphragm is present between thorax and abdomen while in S, diaphragm is absent. D. Both Q and T have four chambered heart with two atria and two ventricles. 37.

What does the given flow chart represent? Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores 0.2 units 20 units 2 units A. Unidirectional energy flow B. Lindeman’s law C. Biomagnification D. Both A and B

38. Refer to the given graph depicting reaction velocity of two enzymes X and Y. Identify enzymes X and Y and select the correct statement regarding them. A. Y converts fats to fatty acid and glycerol while X protects the lining of stomach from the action of HCl. B. X converts proteins into peptones while Y converts proteins into dipeptides. C. X kills the bacteria present in the food and converts inactive propepsin into active pepsin. D. X converts starch into maltose while Y converts fat into fatty acid and glycerol. 5

2M glucose 39. Neha set-up an experiment solution as shown here. Fresh potato tuber She left the set-up undisturbed Distilled water for some time. Which of the following statements correctly describes the appearance of the potato Petri dish tuber after 3 hours? A. The bottom half would be flaccid while the top half would be turgid. B. The bottom half would be turgid while the top half would be flaccid. C. It would have uniform turgidity. D. None of these

40. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. A pyramid of energy can never be inverted. B. Use of high temperature for waste disposal is called land filling. C. Food chain shows unidirectional flow of energy and proceeds in a progressive straight line. D. All of these 41. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Placenta allows exchange of materials between mother and fetus. B. The fetal part of the placenta consists of the cells of the chorion which produce projections called chorionic villi. C. Antibody cannot cross the placenta from mother to fetus. D. Placenta secretes pregnancy hormones required for supporting fetal growth and metabolic changes in mother during pregnancy. 42. Refer to the given pedigree chart showing inheritance of fused ear lobe trait in three generations of a family. Select the option that correctly depicts the genotypes of I-2, II-4 and III-2. Key :

I.

1

II. III. A. B. C. D.

1 1

I-2 PP Pp pp PP

2

- Male

2

2

- Female

3 3

II-4 PP Pp Pp Pp

4 4

5

- Affected male - Affected female

III-2 Pp Pp Pp Pp

43. Refer to the given figures representing requirement of duration of light ( ) and dark ( ) periods by plants X and Y for flowering. Select the correct option regarding them. A. X could be lettuce while Y could be Dahlia. B. Plant Y can flower in complete darkness if supplied with exogenous nutrients. C. Interruption of light periods by dark periods inhibits flowering in plant X. D. X could be sugarcane while Y could be wheat. 44. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct statement regarding W, X, Y and Z. It is a communicable disease. Yes

It shows direct transmission. No

It is a vector Yes Y borne disease.

No

Yes

Z

It shows Yes W transplacental transmission X

No

A. W could be syphilis whereas Z could be chicken pox. B. W could be AIDS whereas Y could be dengue. C. Y could be kala azar whereas Z could be sleeping sickness. D. X could be gonorrhoea whereas Y could be diabetes. 45. Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the correct option regarding P, Q, R, S and T. I.

(a) Genetic material is not enclosed in nucleus. – Go to II (b) Genetic material is enclosed in nucleus. – Go to III II. (a) Lacks cell wall. – P (b) Possesses cell wall. – Q III. (a) Unicellular organism – R (b) Multicellular organism – Go to IV IV. (a) Plant body is sporophytic and water is required for fertilisation. – S (b) Plant body is sporophytic and water is not required for fertilisation. – T A. P is motile whereas Q is non-motile. B. R could be yeast or Chlamydomonas. C. Both S and T produce seeds for propagation of their species. D. S could be Adiantum whereas T could be Riccia.

ACHIEVERS SECTION 46. Refer to the given paragraph where few words/phrases have been italicised. There are three kinds of blood vessels in humans. Arteries are thick walled vessels that carry deoxygenated 6

blood (except pulmonary artery) away from heart. Veins are thin walled, vessels that bring oxygenated blood (except pulmonary vein) back to the heart. Capillaries are thin walled vessels that are permeable | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1

to water and dissolved substances. Select the correct option regarding it. A. Thick and thin should be interchanged. B. Oxygenated and deoxygenated should be interchanged. C. Pulmonary artery should be replaced with carotid artery whereas pulmonary vein should not be replaced as it is correctly mentioned. D. Permeable should be replaced with impermeable. 47. Refer to the given graph representing hormonal levels during a normal menstrual cycle in a female. Identify the ovarian hormones X and Y and select the correct statement regarding them.







A. If hormone Y is insufficiently produced in a female then uterine lining might not be sufficiently stable to support an implanted embryo. B. Level of hormone Y is very high during menstrual phase of menstrual cycle in a female. C. Hormone X is secreted by corpus luteum under the influence of follicle stimulating hormone of anterior pituitary gland. D. Hormone X stimulates transformation of a primary follicle of ovary into Graafian follicle.

Direction (Q. No. 48 and 49) : Refer to the given passage and answer the following questions. When alcohols react with carboxylic acids in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid, compounds with fruity smell called esters are formed. Also, alcohols on oxidation in the presence of acidified K2Cr2O7 form carboxylic acids. 48. If third member of alcohol family (homologous series) undergoes esterification reaction with second member of carboxylic acid family then, the name of ester formed and its formula will be respectively

A. Ethyl propanoate, CH3CH2COOCH2CH3 B. Propyl ethanoate, CH3COOCH2CH2CH3



C. Ethyl butanoate, CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3 D. Ethyl ethanoate, CH3COOCH2CH3.

49. C2H5OH on oxidation with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives CH3COOH. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding these two compounds? I. They both react with sodium metal to evolve a combustible gas. II. They both react with NaHCO3 to evolve a gas which turns lime water milky. III. They both turn blue litmus red. A. I and II only B. II only C. I only D. I, II and III 50. Column I shows certain current distribution and column II shows the variation of magnitude of magnetic field B with distance x as one moves along x-axis from point O. Match column I with column II and select the correct option. I.

Column I Long straight current carrying P. wire

B

x

x Perpendicular to wire

O I

II.

Column II

Circular current carrying wire Q. B I

O

I

x Axis of wire

x

III. A current carrying ideal solenoid

R.

B

I O

x

Axis of solenoid

A. B. C. D.

I Q Q R P

II P R Q Q

III R P P R

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 |

7

Class 10

Set B Year 2017

LOGICAL REASONING 1.

Find the missing term in the given series. APZ, BRY, DTW, GVT, KXP, ___ ?__ A. PZK B. PZL C. OZK D. OYL

2.

In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its parts?

7.

There is a certain relationship between figures (1) and (2). Establish the similar relationship between figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the given options which will replace the (?) in figure (4).

B.

+ =

C. +

C. 3.

B. D.

=

+

A.

=

=

A.

+

8.

D.

Two positions of a dice are shown. Find the number opposite to number 3. A. 6 6 1 B. 5 C. 2 4 2 4 3 D. 1

4.

If > stands for +, < stands for –, + stands for ÷, ∧ stands for ×, – stands for =, × stands for > and = stands for <, then which of the following options is correct? A. 18 > 12 + 4 × 7 > 8 ∧ 2 B. 31 > 1 < 2 = 4 > 6 ∧ 7 C. 29 < 18 + 6 = 36 + 6 ∧ 4 D. 32 > 6 + 2 = 6 < 7 ∧ 2

5.

How many 2's are there in the given arrangement, each of which is not immediately preceded by a perfect square and followed by an odd number? 642528292138621258612425 A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5

6.

A set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper is given. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Select a figure from the options which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig. (Z).

In a certain code language, 1. pod na joc means very bright boy; 2. tam nu pod means the boy comes; 3. nu per ton means keep the doll; 4. joc ton su means very good doll. Which of the following means good in that language? A. su B. joc C. ton D. pod 9.

