4b Condensed Qa

.7.3

Testbank.Document.Questions for Testbank PE4PARTB

Page 1 25-SEP-2001

The symbols below are used as indicated: + add x multiply subtract / divide sqr square root ** exponent ** exponent NOTE: Round off to 3 decimal places unless otherwise stated. FROM

Heat Engines, Prime Movers & The Simple Steam Engine 010100020021000B A prime mover is

b)

a steam turbine

010100020021000C Large power production plants tend to be of the thermal type because they can burn solid fuels and:

c)

the heat cycle they use is the most efficient

010100020021000A A steam engine will have the steam supply to the cylinder shut off once the piston has travelled

a)

25 to 35% or 1/4 to 1/3 of its stroke

010100020021000D The reciprocating motion of a steam engine is converted to rotary motion

d)

at the crankshaft

010100020021000B The crosshead of a steam engine

b)

is where linear motion becomes angular motion

010100020021000D A steam engine piston

d)

moves fastest at the beginning of its stroke

010100020021000A A routine inspection of an operating steam engine should cover first and foremost

a)

lubricators 1

010100020021000C Whenever feasibly possible, when checking bearings on running pieces of equipment it is wise to

c) get accustomed to normal running temperature and vibration by feel 010100020021000A One of the first ways to detect a fault in a reciprocating engine is

a)

by sound

010100020021000D The slide valve of a steam engine is designed to

d) provide for the steam to enter and leave the cylinder Steam Turbines I 010100020021000D A steam turbine's exhaust can often supply a process with steam because

d)

it is free of oil

010100020021000C The exhaust steam from a steam turbine is more acceptable for process than the exhaust from a steam engine because

c)

it is free of oil

010100020021000E The exhaust steam from a condensing steam turbine has more moisture than the exhaust from a steam engine:

e)

has more moisture

010100020021000D Turbines often have segmental carbon ring sealing glands which are held in place by garter springs

d)

garter springs

010100020021000D A steam turbine should trip or shut down when normal

2

operating speed is exceeded by 10 to 15% 010100020021000B Condensing turbines

b) will have a vacuum in the last row of rotating blades 010100020021000B Which turbine uses a condenser?

b)

a turbine exhausting to a vacuum

010100020021000E The shrouding installed on the blading of a steam turbine serves to:

e)

confine the steam to the blades

010100020021000A The turbine overspeed trip:

2. 4. 5.

prevents the turbine exceeding the maximum rated speed will close the steam stop valve should be tested before the turbine is placed in service

010100020021000B The overspeed trip of a steam turbine

b)

is installed on all turbines

010100020021000B Turbine overspeed trip

b)

will close the steam stop valve to the turbine

010100020021000D Turbine lubricating oil

d)

can be used to operate the turbine governor

010100020021000C The purpose of turbine glands is to prevent

c)

steam escaping from the turbine

010100020021000E Shaft sealing in high output turbines is done with

e)

labyrinth seals 3

010100020021000B When the steam pressure drop occurs in only the stationary members or components of a turbine, the turbine is known as an impulse unit

b)

an impulse unit

010100020021000E A large reaction turbine will have steam pressure dropping through BOTH moving and stationary sections Reaction = steam pressure drops over BOTH

e) steam pressure dropping through moving and stationary sections 010100020021000D Turbine speed can be "fine tuned" with a device which will be limited to about 10% over the rated speed. This device is the

d)

hand speed control

010100020021000C Turbine thrust bearings are fixed to the casing and prevent axial movement of the spindle by contacting a component on the shaft known as a

c)

collar

010100020021000D Shaft sealing carbon glands are

d)

self-lubricating

010100020021000C The great majority of steam turbine governing systems utilize the

c)

mechanical centrifugal principle

010100020021000B Reaction turbines

b) have a pressure drop through the moving and stationary blades 010100020021000B Reaction turbines

b)

have a velocity increase in the fixed blading

010100020021000B In an impulse turbine

4

b)

the steam pressure is reduced in the nozzles

010100020021000E The steam turbine that has a pressure drop across every set of blades is the reaction turbine.