A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement: Input : top the name good for is there Step I : is top the name good for there Step II : is for top the name good there Step III : is for the top name good there Step IV : is for the top good name there Step IV is the last step for this input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, which of the following is the last step of the given input? Input : if there was no good man A. V B. III C. IV D. Cannot be determined

10. Which of the following options will complete the pattern given in Fig. (X)? A.

B. X

Y

Z

A.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

2

| NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

SCIENCE A constant force is acted on a body which is initially at rest on a smooth track. The force acts for a short time interval t, and causes the body to move at a certain final speed. What is the time interval required to move the same body when the force is reduced by half so that the body can move at the same final speed? A. t B. 2t C. t/2 D. 4t

 Statement 2 : Process of nuclear fusion is involved in atomic bomb. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

12. Five coils, each having the same resistance are joined according to the given circuit diagram. The equivalent resistance between points P and Q is 1 W. Then the resistance of each coil will be

17. Two students X and Y perform experiments on series and parallel combination of two given resistors R1 and R 2 and plot the graphs as shown here. Which of the following options is true about the graphs obtained by the students?

11.

P Q

A. 1 W

B. 4 W

1 C. W 7

D.

13. A cube of side 1 m has a mass of 7500 kg before a through hole of diameter 50 cm is drilled on it. The hole is then completely filled with cement of density 3.2 g cm–3. What is the density of the composite object? A. B. C. D.

4320 5355 6655 8130

kg kg kg kg

m–3 m–3 m–3 m–3

1m

50 cm

15. A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string of length l. A horizontal force is applied to displace it slowly until the string makes an angle of 30º with the initial vertical direction. What is the work done by the applied force?

C. Mg

l 3 2

 1 Mgl 1 −  B.  2 D.

Graph by student X

Graph by student Y

V

I

7 W 4

14. A slide with an image 4 cm × 2 cm is placed at a distance of 10 cm behind a converging lens and a clear image is formed on a screen 1.1 m from the slide. The size of the image on the screen is A. 40 cm × 20 cm B. 36 cm × 18 cm C. 20 cm × 40 cm D. 10 cm × 50 cm

 3 Mgl 1− A. 2  

(V is potential difference and I is current)

Mgl 4

NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 |

III IV

II I

Series A. I, III B. I, IV C. II, III D. II, IV

V

Parallel II, IV II, III I, IV I, III

18. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate b and comes to rest. If total time elapsed is t, then the maximum displacement of the car will be α+β A. 2 αβt

B.

α βt 2 C. 2 (α + β)

D.

(α

2

)

− β2 t 2 αβ

(α + β) t 2 αβ

19. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in figure. In the field, an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the proton experience A. B. C.

16. Read the given statements and select the correct option.  Statement 1 : Thermonuclear bombs can be more devastating than the atomic bombs.

I

D.

Forces both pointing into the plane of paper Forces both pointing out of the plane of paper Forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the plane of paper respectively Forces pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field respectively. 3

20. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light is incident on the prism as shown in figure. In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the third colour from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky?

25. Read the given passage and fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. Bleaching powder is a (i) powder. When exposed to air, it reacts with (ii) of the air to liberate Cl2 gas. It is (iii) in cold water and milkiness of the solution is due to the presence of unreacted (iv) . It reacts with HCl and H2SO4 liberating (v) gas. (i)

A. C.

(i) (iii)

B. D.

A. Blue crystalline B. Yellowish white C. White D. Yellow

(ii) (iv)

21. There are two walls X and Y which are 120 m apart from each other. A boy standing 40 m away from wall X claps his hands once. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m s–1, then what is the time interval between the first and the second echo that he hears? A. 0.05 s B. 0.24 s C. 1 s D. 2 s 22. A ray of light enters a water filled glass tank from a glass face making a nonzero angle (< 90°) to the normal. The emergent ray from the opposite face will follow the path which is A. Deviated to the right from incident ray B. Deviated to the left from incident ray C. Same as incident ray D. Parallel but not along the incident ray. 23. Fill in the blanks in the given table by choosing an appropriate option. S. Salt No. 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

NaClO ii

Parent acid

Parent base

HClO HCl iv

NaOH Cu(OH)2 v

NH4HCO3 CH3COOK CH3COOH (i) 7 >7 <7 >7

(ii) CuCl2 CuCl2 CuO CuCl2

(iii) >7 <7 >7 >7

pH of aq. salt solution i iii

KOH

(iv) NH3 H2CO3 NH4OH NH3

(v) CO2 NH4OH H2CO3 HCl

≈7 vi (vi) 7 >7 7 >7

X at –70 °C X at –50 °C A. Particles are tightly Particles are loosely packed and not moving packed and randomly moving B. Has definite volume but Neither has definite volno definite shape ume nor definite shape C. Possesses fluidity Possesses rigidity D. Is almost incompressible Is completely incompressible

(iii)

Moisture Soluble CO2 Soluble O2 Insoluble Moisture Soluble

(iv)

(v)

CO2 Lime Lime CO2

SO2 Cl2 Cl2 Cl2

26. The ratio of the number of molecules in 4 g of hydrogen to the number of molecules in 5.6 dm 3 of oxygen at standard temperature and pressure is [Given: Atomic mass of H = 1 u and O = 16 u] A. 2 : 1 B. 3 : 4 C. 1 : 4 D. 8 : 1 27. Rohan added different substances P, Q and R to three beakers each containing 30 mL of water as shown in the figure.

He observed that the temperature of beakers I and II increases while that of beaker III decreases. Substances P, Q and R could be respectively A. NH4NO3, KOH and Na2CO3.H2O B. NH4Cl , CuSO4 and NaCl C. Na2SO4, CaO, CuSO4.5H2O D. NaNO3, KCl and K2SO4. 28. The boiling points of some Gas B.pt. (°C) gases are given in the table. Kr –153 If their liquid mixture is subjected Ne –246 to fractional distillation, the order N –196 in which gases will distil over is O –183 A. Kr, O, N, Ne B. O, N, Kr, Ne C. Ne, N, Kr, O D. Ne, N, O, Kr 29. Study the given flow chart carefully and identify V, W, X, Y and Z.

24. If melting point and boiling point of substance X are –82 °C and –60 °C respectively then, which of the following is correct for the substance X?

4

(ii)

Zn

White solid (V ) +

Steam

Sulphide ore (X )

V

Gas (W )

Concentrated by (Y )

W

A. B.

Zn(OH)2 ZnO

H2 H2

C.

Zn2O3

D.

ZnO

X

Extracted by (Z ) followed by reduction with carbon

Y

H2 O

Cinnabar Zinc blende Galena

Leaching Froth floatation Froth floatation

H2

Calamine

Calcination

Z

Roasting Roasting Calcination Roasting

| NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

Mass of CaCO3

30. Kunal, a class 10 student studied the reaction between marble chips and dilute HCl. He took 50 g of marble chips and 100 mL of 0.1 Q P molar HCl solution. The given Time (min) graph shows how the total mass of marble chips varies with time as the reaction proceeds. Which of the following statements are incorrect? I. More and more CO2 gas is evolved along PQ. II. CaCO3 remains unreacted after point P. III. Reaction gets completed at point P. IV. Dilute HCl remains unreacted after point P. A. I and IV only B. II and III only C. I, II and IV only D. II, III and IV only 31. A part of the periodic table is represented as : H He P R Q S T In the given section of the periodic table, the most metallic element, the most non-metallic element, the smallest atom and the atom which has complete octet in M shell are respectively A. Q, R, R and T B. R, P, P and S C. Q, R, P and T D. P, R, S and T. 32. Atomic structures of elements P and Q are schematically p p n n represented as : Which of the following statements is/are P Q correct? I. P and Q will form the compound P2Q3. II. P will form phosphide with formula PP3. III. Q exists as a divalent cation. IV.  P can form P5– anion to attain the noble gas configuration. A. I and II only B. I and III only C. III and IV only D. I only 33. Consider the following reactions : I. Ethanol is oxidised by acidified K2Cr2O7. II. Methane undergoes complete combustion. III. Ethanoic acid reacts with anhyd.Na2CO3. IV. Ethanol reacts with sodium metal. Reaction(s) in which water is one of the products is/are A. I and II only B. I, II and III only C. III and IV only D. II only. 34. The percentage by mass of water of crystallisation in hydrated copper sulphate is [Given: Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u and S = 32 u] A. 42% C. 63% NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 |

B. 36% D. 24%

35. Refer to the given dichotomous key. Identify K, L, M, N, O and P and select the incorrect statement regarding them. I. (a) The cells of tissue have wall. – Go to II (b) The cells of tissue lack wall. – Go to V II. (a) Tissue is made up of similar or only one type of cells. – Go to III (b) Tissue is made up of more than one type of cells.  – Go to IV III. (a) Wall thickening in tissue cells is uniform. – K (b) Wall thickening in tissue cells is not uniform. – L IV. (a) Conducting elements are of two types. – M (b) Conducting element is of one type. – N V. (a) It helps in gamete formation. – O (b) It helps in absorption of water from digested food. – P A. O could be cuboidal epithelium while P could be columnar epithelium. B. In M conduction occurs only in one direction, i.e., upward while in N, conduction occurs in both directions, i.e., upward and downward. C. L provides mechanical support and flexibility to the plant body. D. K could be parenchyma that occurs chiefly in leaf stalks, leaf midribs and herbaceous dicotyledonous stems but is usually absent in monocots. 36. Refer to the given pedigree showing a case study Key: of an autosomal dominant disease. Male I II

Female Affected individuals

III The genetic make-up of the first generation (female and male respectively) is A. AA, aa B. AA, Aa C. Aa, AA D. Aa, Aa. 37. In a study, water samples of Ganga river were collected from four different cities (P, Q, R and S) to check the presence of Coliform bacteria. The result obtained was plotted in the given graph. Select the correct option regarding this. A. People living in city Q are more prone to waterborne diseases like typhoid, cholera, etc. B. The river water of city P is most suitable for agriculture. C. The biological oxygen demand in river of city R is more than that found in city S. D. Dissolved oxygen content of river Q will be more than that of river R. 5

38. Study the given experimental setup.

A. B. C. D.

39. Refer to the given figure of a bryophyte. Identify the labelled parts P, Q, R and S P and select the option which represents the correct number of chromosome in these parts. R Note : [For the given plant, 2n = 24] A. B. C. D.

P 12 24 24 8

Q 24 24 24 24

R 12 12 8 24

S 24 12 8 12

40. Refer to the given figure. Identify labelled parts P-S and select the correct option regarding them.

Q

S P R

Q A. When nerve impulse reaches presynaptic knob, R releases S a chemical called neurotransmitter. B. P contains Nissl's granules and neurofibrils and conducts impulses away from the cell body. C. Q is a narrow fluid filled space that lies between presynaptic and postsynaptic knobs formed by dendrite terminal of both neurons. D. S are chemoreceptors present on axon terminal of postsynaptic membrane.

41. Refer to the given flow chart and the following list of diseases. (i) Polio  (ii) Cholera (iii) Kala azar  (iv) Influenza (v) Malaria (vi) Kwashiorkor (vii) Goitre (viii) Diphtheria (ix) Pellagra (x) Whooping cough

Disease can spread from a diseased to No a healthy person. Yes

Its infectious Yes Q agent is a virus. No Its infectious agent Yes is a bacterium. No

Now, select the option that correctly categorises these diseases into P, Q, R and S. 6

P

S

R

Q (i), (iv) (i), (iv), (x) (i), (iv), (ix) (iv), (ix)

R (ii), (viii), (x) (ii), (viii) (ii), (viii), (x) (ii), (v), (x)

S (iii), (v) (iii), (v) (iii), (v) (iii), (viii)

42. Ruby crossed a tall pea plant with white flowers and a dwarf pea plant with violet flowers. She performed a __________ . A. Test cross B. Dihybrid cross C. Natural selection D. Monohybrid cross 43. Refer to the given graph 60 showing different types 50 of white blood corpuscles in a normal man. 40 Identify P, Q, R and S 30 and select the incorrect statement regarding them. 20 A. P produces antibodies 10 to destroy microbes 0 and their toxins, P Q R S Different types of rejects grafts and kills white blood corpuscles tumour cells. B. Q could be phagocytic in nature and is able to engulf bacteria and cellular debris. C. Nucleus of R is many lobed whereas nucleus of S is usually two lobed. D. Cytoplasm of P does not contain granules whereas that of R contains granules. % in leucocytes

By measuring the movement of oil drop in the apparatus, what can be investigated? A. Carbon dioxide released during germination B. Heat released during germination C. Oxygen used during germination D. Water produced during germination

P (vi), (vii), (ix) (vi), (vii), (ix) (vi), (vii) (i), (vi), (vii)

44. Read the given paragraph where few words have been italicised. Cytokinins are the natural substances which enhance growth of stem but in same concentration are incapable of causing growth of intact root. Naphthalene acetic acid is natural whereas indole-3 acetic acid is synthetic auxin. Gibberellins inhibit growth and cause bolting in rosette plants. Abscisic acid stimulates growth and causes abscission of flowers and fruits. Ethylene induces ripening of climacteric fruits and formation of root hair. Select the correct option regarding it. A. Cytokinins should be replaced with ethylene. B. Cytokinins should be replaced with auxins whereas napthalene acetic acid and indole-3 acetic acid should be interchanged. C. Inhibit and stimulates should not be interchanged as they are correctly mentioned. D. Ethylene should be replaced with cytokinin. P 45. Refer to the given figure. Identify P Q S - T and select the correct statements regarding them. R (i) Gland P secretes a hormone T which plays role in the development of immune system of body. (ii) Gland Q transmits messages in the form of electrical impulses. | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

(iii) Hormone released by gland S, enhances blood pressure by stimulating contraction of smooth muscles of arterioles. (iv) Hypersecretion of a hormone by gland R causes myxedema whereas its hyposecretion causes Graves’ disease.

(v) Hormones secreted by gland T regulate the calcium and phosphate levels in blood. A. (i) and (iv) only B. (iii) and (v) only C. (i), (ii) and (v) only D. (iii), (iv) and (v) only

ACHIEVERS SECTION 46. The variation of induced emf (e) with time (t) in a coil if a short bar magnet is moved along its axis with a constant velocity is best represented as

A.

C.

49. Refer to the given graph showing levels of different hormones (P-S) during menstrual cycle in a normal woman.

B.

D.

Direction (Q. No. 47 and 48) : Read the given passage and answer the following questions. When an alcohol is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4 at about 170 °C, it gets dehydrated to form alkene(s). In this reaction, conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent. 47. Which of the following statements is/are correct when 2-butanol undergoes dehydration? I. Only one alkene having same number of carbon atoms as in 2-butanol is formed. II. Two alkenes having different structural formulae but same molecular formula are formed. III. Only one alkene having one carbon atom less than 2- butanol is formed. IV. Two alkenes are formed out of which one is terminal and other is non-terminal. V. Two alkenes having the same percentage composition by mass are formed. A. II, IV and V only B. III only C. II and IV only D. I only 48. If boiling point of an alkene formed in a dehydration reaction of an alcohol is –6°C then, which of the following could be the boiling points of succeeding and preceding members of this alkene in its homologous series respectively? A. –48 °C and –104 °C B. 30 °C and 64 °C C. –104 °C and –48 °C D. 30 °C and –48 °C

Identify the hormones P-S and select the incorrect statement regarding them. A. R stimulates the ovarian follicles to produce estrogen during proliferative phase while Q stimulates the corpus luteum of the ovary to secrete progesterone. B. Menstrual phase is caused by the reduction of P and S. C. Proliferative phase is characterised by increased production of S whereas secretory phase is characterised by increased production of P. D. In males, Q causes spermatogenesis whereas R stimulates Leydig’s cells to secrete testosterone. 50. Read the given statements each with one or two blanks. Select the option that correctly fills the blanks in any two statements. (a) (i) is the process of aerobic burning whereas (ii) is anaerobic burning of combustible constituent of solid waste at high temperature. (b) (i) secretes mucus and watery alkaline fluid that contains fructose. (c) Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea are (i) organs while wings of birds and insects are (ii) organs. (d) Rate of heart beat and breathing movements of human body are controlled by (i) . A. (b) - (i) - Seminal vesicles; (c) - (i) - Analogous, (ii) - Homologous B. (c) - (i) - Homologous, (ii) - Analogous; (d) - (i) - Medulla oblongata C. (a) - (i) - Pyrolysis, (ii) - Incineration; (b) - (i) - Cowper's gland D. (a) - (i) - Incineration, (ii) Pyrolysis; (d) - (i) - Diencephalon

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 |

7

Class 10

Set A Year 2018

LOGICAL REASONING 1.