e) reaction 010100020021000D When starting a steam turbine it is customary practice to

d) test the overspeed trip as soon as running speed is attained Cooling Towers 010100020021000D The average amount of water volume which evaporates from a cooling tower is 5% 010100020021000A Natural draft cooling towers operate most effectively in large open spaces and

a)

where wind is relatively constant

010100020021000B Excessive wind velocity in a natural draft cooling tower may cause a)

b)

louvers to become broken

high water drift or losses

010100020021000C Compared to a crossflow tower, a counterflow tower

c)

requires less floor space

010100020021000E Water contained in the airstream at the discharge of a cooling tower is removed

e)

with drift eliminators

010100020021000C A cooling tower which requires neither fan nor fill is the

c)

venturi unit

010100020021000E

5

A valve which prevents water flow over the fill of a tower during cold weather should not be closed until the temperature reaches 27C e) + 27 degrees C 010100020021000B To prevent cooling tower basin water from freezing during cold weather many units are equipped with

b)

electric basin heaters

010100020021000D You are replacing the cooling tower fan motor bearings because

d)

the rotor was rubbing the stator

010100020021000D Scaling is not as severe in towers when compared to boilers because

d)

temperatures are not as high

Gas Turbines I 010100020021000C A gas turbine compressor is usually

c)

dynamic axial design

010100020021000A The compressor on the gas turbine

a)

can be driven by the load turbine

010100020021000C The combustion chamber of a gas turbine

c)

burns fuel with excess air

010100020021000D Many typical steam plant auxiliaries are eliminated with a gas turbine due to its

d)

simplicity

010100020021000B Gas turbines are very popular where

6

b)

water is scarce

010100020021000B Gas turbines are ideal when considering

b)

emergency power generation

010100020021000A A two shaft gas turbine

a) has the load turbine downstream from the compressor turbine 010100020021000C A gas turbine is not self-starting. It must be rotated at 20% to 20% of its maximum speed before fuel is turned on.

c)

20% to 30%

010100020021000C Early gas turbines were handicapped by

c) metals not standing the high temperatures involved 010100020021000D The temperature to which the air can be raised at the turbine inlet is

d)

an indication of the unit's efficiency

010100020021000A The output power of a gas turbine is directly related to the

a) mass of gas passing through the turbine per second 010100020021000E The low installation cost of a gas turbine is

e)

because less auxiliary equipment is needed

010100020021000C Some of the characteristics which make the gas turbine a better choice over other prime movers are:

1. low maintenance 2. minimum cooling water 7

4.

rapid start-up and loading

010100020021000E The air side of a gas turbine regenerator is located

e)

downstream of the compressor

010100020021000D A gas turbine performs most effectively if

d)

ambient air temperature is low

010100020021000B A combined steam and gas turbine arrangement can be termed

b)

a cogeneration system

010100020021000B The purpose of a regenerator is

b)

to improve the efficiency of the turbine

Internal Combustion Engines I 010100020021000B In a compression ignition engine the fuel is ignited by

b)

the compressed air temperature

010100020021000C Diesel engine governing is accomplished by

c)

varying the fuel quantity

010100020021000C The fuel for a diesel engine is

c)

mechanically atomized by high pressure

010100020021000A Four-stroke cycle engine valves are

a)

operated by cams

010100020021000C An engine which develops one power stroke with every other turn of the crankshaft is the

8

c)

four stroke natural gas engine

010100020021000A Four cycle engine lubrication is usually

a)

forced by pump

010100020021000C An example of an engine which gives high torque at low speeds would be that of a

c)

four stroke motocross motorcycle

010100020021000D A two cycle engine

d) "pops" twice as often as an equivalent cylinder four stroke engine 010100020021000A Pre-mixing lube oil and fuel or having a special lube oil injection system is typical of the average

a)

snowmobile engine

010100020021000E A major difficulty encountered with a two-stroke cycle engine is

e)

exhausting the spent gases from the cylinder

010100020021000E

e) is of more simple construction than a four cycle 010100020021000C Cylinder scavenging

c) is the removal of exhaust gases from the cylinder 010100020021000A The purpose of a spark plug is

a) to ignite the fuel air mixture in a gasoline engine 010100020021000B

9

Compression ignition engines

b) will compress air only on the compression stroke 010100020021000E The injection pump of a diesel engine is driven by

e)

the camshaft

010100020021000D Ignition in a diesel engine is started by

d)

compression in the cylinder

010100020021000A Using a compressed air starting motor is a popular method of starting a

a)

large stationary diesel engine

010100020021000D When using compressed air to each cylinder for starting purposes, the pressure is approximately 2100kPa

d)

2,100 kPa

010100020021000C Reduction in sealing qualities between the piston rings and cylinder wall by the lube oil may be the result of

c)

high cooling water temperature

Types of Pumps 010100020021000E A pump is capable of suction lift due to e)

atmospheric pressure

010100020021000C Centrifugal pumps do not develop good suction lift because c)

their internal component clearances are too high

010100020021000A It is generally accurate to say that a)

9.8 kPa pressure results from every metre of water depth or height

10

010100020021000E Preferably, dynamic pumps should be located e)

below the liquid source when suction head is involved

010100020021000E The vertical distance from the liquid surface up to the pump centre-line plus the vertical distance from the pump centre-line up to the surface of the liquid in the discharge tank is e)

total static head

010100020021000A The difference between static suction head and static discharge head is a)

total static head

010100020021000B When a pump discharges into a vessel operating at 300 kPa, the 300 kPa is referred to as b)

equivalent head

010100020021000B The total static head of a pump b)

is the difference between the static suction head and the static discharge head

010100020021000B When a reciprocating pump discharges while its piston or plunger moves in only one direction, it is termed a b)

single acting unit

010100020021000D Centrifugal pumps convert rotating mechanical energy into kinetic energy then d)

into potential energy in the form of pressure

010100020021000C A hot water heating system circulator should c)

be very quiet in operation

010100020021000A The capacity of a centrifugal pump a)

varies with discharge pressure

010100020021000B

11

Centrifugal pump power requirements are decreased when b)

the litres moved per minute is decreased

010100020021000C A rotary pump c)

should be equipped with a relief valve

010100020021000B When starting-up a rotary pump you must be sure that the b)

discharge valve is open

010100020021000C Rotary pumps: 1. 4.

are high pressure pumps are positive displacement pumps

010100020021000E A double-acting pump e)

is a positive displacement pump

010100020021000B A volute type pump b)

has a progressively expanding spiral casing

010100020021000D A diffuser pump: 1. 2.

has stationary guide vanes surrounding the impeller has a higher efficiency than a volute type

010100020021000C Turbine pumps: 2. 3.

are high pressure pumps has the liquid gain energy in a number of impulses

010100020021000A A centrifugal pump consists of a)

an impeller surrounded by a casing

010100020021000E The capacity of a centrifugal pump should only be reduced by e)

closing in the discharge valve

010100020021000B Cavitation of a pump refers to, when:

12

b)

the pump is filled with vapour

010100020021000D Rotary pumps: 1. 3. 4.

have tight clearances on all moving parts are positive displacement units should not be started with discharge closed

010100020021000E If a pump is cavitating what can you do to prevent or reduce the cavitation? e)

raise the suction pressure

010100020021000D A positive displacement stand by-pump will have d)

the suction valve open and the discharge valve open

010100020021000B Pumps handling cryogenic materials operate b) at extremely low temperatures \ 010100020021000A A circulating pump is usually a)

connected with some type of heat exchanger system

010100020021000C A multi-stage pump would be used c)

when the head is great

010100020021000B Turbine pumps are best suited for b)

low capacity high pressure service

Pump Operation and Maintenance 010100020021000A Pump wear rings are installed on an impeller by set screws, threading or a)

shrinking

010100020021000C Wear rings are usually constructed of

13

c)

bronze or cast iron

010100020021000B Wearing rings: 1. 2. 4.

are used on impellers are used on the casing reduce the maintenance cost of the pump

010100020021000E A stuffing box: 1.

stops air leaking into the casing when the pressure is below atmospheric decreases leakage out of the casing when the pressure is above atmospheric is filled with packing

2. 4.

010100020021000B Mechanical seals: 1. 2. 3.

are used where leakage is objectionable replace stuffing boxes provide a better seal than packing

010100020021000D Compression type packing: 1. 2.

prevents air from entering the pump reduces the maintenance cost on pumps

010100020021000C Lantern rings: 2. 3. 4. a) b) c) d) e)

1, 2, 2, 3, 1,

are fed by a liquid provide a seal to prevent air from entering the pump are mostly used on high lift pumps 2, 3 3 3, 4 4 2

010100020021000C The seal cage on the shaft of a centrifugal pump c)

distributes sealing water to the packing

010100020021000B The main advantage of a pump using a mechanical seal is b)

less maintenance

010100020021000D

14

A slight leakage is desired between the pump shaft and packing of the majority of pumps in order to d)

lubricate the surfaces

010100020021000B If a stuffing box is to prevent the ingress of air, it is equipped with b)

a seal cage

010100020021000E Any leakage occurring through the surfaces of a mechanical seal will e)

be radial to the shaft

010100020021000D The component of a mechanical seal which prevents axial leakage is d)

the O-ring

010100020021000E What size of packing should you use, to repack a pump gland having the following dimensions: stuffing box bore ------------- 8.6 cm pump shaft diameter ------------- 6.7 cm e)

.95 cm

010100020021000B New pump packing should be installed b)

loose enough to allow leakage for lubrication

010100020021000B Flexible couplings will compensate for b) axial shaft misalignment 010100020021000A Shaft misalignment during operation of a pump can be caused by bearing wear, thermal expansion, and a)

shaft flexing

010100020021000D Proper priming and venting of a pump is important, especially if d) a mechanical seal is used 010100020021000B Priming of a centrifugal pump refers to b)

filling the pump casing with liquid and removing the air

15

010100020021000D Priming a water pump means d)

filling the pumps casing and suction line with water

010100020021000B If the packing gland of a centrifugal water pump is leaking too much, you should b)

tighten up the gland but permit a slight amount of leakage

010100020021000E When lubricating equipment, the operator should also check for: 1. 2. 3. 4.