If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the 1st, 6th, 9th and 11th letters of the word ‘QUALIFICATION’, then which of the following will be the 3rd letter of that word? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘M’ as the answer and if no such word can be formed, give ‘N’ as the answer. A. A B. I C. N D. M

2.

Find the number of triangles formed in the given figure.



A. 28



B. 32



C. 26



D. None of these

3.

Some letters are coded as given below.



Letters W P J Q E T I A U F D B Codes 5 6 9 1 2 3 @ 4 © 8 % ( What is the code for AEIMVH? A. 42@#7$ B. 42@47$ C. #2@47$ D. 48@#78

4.

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure.



Who are the neighbours of G? A. C and A B. A and F C. D and C D. D and F

8.

In the question, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations on numbers progress from left to right. Rules: (i) If a two-digit even number is followed by another even number, the first one is to be divided by the second one. (ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, the two are to be multiplied. (iii) If an odd number is followed by another odd number, the two are to be added. (iv) If a three-digit number is followed by a two-digit number which is a perfect square, the second number is to be subtracted from the first number. (v) If a three-digit number is followed by a two-digit number which is not a perfect square, the first number is to be divided by the second one. 24 7 81 x 27 57 If ‘x’ and ‘y’ are the resultant of the first row and second row respectively, then y × y = _______ . A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8

V M H 7

#

$



Mirror

A.



B.

C.



D.

5.

Find the odd one out. A. NQUZ B. FIMR C. HKOT D. BEIO

6.

Select a figure from the options which is exactly embedded in the given figure as one of its parts.

A.

B.



9.

I.

II.

III.

IV.



2

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. D sits third to the left of A. E sits to the immediate right of A. B is third to the left of D. G is second to the right of B. C is neighbour of B. C is third to the left of H.



A. I and II C. I, II and III

B. II and III D. I, II, III and IV

10. In the given Venn diagram, which of the following represents the uneducated women, who are government employees but not urban? Urban

C. D. 7.

Select the box that is similar to the box formed, when the given sheet is folded.

9

7 8 10 6 12 4

13

Women

11 5



Government employees

A. 9 C. 6

Educated persons B. 10 D. 13 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1

SCIENCE 11. Three identical bulbs connected in series across a source consume 20 W power. If the bulbs are connected in parallel to the same source, the power consumed is

A. 20 W

B. 60 W

12. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the given figure?

C. 90 W

I 24 V

D. 180 W

2 kW R2 6 kW R1

RL 1.5 kW

I. Current I drawn from the battery is 7.5 mA. II. The potential difference across R L is 18 V. A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. None of these

13. A ray of light is incident at an angle i on a glass slab of refractive index m. If the angle between reflected and refracted light is 90°, then the relationship between i and m is  1 A. B. tan i = m i = tan −1    µ C. sin i = m D. cos i = m 14. A light ray travels in a liquid, through gas bubble and goes into the liquid again as shown in the figure. Light ray



Which of the following situations is possible when the torch is shifted higher?

A.

Light ray

B.

Light ray

C.

D.

Light ray

Light ray

15. A person needs a lens of power 2.5 D for correction of her vision. Then (i) focal length of the lens is 40 cm. (ii) focal length of the lens is – 40 cm. (iii) nature of the lens is concave. (iv) nature of the lens is convex. (v) she is suffering from myopia. A. Only (i) and (iv) are correct. B. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct. C. Only (i), (iii) and (v) are correct. D. Only (i) and (v) are correct. 16. PQ and RS are long parallel current carrying conductors separated by a certain distance. M is the midpoint between them (see the figure). The net magnetic field at M is B. Now, the current in the wire PQ is switched off. The magnitude of magnetic field at M becomes NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 |



P

A. 2B

B. B B C. 2 D. 3B

R

2A

1A M

Q

S

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. During nuclear fission, mass is transformed into energy. II. Propane is important constituent of natural gas. III. The main component of LPG is butane. A. I only B. III only C. I and III only D. II and III only 18. A shell of mass 5M, acted upon by no external force and initially at rest, bursts into three fragments of masses M, 2M and 2M respectively. The first two fragments move in opposite directions with velocities of magnitudes 2v and v respectively. The third fragment will

A. Move with a velocity v in a direction perpendicular to the other two B. Move with a velocity 2v in the direction of velocity of the first fragment C. Be at rest D. Move with a velocity v in the direction of velocity of the second fragment.

19. A car covers one-third of its journey with speed v1, next one third with speed v 2 and the last one-third with speed v 3. The average speed of the body during the entire journey is 2v v v 3v v v A. 1 2 3 B. 1 2 3 v1v2 + v2 v3 + v1v3 v1v2 + v2 v3 + v1v3 v1v2 v3 (v1 + v2 + v3 ) C. D. v1v2 + v2 v3 + v1v3 3 20. At a place, value of acceleration due to gravity g is reduced by 2% of its value on the surface of the earth (Radius of earth = 6400 km). The place is

A. B. C. D.

64 64 32 32

km km km km

below the surface of the earth above the surface of the earth above the surface of the earth below the surface of the earth.

21. A boy stands between the two walls and claps his hands as shown in the figure. If x is less than 60 m and the time between the first and the second echo is 0.25 s, then find the value of x. Velocity of sound in x 60 m air is 344 m s–1.

A. B. C. D.

17 25 29 35

m m m m 3

23. Geetika took four test tubes I, II, III and IV, each containing 10 mL of different solutions. Then different substances are added to each test tube as shown in the figure and shaken well. Added 10 mL of water

Added 10 mL of water Battery acid



(I)

(II)

1M ammonia solution

Added 10 mL of potassium hydroxide solution Washing soda solution

(III)

Added 10 mL of 1 M caustic soda

(IV)

1M hydrochloric acid

Read the given statements carefully and select the incorrect one. A. The order of pH of the given solutions is III > IV > II > I. B. Drops of phenolphthalein remain colourless in test tubes I and IV. C. Methyl orange indicator turns red in test tubes II and III. D. Both A and C.





A. P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii) B. P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iv) C. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iv) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii) D.

26. Ankur has 32 g of ozone, Nishant has 0.5 mole of P4 while Rashmi has 6.023 × 1023 molecules of N2. Which of the following is the correct order of number of electrons they have? A. Rashmi < Ankur < Nishant B. Nishant > Rashmi > Ankur C. Rashmi > Ankur > Nishant D. Ankur < Nishant < Rashmi 27. Read the given flow chart carefully. heat Metal oxide + ‘P’ + ‘Q’ Metal nitrate → (Colourless (Brown ‘X’ ‘Y’



Gas X





Column I P. Chlorination in presence of sunlight Q. Addition of H 2 to give saturated compounds R. Formation of alkene by heating with conc. H2SO4 S. Reaction with alcohols to give esters 4

Column II (i) Alcohols

(ii) Carboxylic acids (iii) Alkenes (iv) Alkanes

Select the correct statement. A. An alloy of metal present in ‘X’ is used for soldering purposes. B. Colourless gas ‘P’ is nitric oxide. C. Metal oxide ‘Y’ produced is of yellowish brown colour. D. Both A and C

Solubility of Temperature (°C) Substance I Substance II 45 45 50 80 80 90 Two solutions, X and Y are given as :

Vacuum

25. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

(Yellow ppt.)

28. Solubility of two substances, I and II at 45°C and 80°C is given in the following table :

Porous barrier

In which of the following pairs, gases would diffuse into the vacuum with different speeds? I. CO and SO2 II. CO and N2 III. NH3 and N2 IV. CO2 and CH4 (Given : Atomic mass of H = 1 u, C = 12 u, N = 14 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u) A. I, III and IV only B. I and IV only C. II only D. I, II, III and IV

gas)

‘W’

24. The given apparatus is used to study the diffusion of a few gases at the same temperature and pressure.



gas)

H 2O + KI(aq.)

→

22. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : If a light body and a heavy body possess the same kinetic energy, then the heavy body will possess more momentum. Statement 2 : Work done by all the forces on a body is equal to change in its kinetic energy. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

120 g of I Solution X



200 g of water at 80°C

90 g of II Solution Y

If the temperature of solutions X and Y is dropped to 45°C, then amount of substance I and substance II crystallised out will be respectively A. 120 g and 90 g B. 30 g and 10 g C. 30 g and 0 g D. 10 g and 30 g

29. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Reactivity of aluminium decreases when it is dipped in nitric acid. Statement 2 : A protective layer of aluminium nitrate gets formed on the surface of aluminium which stops the further reaction. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1



C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

30. Schematic atomic structures of four different elements 16 20 35 23 W 2–, 10 X, 17Y – and 11Z + are given as I, II, III and IV 8 respectively as follows :

n=8 p=8

n = 10 p = 10

I

II

n = 17 p = 15

n = 12 p = 11



III The correct representations are



A. I, II and IV only C. III and IV only

31.

Which of the following is not correctly matched? A. Non-metallic character : F > N > C > B > Si B. Electronegativity : Si > P > C > N C. Atomic radius : F < O < C < Cl < Br D. None of these

56 Soluble P 45 Insoluble Q 90 Soluble R On the basis of these properties, which student has chosen the correct separation technique to separate the substance from substance‑water mixture? A. B. C. D.

Renu – Simple distillation Manish – Separating funnel Raj – Fractional distillation All of these

33. One mole of a hydrocarbon ‘P’ on complete combustion produces CO2 and H2O in the molar ratio 1 : 1. The succeeding homologue of ‘P’ is ‘Q’ while preceding homologue is ‘O’. The name of the homologous series is ‘R’. Identify O, P, Q and R. O P Q R A. Ethane Propane Butane Alkane B. Hexene Pentene Butene Alkene C. Ethyne Propyne Butyne Alkyne D. Ethene Propene Butene Alkene NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 |

CuO

(i)

+

H2

(iv) (iii)

Cu

+

H 2O

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A. Undergoes Oxidation Reduction Undergoes oxidation reduction B. Reducing Reduction Oxidation Oxidising agent agent C. Oxidising Oxidation Reduction Reducing agent agent D. Undergoes Reduction Oxidation Undergoes reduction oxidation 35. Which of the following events do not occur during the light reaction of photosynthesis? I. II. III. IV. V.

B. I, III and IV only D. I and IV only

Property Substance Boiling point (°C) Solubility in water



(ii)

IV

32. Three students Renu, Manish and Raj were given three unknown liquids P, Q and R respectively during the lab activity.



34. Observe the given reaction carefully and identify (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).



Photolysis of water Reduction of NADPH to NADP+ Evolution of molecular oxygen Synthesis of assimilatory power Conversion of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates

A. I and II only C. II, III and V only

B. II and V only D. I, III and IV only

36. Which of the following is correct regarding the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system as shown in the given table? Organ Sympathetic Parasympathetic nervous system nervous system I. Heart Increases the rate Decreases the rate of heartbeat of heartbeat II. Arteries Constriction of Dilation of arteries arteries III. Lungs Constricts bronchi Dilates bronchi and bronchioles and bronchioles IV. Eyes Constricts pupil Dilates pupil V. Urinary Relaxation Contraction bladder A. I, III and V only B. III and IV only C. I, IV and V only D. I, II and V only 37. Identify the plant hormone ‘X’ from the given statements and select the correct option regarding it. I. II. III. IV.

It promotes cell division in plants. It helps in breaking dormancy of seeds. It delays the ageing in leaves. It brings about morphogenesis along with auxin during tissue culture.

A. ‘X’ could be gibberellin that also causes bolting in rosette plants. B. ‘X’ could be ethylene that also promotes yellowing of leaves. C. ‘X’ could be abscisic acid that causes closure of stomata during desiccation and other stresses. D. ‘X’ could be cytokinin that increases shelf life of vegetables. 5

38. The genotype for the height of an organism is Tt. What conclusion can be drawn from this? A. The allele for height has at least two different genes. B. There are at least two different alleles for the gene controlling height. C. There are two different genes for height, each having a single allele. D. There is one allele for height with two different forms.



A. B. C. D.

X Detoxification Cellular respiration Protein synthesis Osmoregulation

Y Digestion of foreign particles Carbohydrate synthesis Glycolipid formation Storage of reserve food

43. Which statement is incorrect for the tissue shown in the given figure?

39. Which of the following options shows a likely food chain represented by the given pyramid of number?



A. Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Shellfish → Fish → Shark B. Maize → Rat → Snake → Meerkat → Lion C. Tree → Aphid → Ladybug → Bird → Hawk D. Cyanobacteria → Shrimp → Fish → Kingfisher → Snake



40. Which of the following activities will help to sustain environmental balance?



(i) Usage of platinum jewellery as it will reduce the load on gold mines. (ii) Farming as it helps to ensure that man does not eat up all the food producers. (iii) Use of jute bags instead of polybags. (iv) Using solar energy as it provides an alternative to fossil fuels. A. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only B. (i), (ii) and (iv) only C. (ii) and (iv) only D. (iii) only

41.

Which among the following are the artificial ecosystems? (i) Estuaries (ii) Mountains (iii) Crop fields (iv) Grasslands (v) Coral reefs (vi) Parks (vii) Mangroves (viii) Aquariums A. (i), (ii) and (v) only B. (ii), (iv) and (vi) only C. (iii), (vi) and (viii) only D. (ii), (vi) and (vii) only



42. Refer to the given figure and select the correct option regarding functions of X and Y.

X Y

6



A. The tissue is usually covered by tough fibrous membrane called perichondrium. B. The cell embedded in the matrix of this tissue are called chondroblasts. C. It is found in nose tip, ear pinna, etc. D. The matrix is highly calcified and is richly supplied with nerves and blood vessels.

44. Identify incorrect differences between dicots and monocots from the given table. Dicots Taproot system In stem, vascular bundles are arranged in ring III. Mostly parallel venation in leaf IV. Flowers are mostly trimerous V. In root, pith is greatly reduced or absent

I. II.

A. I, II and III only C. III and IV only

Monocots Fibrous root system In stem, vascular bundles are scattered throughout ground tissue Mostly reticulate venation in leaf Flowers are mostly pentamerous In root, pith is present

B. II, III and V only D. I, III and V only

45. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct option regarding P and Q. Disease caused by virus

Successful vaccine is P made and is Q commercially available

Disease caused by bacteria

A. P could be small pox whereas Q could be diphtheria. B. P could be AIDS whereas Q could be malaria. C. P could be common cold whereas Q could be whooping cough. D. P could be typhoid whereas Q could be plague. | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1

ACHIEVERS SECTION Direction (Q. No. 46 and 47) : Read the given passage and answer the following questions. The electronic arrangements of four atoms of elements P, Q, R and S are given as follows :

P

Q

R

C. R could be oral pills that contain LH and FSH to prevent ovulation. D. S could be tubectomy that involves removal of a small portion of sperm duct surgically. 49. A time varying current I is passed through a resistance R as shown in figure.