unusual machine noises unusual consumption of lubricant excessive heat in bearing housing excessive leakage of lubricant

010100020021000C Most pump failures, damage, or both occurs d)

due to wrong rotation

010100020021000C When a pump is operating, your inspection should include the following: c)

you should check the discharge pressure

010100020021000E A plugged impeller symptom or result will be e)

no liquid being delivered

010100020021000A If pump speed is too high a)

the driver may be overloaded

010100020021000D If a pump is running and has no discharge pressure, what will you do? d)

check to see if the suction valve is open

010100020021000A You discover that your feed water pump is not delivering sufficient water. A possible cause is a)

the impeller is plugged

16

Air Compression 010100020021000A Compressed air machinery would most likely be used in a)

coal mines

010100020021000D Compressed air tools tend to be d)

more expensive than electrical tools

010100020021000A In a centrifugal compressor the kinetic energy is converted to potential energy in the a)

volute, diffuser, or both

010100020021000D The compressor which would favour volume over pressure would be the d) centrifugal 010100020021000B Positive displacement air compressor types are b)

gear compressors

010100020021000D Single stage reciprocating air compressors d)

could have two cylinders

010100020021000E A belt driven lubricator is very popular on a e)

sliding vane unit

010100020021000B Higher gearing is commonly used on b)

screw units

010100020021000A Relative to a dry-pipe fire system, an automatic air supply shall be connected so that proper pressure can be maintained in each system, is a statement of the a) National Fire Protection Association Code \ 010100020021000D In order to protect the driver, a start-stop air compressor should be equipped with d)

pre-start automatic unloading

17

010100020021000A The valves on a reciprocating compressor are opened by a)

a pressure difference

010100020021000C Compressor unloaders c)

could keep the suction valve open

010100020021000B Where pistons move in a cylinder it is necessary for the lubricant to provide b)

sealing

010100020021000C An air compressor which gives two compression strokes per crankshaft revolution is c)

single cylinder double acting

010100020021000A To reduce air temperature between stages, we would use a)

an intercooler

010100020021000B An air receiver used in an air compression, system will perform the following functions: 1. 2. 3.

act as a storage vessel eliminates pulsation in discharge lines will separate out water from the air

010100020021000C An air compressor auxiliary which will decrease the power requirement is the c)

intercooler

010100020021000B Intercoolers should be equipped with b)

safety valves

010100020021000C Intercoolers c)

should have a safety valve

010100020021000A Intercoolers a)

must have a drain

18

010100020021000D Air receivers d)

must have a safety valve

Lubrication Principles 010100020021000A Relative to lubrication, one place where wear is beneficial is a)

new babbit bearing surfaces which wear smooth

010100020021000D The intermeshing of gear teeth is a place where lubrication d)

shock absorption is very important

010100020021000D The lubricant performs a number of functions. of the following are the most important: 1. 4.

Indicate which

reduce wear reduce friction

010100020021000D A material which is commonly used as a solid lubricant is d)

molybdenum disulphide

010100020021000E Grease is not a suitable lubricant e)

if a large amount of cooling is desired

010100020021000C A semi-solid lubricant: c)

is less likely to drip or splash from bearings

010100020021000E Lubricant for an anti-friction bearing is e)

barium and lithium base grease

010100020021000D Which type of grease is the cheapest and most commonly used? d)

calcium base

010100020021000A The property of an oil which indicates its ability to support a load is

19

a)

viscosity

010100020021000A If an oil's viscosity changes much with little temperature change then it will have a a)

low viscosity index

010100020021000D Which of the following has the greatest effect on the viscosity of a lubrication oil? d)

temperature

010100020021000D The resistance of a liquid to internal deformation or shear is known as: d) viscosity 010100020021000A Which type of oil produces higher fluid friction? a)

a high viscosity oil

010100020021000A Oil additives a)

should not affect all other characteristics greatly

010100020021000B If you desire an oil to flow at a much lower temperature you would most likely add b)

pour point depressants

010100020021000C High capacity steam turbine oils should c)

be fire resistant

010100020021000B Air compressor oil should b)

have low carbon residue

010100020021000A High viscosity oils are normally used for the following applications: a)

low speed, high load

Types of Bearing Lubrication 010100020021000C A lubricant characteristic which will indicate its ability to support a heavy load at low speed is