S

I

46. The elements that belong to same period (i) and the elements that belong to same group (ii) of the periodic table are (i) (ii) A. Q and S R and S B. P and Q R and S C. R and S Q and S D. Q and R P and S 47. Select the correct statement from the following. A. Element P has least metallic character. B. The atomic size of S is greater than that of P. C. Element S is more electronegative than Q. D. R is a reactive gas. 48. Identify P, Q, R and S in the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding them. Method of contraception

3I0

I0 0



Yes P

No



Can be fitted in vagina Yes by females

Q

No Taken orally

Yes

R



No S

A. P could be copper-T that prevents ovulation and implantation in the uterus. B. Q could be femidom which is used by females just before coitus.

2t0



3t0

t

Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Average current through the resistance is 11 I 0. 2 II. The heat generated in the resistance during time interval t 0 to 3t 0 is 10I 02 Rt 0. III. Total charge flown through the resistance is 11 I t . 2 0 0 A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III.

50. Refer to the given figure and select the incorrect option regarding L-O.

Inserted into Yes the uterus

t0

L

A. Secretion of L helps in lubrication and swallowing of food, while exocrine part of N secretes alkaline juice O N with pH value around 8. M B. Juice stored in M contains no enzyme but activates the enzyme lipase, while O converts some toxic substances into harmless substances. C. If N is removed surgically in a person, it will not affect the digestion process as digestive juices from O and M will compensate for the same. D. Enzyme of L helps in digestion of carbohydrates, while secretion of N helps in the digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 |

7

Class 10

Set B Year 2018

LOGICAL REASONING 1. 2.

If in a certain code language, ‘WON’ is written as ‘VXNPMO’, then how will ‘SOUTH’ be written in the same language? A. IGUSVTPNTR B. RTNPTVSUGI C. RTNPTVSVGI D. RTNPTVRUGI Select a figure from the options which will complete the series as established by the Problem Figures. Problem Figures



? B.

A. 3. 4.

C.



D.

Z is the father of Q. A is the daughter of Y and Y is the son of Z. If P is the son of Y and B is the brother of P, then which of the following options is definitely correct? A. B and Y are brothers B. A is the sister of B C. Z is the uncle of B D. Q and  Y are brothers In which of the following options, the given figure is exactly embedded as one of its parts?

7.

8.

A. 5.

B.

C.

D.

There is a set of four figures P, Q, R and S showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Figure (S) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Select a figure from the options which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of fig. (S).

P A.

B.

Q

R C.

D.

6.

In the given question, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations on numbers progress from left to right. Rules: (i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.

Puneet travels 5 m in North direction, then he turns right and travels 10 m. Again he turns towards right and travels 20 m . Then he turns towards left and travels 10 m. In which direction and how far is Puneet from his original position? A. 35 m, East B. 10 m, West C. 25 m, East D. None of these Which of the following options satisfies the same conditions of placement of dots as in the given figure?

A.



C. 9.

S

(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added. (iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square. (iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number. (v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from the first number. 36 15 3 12 3  n If ‘n’ and ‘m’ are the resultants of the first row and second row respectively, then 17 × m is _______. A. 5 B. 17 C. 15 D. 36



B.



D.

Three positions of a dice are shown below. Which number is on the face opposite to the face having number 2? A. 6 6 2 3 B. 3 2 4 3 4 5 4 C. 4 D. 5

10. Find the missing number.

A. 38



B. 66



C. 68



D. 70

286 142

7

?

16 34

SCIENCE 11. A hollow metal of mass 180.6 g contains cavity of volume 3 2.5 cm . This metal when placed in water displaces 24 cc of water. Find the specific gravity of metal. 2



A. 7.6





B. 8.4



C. 10.5





D. 7.2 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

12. In the given circuit, R1 = R2 and V is applied voltage. The values of V and R1 are respectively

A. B. C. D.

180 V and 120 V and 180 V and 120 V and

W W W W

60 60 10 10

V

13. An electric current is passed through a straight wire as shown. If two magnetic compasses are placed at the points X and Y, then X



I

Y

A. B. C. D.

Their needles will not deflect Only one of the needles will deflect The needles will deflect in the same direction The needles will deflect in the opposite directions.

14. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?





I. A person suffering from hypermetropia cannot see the distant objects clearly. II. When eye muscles are relaxed and lens becomes thinner, then the focal length of the eye lens increases. III. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices. IV. The change in focal length of the eye lens is caused by the action of iris. A. I only B. IV only C. II and III only D. I and IV only

15. The diagrams show the relative motion between a magnet and a solenoid. A galvanometer is connected to the solenoid to detect the induced current. Which diagram shows no deflection in the galvanometer? 1m

B.

A. S

1 m s–1

Stationary

Towards solenoid N

S

s–1 N

G

G 1 m s–1

Stationary

Rotated about O

1 m s–1

C. N

D. S

S O

N G

G

16. A beam of light reflects and refracts at point P, as shown in the diagram. Find the angle of refraction at point P. n1 and n2 are refractive indices of media.

A. 60° C. 30°





NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 |

P

B. 45° D. None of these

17. The square in the diagram outlines the points where a N S beam of electrons, moving into the plane of paper, enters a magnetic field. What will happen to the particles? A. Deflect to the left B. Deflect to the right C. Deflect upwards D. Deflect downwards v( m s–1) 18. The velocity-time (v - t) graph for a particle moving on a straight 10 line is shown here. Which of the 5 following statements is correct? t(s) 0 5 10 15 –5 A. The particle has a variable –10 acceleration. B. The particle has never turned around. C. The particle has zero displacement. D. The average speed in the interval 0 to 5 s is the same as the average speed in the interval 5 to 10 s.

19. Initially, four identical uniform blocks, each of mass m and thickness h, are placed on a table as shown in figure (i). How much work is done on the blocks in stacking them on top of one another as shown in figure (ii)? A. 2 mgh B. 3 mgh C. 4 mgh h h (i) (ii) D. 6 mgh 20. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Loudness is the characteristic of a musical sound by which a loud sound can be distinguished from a faint sound. Statement 2 : Echo is always produced when sound is incident on hard and polished surface. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 21. A battery of 6 V is connected 10  in series to a 10 W resistor 0.5 A 6 V 6 and a parallel combination of resistors of resistance 6 W I and R. The battery delivers a current of 0.5 A to circuit as shown. What are the values of the unknown current I and the resistance R? I (A) R(W) A. 0.17 9 B. 0.25 4 C. 0.25 6 D. 0.33 3 3

22. A spherical planet has a mass Mp and diameter Dp. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity equal to 4GM p m GM p m 4GM GM p C. D. A. p B. D 2p D 2p D 2p D 2p 23. Four students Shristi, Preeti, Abhishek and Sidh performed the experiment to study the reactions of dilute hydrochloric acid and solution of sodium hydroxide with zinc metal and solid sodium carbonate separately. They tabulated their observations in the given table : Student

Set 1 HCl + Zn

Set 2 HCl + Na2CO3

Set 3 NaOH + Zn

Set 4 NaOH + Na2CO3

Shristi









Preeti









Abhishek









Sidh     The correct observations in all the four sets are shown by A. Shristi only B. Sidh only C. Abhishek only D. Preeti only.



24. In the given Venn diagram, points 1, 2 and 3 represent different colloidal systems.

2

Which of the following best represents points 1, 2 and 3?

1 A. Cheese B. Paint C. Bread D. Curd

2 Milk Sponge Milk of magnesia Gold sol

1 Liquid

Solid

3

Gas

3 Fog Shaving cream Froth Cheese

25. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six consecutive elements of the periodic table. The given table shows the formulae of the oxides of these elements. Element P Q R S T U 4

Formula of oxide PO2 Q 2 O5 RO3 S 2 O7 does not form any oxide U2 O

Read the given statements carefully. I. Element Q belongs to group 15 and period 3. II. The elements P and S form a covalent compound of type PS4. III. Element R belongs to group 14 and period 2. IV. The elements U and S form an ionic compound of type U2S.