20

d)

density

010100020021000E A form of lubrication which requires continual motion of a shaft or surface is e) fluid film lubrication 010100020021000A Fluid film lubrication a)

is used for heavy loads

010100020021000B Fluid film lubrication b)

is also called flood lubrication

010100020021000E In a forced lubrication system, a pump supplies oil Under pressure for the bearings. 010100020021000D Large journal or sleeve bearings have grooves d)

in the non-pressure area

010100020021000B A large journal bearing which is running hotter than normal can be cooled by b)

loosening the bearing caps

010100020021000B A thrust bearing which does not utilize the oil wedge principle of lubrication is the b)

collar type

010100020021000B One of the main functions of the lubricant in a sealed, grease type antifriction bearing is b)

sealing

010100020021000E A journal bearing e)

supports a shaft

010100020021000A Thrust bearings: 1. 2.

are used on reaction turbines prevent the turbine rotor moving axially

21

4.

are lubricated with the same oil as the main bearings

010100020021000C The lubricant for an anti-friction bearing c)

could be a semi-solid lubricant

010100020021000B A collar thrust bearing: 2. 3.

can prevent a rotating shaft from moving both axial directions has boundary lubrication

010100020021000B A thrust bearing b)

prevents axial movement of the shaft

010100020021000A An anti-friction bearing a)

could be a thrust bearing

010100020021000E A collar thrust bearing e)

has boundary lubrication

010100020021000C A type of anti-friction bearing is the ball bearing.

010100020021000C Using pressurized air to blow out a cleaned bearing c)

will cause the bearing to become "pitted"

010100020021000A When replacing or removing an antifriction ball bearing, the applied force should a)

not be transmitted through the bearing balls

010100020021000E Applying installation forces through the balls of a bearing can cause e)

brinelling

010100020021000D A normal antifriction bearing temperature operating range is d)

65 to 70 degrees C

22

010100020021000B When grease is used in an antifriction bearing, the bearing housing should not be filled more than 1/3 full. 010100020021000D Causes of anti-friction bearing failures are: 1. 2. 3. 4.

improper fitting false brinelling high operating temperature poor quality lubricant

Basic Electricity 010100020021000C In an atom the electrons d) are large in size when compared to the protons 010100020021000A When a number of electrons pass a given point over a specific time period the energy may be referred to as a)

an ampere

010100020021000A A basic law of electricity is, unlike charges attract each other and like charges a)

repel each other

010100020021000B The flow of electrons in a uniform direction is called b) electrical current flow 010100020021000C Since the discovery of electrons, it has been determined that electrons are a negative charge and flow from c)

negative to positive

010100020021000D An open circuit is one in which d)

a switch is open

010100020021000A A triple pole single throw switch is one a)

which opens and closes three wires of an electric circuit

010100020021000E The purpose of having an upward movement of a switch handle to

23

close the switch is e)

to prevent the switch from closing due to gravity

010100020021000C The battery of an electrical circuit c) supplies electromotive force 010100020021000D The unit of measure for electrical current flow is the d)

Ampere

010100020021000E Atoms that have greater numbers of electrons in the outer shell are e)

not good conductors

010100020021000B Electrons are negatively charged particles b)

orbiting about the nucleus of an atom

010100020021000D Conventional current flow is from positive to negative. d)

Conventional

010100020021000A If an electrical potential is placed across a conductor, the electrons will drift from the negative end towards the positive end of the conductor, assuming the electron theory. 010100020021000B A material that conducts electrical current is called b)

a conductor

010100020021000A The electrical pressure that causes current flow through a circuit is a)

electromotive force

010100020021000D The flow of electrons in a uniform direction from atom to atom through a circuit, is known as d)

current

010100020021000E An insulator is material that will not conduct an electrical current.

24

010100020021000E A closed electrical circuit will allow current to flow 010100020021000D An electrical device which is designed to start and stop current flow is the switch 010100020021000A Ohms Law can be stated as a)

E

=

IR

010100020021000C The voltage drop across a 20 ohm resistor with 10 amps flowing would be c)

200

010100020021000C In an equivalent circuit developed from a multi-resistor series circuit the sum of voltage drops across the original resistances will be equal to the voltage drop of the equivalent circuit 010100020021000A Three resistances of 20, 50 and 80 ohms make up a series circuit. Supply voltage is 400. The current flowing would be a)

2.67 amps

010100020021000B Equivalent resistance is decreased when a circuit is in parallel 010100020021000C Three resistors of 20, 60 and 120 ohms are connected in parallel and the circuit amperage is 60. The applied voltage would be c)

800

010100020021000C The unit for opposition to current flow is the ohm 010100020021000E The voltage required to force a current of 15 amps through a resistance of 5 ohms would be75 volts 010100020021000A Current flow is proportional to the applied voltage 010100020021000B When one ampere of current flows through a resistance by the application of one volt the resistance will be

25

b)

one ohm

010100020021000C Current flow is inversely proportional to the c)

resistance

010100020021000D The value of the current flow in an electric circuit, where the voltage is 12 volts and the resistance is 3 ohms is d) 4 amperes 010100020021000A The total resistance of three resistances in a series circuit can be given as a)

R1 + R2 + R3

010100020021000B The equivalent resistance of three resistances 10 ohms, 25 ohms and 50 ohms connected in parallel is b)

6.25 ohms

010100020021000C A conductor's resistance is c)

inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area

010100020021000A Most conductors tend to a)

increase in resistance with increase in temperature

010100020021000D If the applied voltage in a circuit is 120 volts and the current flow is 3 amperes the resistance of this circuit is d)

40 Ohms

010100020021000C Voltage is c)

electromotive force

010100020021000A Electromotive force a)

is capable of moving a quantity of electrons at some rate per period of time

010100020021000C An ampere is the

measurement of current flow.

26

010100020021000E The volt is an electromotive force. 010100020021000B Under normal circumstances, the heat produced by the electrical wires of a circuit is very small due to the b)

low resistance of the conductor

010100020021000C The force required to produce a current of one ampere through a resistance of one ohm, is c) one volt 010100020021000B The unit of current flow is the b)

ampere

010100020021000A The opposition a device or material offers to the flow of electric current, is known as: a)

a resistance

0503000200420006600;95; An electric motor is designed for a current of 30 amperes with an applied voltage of 220 volts. a)

calculate the power consumed

b) calculate the efficiency of the motor if the rated output is 6.27 kW Answers: a) = _____6600_________ watts b) = _________95_______ % 010100020021000D What power is dissipated by a resistor with a supply voltage of 120 volts and current of 8 amperes? d)

960 watts

010100020021000A Electrical power can be determined by the formula a)

P = IE

010100020021000B The basic unit of mechanical or electric power is the

27

b)

watt

010100020021000E The voltage required to be supplied to a 12 kW motor drawing 24 amperes is e)

500 volts

010100020021000D If the power dissipated by a resistor is 1.2 kW when supplied with 110 volts, the amperage will be d) 10.909 amperes 010100020021000B Neglecting the efficiency of a 15 kW motor connected to a 400 volt supply, the amperage will be b)

37.5 amperes

010100020021000D The watt is an electrical unit of measure for d)

power

010100020021000C The basic unit of electrical power is the watt, which is the result of c) volts times amperes

Magnetism and Electromagnetism 010100020021000B Magnetic flux can be said to be b)

lines of force outside a magnet and flowing N to S

010100020021000A Current flow direction and intensity will a)

affect magnetic field direction and intensity

010100020021000C When a material or substance does not form a magnetic flux easily it is said to have c)

reluctance

010100020021000E The space or zone around a magnet through which lines of force travel is termed e) magnetic field 010100020021000B

28

Faraday discovered b)

that a conductor will have a voltage induced if it cuts magnetic flux

010100020021000C If a conductor is held stationary and a magnetic field is moved across it, it forms what is known as c)

generator action

Magnetism and Electromagnetism 010100020021000D When a conductor is moved to cut magnetic flux lines at an angle of 90 degrees d)

voltage generated will be maximum

010100020021000D When magnetic flux lines travel and meet in opposing directions the result can be d)

motor action

010100020021000A A conductor supplied with current while in a magnetic field will a)

tend to move at right angles to the flux lines

010100020021000D If two unlike poles are placed adjacent to each other there is d)

a force of attraction between the magnets

010100020021000E When current flows in a conductor e)

a circular magnetic field is set up around the conductor

010100020021000C The total number of lines of force per square metre in a magnetic field is c)

called the magnetic flux

010100020021000D Magnetic field direction and intensity depend on the d)

direction and intensity of current flow

010100020021000D When like poles of a magnet are placed adjacent to each other

29

they will d)

repel each other

010100020021000E A property of a magnet is that it will always point in the north and south direction, when e)

freely suspended in the air

010100020021000D Iron and steel may be magnetized by rubbing the metal with d)

a magnet

010100020021000E The property which determines whether or not a material will be easily magnetized or not is called e)

permeability

010100020021000B The property of resistance to conducting magnetic lines of force is known as b)

reluctance

010100020021000C The maximum voltage generated by a single loop DC generator occurs when the conductor is cutting the magnetic lines of force at an angle of c)