The correct statement(s) is/are A. I only B. I, II and IV only C. I and II only D. III and IV only.

26. Three different states of matter are shown in figures 1, 2 and 3.

(1)

(2)

(3)

Melting and boiling points of three substances P, Q and R are given in the table : Substance

Melting point (°C)

Boiling point (°C)

–52 80 P 409 1105 Q –195 –175 R Read the given passage carefully and fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option. The substance(s) which exist(s) in state (3) at room temperature is/are (i) . The substance(s) which exist(s) in state (1) at 100°C is/are (ii) . The substance(s) which exist(s) in state (2) at 15°C is/are (iii) . (i) (ii) (iii) A. Q P, R P B. P Q Q, R C. P, R P Q D. Q P, R R 27. Study the given flow chart carefully. Conc. H2SO4, 443 K

P (C3H8O)

Q

H2 / Ni

R

K2Cr2O7 / H2SO4 heat Na2CO3

S T + U(g) Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. P is propanol and it liberates hydrogen gas on reaction with sodium metal. II. Q is a saturated hydrocarbon which decolourises Br2-water. III. P and S react together in presence of conc. H2SO4 to give a sweet smelling compound. IV. U when passed through lime water, turns it milky. A. I, III and IV only B. I and IV only C. II only D. I, II, III and IV 28. The number of atoms of Na, H, S and O in 0.5 mole of sodium bisulphite are respectively (Given : Atomic mass of Na = 23 u, H = 1 u, S = 32 u and O = 16 u) 23 23 23 23 A. 3.01 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 and 9.03 × 10 23 23 23 22 B. 9.03 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 , 6.023 × 10 and 1.5 × 10 21 23 22 21 C. 3.01 × 10 , 9.03 × 10 , 4.5 × 10 and 3.0 × 10 23 23 23 23 D. 3.01 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 and 3.01 × 10 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

29. Baking powder is a mixture of X and a mild edible acid such as Y. When it is heated, Z is produced which makes bread and cake soft and spongy. X, Y and Z are respectively

A. B. C. D.

Sodium Sodium Sodium Sodium

hydrogen carbonate, tartaric acid, CO2 carbonate, acetic acid, CO2 hydroxide, acetic acid, H2 chloride, oxalic acid, H2.

30. Abhiruchi, a class 10 student took clean small pieces of magnesium, aluminium, zinc, iron and copper in separate test tubes. She added about 10 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid to each of them.

33. A few redox reactions are given as follows :

I. Cu + 2AgNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag II. 3MnO2 + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al2O3 III. 2HI + Cl2 → 2HCl + I2 IV. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 Select the correct option. A. In reaction I, copper is an oxidising agent. B. In reaction II, MnO2 is oxidised. C. In reaction III, HI is the reducing agent. D. In reaction IV, CO is reduced.

34. The composition of five particles U, V, W, X and Y is given in the table : Substance



Identify the incorrect statement(s). A. The rate of evolution of hydrogen gas bubbles is same in all the test tubes as all are metals. B. The reactivity decreases in the order : Mg > Zn > Al > Fe > Cu C. In case of copper, no bubbles are seen and the temperature also remains unchanged. D. Both A and B. 31. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : The components of azeotropes cannot be separated by fractional distillation. Statement 2 : The components of azeotropes form a constant boiling mixture. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 32. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I (Methods of extraction) P. Reduction with aluminium (i) Q. By electrolysis (ii) R. Reduction with carbon (iii) (iv) S. By heating alone A. P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i) B. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i) C. P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii) D. P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv) NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 |

Column II (Metals) Mercury Calcium Manganese Zinc

35. Refer to the given graph. P Identify factors P and Q from the given graph and select the correct option regarding it. A. P could be temperature Q whereas Q could be light Factor intensity. B. P could be relative humidity whereas Q could be air movement. C. P could be light intensity whereas Q could be relative humidity. D. P could be light intensity whereas Q could be temperature. Rate of transpiration

Mg Al Zn Fe Cu

No. of No. of No. of protons neutrons electrons 27 30 27 U 15 15 15 V 15 16 15 W 11 12 11 X 11 12 10 Y Identify atoms, ions and isotopes. Atoms Ions Isotopes A. U, V, W, X Y X and Y B. W, Y U, V, X V and W C. U, V, W, X Y V and W D. V, W U, Y X and Y

36. Identify figures (i)-(iv) and select the correct option regarding them.



(iv) (iii) (ii) (i) A. Both (i) and (iv) exhibit cellular level of body organisation. B. (ii) is acoelomate whereas (iii) is coelomate. C. (i) and (ii) are diploblastic whereas (iii) and (iv) are triploblastic. D. Symmetry is radial in (i) and adult form of (iv) whereas bilateral in (ii) and (iii). 5

37. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Placenta allows exchange of materials between mother and fetus. B. The fetal part of the placenta consists of the cells of the chorion which produce projections called chorionic villi. C. Antibody cannot cross the placenta from mother to fetus. D. Placenta secretes pregnancy hormones required for supporting fetal growth and metabolic changes in mother during pregnancy. 38. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Mitochondria, unless specifically stained are not easily visible under the microscope. B. Physiological activity of cells determines the number of mitochondria per cell. C. Mitochondrion, a power house of cell has DNA, RNA, ribosomes and enzymes, so it can survive outside the cell. D. Mitochondria divide by fission.



42. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding connective tissues? (i) They are the most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals. (ii) They connect and support other tissues. (iii) They include diverse tissues such as bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose and other loose connective tissues. (iv) They form the internal and external lining of many organs. A. (iv) only B. (ii) only C. (i) and (ii) only D. (iii) and (iv) only 43. Refer to the given table of differences between cerebrum and cerebellum.

39. Select the correct statement. A. Amount of greenhouse gases i.e., CO, CO2, CFCs and CH4 is decreasing due to harmful activities in atmosphere. B. Increase in average global temperature could lead to melting of polar ice caps. C. Ozone layer present in mesosphere, protects earth from harmful effects of solar radiations. D. Putrefying bacteria help to convert ammonia into nitrites and then into nitrates. 40. Select the incorrect statement. A. Economic development is linked to environmental conservation. B. Sustainable development encourages development for current generation and conservation of resources for future generations. C. Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders. D. Sustainable development is a long, planned and persistent development. 41. Study the given situation. Plants that beetles feed upon suffered from a disease and died. Due to reduced food, beetles are poorly nourished and show reduced weight. But there is no genetic change. After few years plant disease is eliminated. Now abundance of leaf food causes weight gain in next beetle generations. Which of the following statements best explains the given situation? A. Natural selection is the phenomenon where nature selects organism having traits favourable to the environment. B. Acquired trait does not bring any change in the DNA and therefore this trait is not inherited. 6

C. Speciation leads to the formation of species due to reproductive isolation. D. Genetic drift leads to elimination of genes of certain traits from a small population when a section of the species population dies of natural calamity.

Cerebrum

Cerebellum

I.

It is the part of forebrain.

It is the part of hindbrain.

II.

It forms the front, It lies in the posterior superior and lateral region of the brain. sides of the brain.

III.

It has two cerebral It has two cerebellar hemispheres. hemispheres and one central vermis.

IV.

Cavity is nearly absent.

It has two cavities called lateral ventricles.

V.

It is the seat of intelligence and memory.

It coordinates muscular activity.

VI. It maintains posture It controls sight, smell, equilibrium of the taste, hearing, etc. body.

Identify the correct pair of differences. A. I, II, III and V only B. II, III and V only C. I, III and IV only D. II, III, IV and VI only

44. Which of the following organisms are secondary consumers in the given food web? T S

U

R

V

Q

A. V, U and S C. V and T

Producer

B. V, T and S D. Q and R | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1

45. Refer to the given diagram of a human heart.

Which of the following options correctly identifies the vessels which carry oxygenated and deoxygenated blood? Oxygenated blood Deoxygenated blood A. X and Z Y B. X and Y Z C. Y and Z X D. Y X and Z

Y X

Z

ACHIEVERS SECTION 46. Which of the following correctly represents the variation of heat energy (H) produced in a metallic conductor in a given time as a function of potential difference (V) across the conductor? (Assume resistance of the conductor is constant.) H

A.