90 degrees

010100020021000D When using Fleming's Left Hand Rule, the index finger represents d)

motor action flux direction

010100020021000E A current carrying conductor being moved by a magnetic field is the principle known as e)

motor action

010100020021000A The direction of the force due to motor action may be determined using the Left Hand Rule. 010100020021000D The minimum voltage generated by a single loop DC generator occurs when the conductor is cutting the magnetic lines of forces at an angle of d)

180 degrees

30

010100020021000B The right hand rule is used to b)

determine the direction of induced current flow

Electrical Metering Devices 010100020021000D Batteries d)

produce a steady DC voltage

010100020021000D The most common measurement made with a meter is d)

voltage

010100020021000A When using an electrical meter to check that a circuit is safe to work on, it is important to verify the proper scale, current, or both that is being used because a)

it may appear that no voltage or current is present and therefore safe

010100020021000C A clamp-on ammeter measures current flow by using c)

a basic transformer principle

010100020021000A Clamp-on ammeter readings may be inaccurate if a)

jaws are dirty or misaligned

010100020021000C A kilowatt hour meter has a small motor which c)

has a speed proportional to power consumption

010100020021000E Utility companies have a surcharge to their customers based on e)

peak demand

010100020021000D A voltmeter is connected to a circuit d)

in parallel

010100020021000C Ammeters are connected with the negative or black lead connected to the

31

c)

negative side of the circuit

010100020021000D When reading the dials of a power meter, read d)

them from right to left



010100020021000E The black demand pointer of a power meter e)

must be manually reset

010100020021000C A power meter c)

reads only a small percentage of the actual load

Motors and Generators 010100020021000C The electromagnetic field for a DC machine is termed the c)

field poles

010100020021000D There are three main types of DC generators; series, shunt and compound wound. Each is d)

self-excited

010100020021000E Alternators must run at constant speed in order to maintain e)

frequency

010100020021000A The output voltage of a shunt DC generator may be varied by adjusting the a)

field rheostat

010100020021000B The main components of a DC machine are the yoke or frame which supports the field poles and the rotor which is called an armature. 010100020021000A In order to produce the strength of magnetic flux required in larger DC machines a)

electromagnets are used

32

010100020021000E The armature core of a DC machine is built up of laminations of e) silicon steel plates 010100020021000B A shunt type DC generator has nearly constant output voltage. 010100020021000E The magnetic field in a DC machine may be supplied by permanent magnets in small units. Large DC machines use field poles that are essentially e)

electromagnets

010100020021000A The three main types of DC generators are the: 1. 3. 5.

compound wound series wound shunt wound

010100020021000D The load current has no effect on the field excitation of a d) separately excited generator 010100020021000B Three factors which control the electromotive force developed by a DC generator are the: 2. 3. 5.

speed with which conductors cut the magnetic lines of force number of conductors cutting the magnetic lines of force strength of the magnetic flux

010100020021000A The voltage produced in each phase of a three phase generator is displaced by 120 electrical degrees from the other phases. 010100020021000A The field strength of an alternator can be adjusted by varying the amplitude of the DC power supplied to the a)

rotating field

010100020021000B The field strength of an alternator may be changed by varying the amplitude of the DC power, supplied to the rotating field by: 1. 4.

the use of a field rheostat electronic control

33

010100020021000C An advantage of having an alternator with a rotating field is, that the size of the rotating mass is c)

reduced

050500020021000 Determine the speed of a synchronous motor operating with a line frequency of 60 Hz where the motor has ## poles. Answer = ____________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places) .SUBSTITUTIONS P(2,14,2) .SOLUTIONS N=60*60/(P/2); .RESULTS "Answer =",N:3,.01 010100020021000D The connection provided on DC motors to supply the armature with power d)

is a commutator

010100020021000C The space around a magnet, through which the imaginary magnetic lines of force are considered to travel, is known as the c)

magnetic field

010100020021000A A common use for a DC generator is a) \

power supply for an elevator

010100020021000C In a series wound DC generator2 c)

load current passes through the field windings

010100020021000A A rheostat or "voltage regulator" of a DC shunt wound generator is used to a)

regulate the strength of the electromagnetic field

010100020021000A When synchronizing an alternator; voltage, phase and frequency must all be the same as well as a)

phase sequence

010100020021000C The field rheostat in a DC generator is used to adjust the _______________ of the motor.