O

B.

H O

V

H

C.



O

D.

V

V

H O

V

Direction (Q. No. 47 and 48) : Read the given passage and answer the following questions. The given table shows the positions of six elements P, Q, R, S, T and U in the periodic table : Group → Period ↓

1

3-12

13

14

P

2 3

2

S

15

16

17

18

Q

R

T

U

47. Identify the elements which form ionic compounds (i) and the elements which form covalent compounds (ii). (i) (ii) (i) (ii) A. S T B. T   S C. R T D. P   U 48. Select the incorrect statement.

A. Element Q is a non-metal having valency 2.



B. Element P is a metal having valency 2. C. Elements S and Q combine to form S2Q type of compound. D. Elements T and Q combine to form T3Q type of compound.

49. Read the following statements about P the given diagram carefully and R select the correct ones? Q (i) P carries urine and sperms. (ii) Q secretes a fluid that helps in S the lubrication of penis. (iii) S produces testosterone but not sperms. (iv) R secretes fluid that contains nutrients like fructose. A. (i) and (ii) only B. (ii) and (iii) only C. (ii) and (iv) only D. (i) and (iv) only 50. Refer to the given paragraph where few words have been italicised and select the correct option. When food is masticated in mouth it turns into chyme which is then passed on to the stomach where it is churned by strong muscles of stomach. Stomach secretes gastric juice which contains hydrochloric acid, mucus, pepsin and trypsin. Churning by stomach helps to mix food components with gastric secretion. Then, food changes into bolus. Pepsin helps to convert proteins into amino acids. HCl helps to kill bacteria and makes the medium acidic for activation of trypsin. A. Both mucus and trypsin should not be replaced as they are correctly mentioned. B. Amino acids should be replaced with fatty acids. C. Trypsin should be replaced with ptyalin. D. Positions of chyme and bolus should be interchanged.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 |

7

ANSWER KEYS NSO 2014 1. (B) 11. (C) 21. (A) 31. (C) 41. (A)

2. (B) 12. (B) 22. (C) 32. (C) 42. (D)

3. (D) 13. (D) 23. (C) 33. (A) 43. (C)

4. (B) 14. (D) 24. (B) 34. (C) 44. (C)

SET A 5. (B) 6. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A) 25. (C) 26. (A) 35. (B) 36. (D) 45. (D) 46. (C)

7. (B) 17. (B) 27. (B) 37. (B) 47. (D)

8. (D) 18. (D) 28. (B) 38. (A) 48. (D)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(D) (B) (C) (B) (B)

7. (D) 17. (A) 27. (B) 37. (B) 47. (D)

8. (B) 18. (D) 28. (A) 38. (D) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(A) (A) (B) (D) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(D) (A) (B) (D) (A)

7. (A) 17. (D) 27. (D) 37. (B) 47. (D)

8. (D) 18. (B) 28. (B) 38. (C) 48. (C)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (B) (C) (C) (A)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(D) (A) (B) (D) (B)

7. (D) 17. (C) 27. (C) 37. (C) 47. (B)

8. (D) 18. (B) 28. (A) 38. (C) 48. (C)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(A) (D) (B) (A) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (C) (D) (D) (B)

7. (C) 17. (C) 27. (B) 37. (D) 47. (A)

8. (C) 18. (C) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (C)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (A) (A) (B) (D)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (B) (B) (D) (B)

7. (A) 17. (A) 27. (B) 37. (A) 47. (B)

8. (D) 18. (D) 28. (A) 38. (D) 48. (A)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(C) (B) (C) (A) (D)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(C) (B) (A) (D) (B)

7. (D) 17. (C) 27. (B) 37. (D) 47. (A)

8. (D) 18. (B) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(C) (D) (B) (C) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (B) (D) (B) (B)

SET B

1. (B)

11. (D) 21. (A) 31. (D) 41. (C)

2. (C) 12. (D) 22. (B) 32. (D) 42. (A)

3. (A) 13. (A) 23. (C) 33. (B) 43. (B)

4. (D) 14. (B) 24. (C) 34. (C) 44. (B)

5. (D) 15. (D) 25. (D) 35. (A) 45. (D)

6. (A) 16. (A) 26. (D) 36. (B) 46. (B)

NSO 2015 1. (A) 11. (C) 21. (A) 31. (C) 41. (D)

2. (D) 12. (B) 22. (B) 32. (C) 42. (D)

3. (C) 13. (A) 23. (B) 33. (C) 43. (B)

4. (A) 14. (A) 24. (C) 34. (A) 44. (A)

1. (B) 11. (D) 21. (D) 31. (D) 41. (B)

2. (A) 12. (C) 22. (A) 32. (C) 42. (B)

3. (B) 13. (D) 23. (D) 33. (D) 43. (C)

4. (B) 14. (D) 24. (B) 34. (C) 44. (C)

SET 1 5. (C) 6. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 25. (D) 26. (B) 35. (C) 36. (B) 45. (A) 46. (D) SET 2 5. (D) 6. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A) 25. (A) 26. (D) 35. (C) 36. (D) 45. (B) 46. (C)

NSO 2016 SET A 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (B) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (B) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (C) 41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C) 1. (C) 11. (B) 21. (C) 31. (D) 41. (A)

2. (C) 12. (D) 22. (B) 32. (C) 42. (A)

3. (D) 13. (D) 23. (C) 33. (C) 43. (C)

4. (B) 14. (D) 24. (C) 34. (C) 44. (B)

SET B 5. (D) 6. (D) 15. (C) 16. (B) 25. (D) 26. (B) 35. (C) 36. (C) 45. (A) 46. (A)

NSO 2017 SET A 1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (D) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (D) 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (B) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (C) 41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B)

1. (A) 11. (B) 21. (B) 31. (A) 41. (A)

2. (C) 12. (D) 22. (D) 32. (D) 42. (B)

3. (C) 13. (C) 23. (B) 33. (B) 43. (C)

4. (B) 14. (A) 24. (B) 34. (B) 44. (B)

SET B 5. (C) 6. (A) 15. (A) 16. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 35. (D) 36. (A) 45. (B) 46. (B)

7. (B) 17. (B) 27. (C) 37. (A) 47. (A)

8. (A) 18. (C) 28. (D) 38. (C) 48. (D)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(C) (A) (B) (B) (A)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(B) (B) (A) (A) (B)

NSO 2018 1. (C) 11. (D) 21. (A) 31. (B) 41. (C)

2. (D) 12. (A) 22. (B) 32. (D) 42. (C)

3. (A) 13. (B) 23. (D) 33. (D) 43. (D)

4. (A) 14. (B) 24. (A) 34. (C) 44. (C)

SET A 5. (D) 6. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 25. (D) 26. (A) 35. (B) 36. (D) 45. (A) 46. (C)

7. (C) 17. (C) 27. (D) 37. (D) 47. (C)

8. (A) 18. (C) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(B) (B) (C) (C) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(D) (B) (D) (A) (C)

1. (B) 11. (B) 21. (D) 31. (A) 41. (B)

2. (A) 12. (A) 22. (A) 32. (A) 42. (A)

3. (B) 13. (D) 23. (B) 33. (C) 43. (A)

4. (C) 14. (D) 24. (B) 34. (C) 44. (C)

SET B 5. (A) 6. (C) 15. (D) 16. (C) 25. (C) 26. (A) 35. (C) 36. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D)

7. (D) 17. (C) 27. (A) 37. (C) 47. (A)

8. (B) 18. (D) 28. (A) 38. (C) 48. (D)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (D) (A) (B) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(D) (C) (D) (C) (D)