34

c)

output voltage

010100020021000E The coils or windings on a DC machine armature, are placed in _____________ cut in the face of the armature. e)

slots

010100020021000B The commutator of a DC machine is made of copper bars mounted in b)

micanite

010100020021000A The field rheostat changes the output voltage in a DC generator. 010100020021000D A compound wound DC generator has a combination of shunt and series characteristics, depending on the predominance of each type of winding. 010100020021000B The strength of the magnetic field produced in a shunt wound generator b)

is fairly constant

010100020021000C A compound wound DC generator may have three characteristics which are a: 1. 3. 5.

decreasing output voltage versus load constant output voltage rising output voltage versus load

010100020021000E The output voltage rises sharply from minimum load to full load conditions for DC wound generators, if constructed with one of the following systems: e)

series

010100020021000D The rotating field of an alternator is obtained by exciting the windings on the rotor with d)

DC power

010100020021000B The stator of an alternator is built of silicon steel mounted in a frame. b)

silicon steel

35

010100020021000D A 6 pole alternator producing 60 Hz power must turn at d)

1200 rpm

010100020021000E Alternators are constructed to use slip rings made of brass or e) steel 010100020021000C The number of cycles per unit of time measured in Hz, is known as c)

frequency

010100020021000E Field poles are used on motors and generators to set up a magnetic field. e)

Field poles

010100020021000D A rheostat is also known as a d)

variable resistor

010100020021000B Shunt wound DC motors are common where speed must remain constant regardless of load such as on b)

machinist lathes

010100020021000D Three types of DC motors are shunt, series and d)

compound

010100020021000D Compound motors combine the characteristics of shunt and series motors, as desired by the designer. 010100020021000A The armature of a DC machine is built up of laminated steel plates mounted on the shaft. The coils are connected to a commutator mounted on one end of the rotor shaft. 010100020021000D The yoke that supports the main components of the DC machine is frequently made of d)

cast steel or iron

36

010100020021000E Synchronous motors have construction that is identical to e)

alternators

010100020021000D An AC motor which will drop out of synchronism and simply trip when overloaded is the d)

synchronous motor

010100020021000D Permanent magnets are used for d)

the smallest DC motors and generators

010100020021000C Brush gear for DC machines have brushes made from carbon because they: 1. 2. 5.

are softer wear to a smooth finish have a low coefficient of friction

010100020021000D A rheostat is used to vary the field strength in a DC machine. 010100020021000D Synchronous motors are used to d)

improve the power factor of a power system

010100020021000D To transfer the power to or from the rotor of alternators or some AC motors d) slip rings are employed 010100020021000C Apparent power is the power c)

supplied by the utility

Transformers 010100020021000A When AC action causes a counter current in a coil it is termed a)

self inductance

37

010100020021000C When magnetic flux produced by one coil induces an EMF in a second coil it is called c)

mutual inductance

010100020021000B A transformer works on the principle of b)

magnetic induction

010100020021000E If E / E = N / N then N will equal p s p s s e)

N

p

E

s

/ E

p

010100020021000C Three major losses which occur in a transformer are iron losses, copper losses and c) flux leakage 010100020021000C Copper losses in a transformer are reduced by c)

using larger diameter wire

010100020021000D An active current transformer should never d)

have its secondary circuit opened

010100020021000E A phenomena produced by electronic switchgear which can result in excessively high voltages in transformers are known as e)

harmonic distortion

010100020021000D A device used to change the voltage and current from one level to another, is known as a/an d)

transformer

010100020021000C An instrument transformer used to measure voltage is called a c)

potential transformer

010100020021000E Transformers are rated in terms of: 1. 3.

Volt amperes Kilovolt amperes

38

010100020021000A The capacity of a transformer can be increased by: 1. 3. 5.

submerging the core and windings in a tank of oil forced air cooling the oil in a heat exchanger forced air cooling of the core

010100020021000C A transformer has a primary voltage of 500 volts and 20 turns on the primary winding. If the secondary winding has 5 turns the voltage of the secondary is c)

125 volts

010100020021000E The voltage induced in the secondary windings of the transformer, is inversely proportional to the turns ratio of the transformer. 010100020021000E Current transformers step down the current rather than the e)

voltage

010100020021000A Transformer cooling oil has a)

a very high specific heat

010100020021000C Some of the hazards of transformer cooling oil can be compensated for by adding c)

chlorinated hydrocarbons

010100020021000D Transformers should be inspected at least d) annually

Electrical Distribution Circuits 010100020021000C A typical extra low voltage device would be a c)

door bell

010100020021000C A prime factor in determining the voltage to be used in a circuit is

39

c)

degree of access to equipment

010100020021000B Low voltage systems may have an acceptable voltage variation of plus or minus b)

5%

010100020021000E The ability of an electrical circuit to store a charge of electricity even after the circuit is opened is termed e)

capacitance

010100020021000C When working with high voltage systems, the minimum distance of approach should be c)

2 metres

010100020021000B The best type of diagram for showing supply and distribution systems is the b)

one-line diagram

010100020021000C An electrical distribution system is composed of service, feeders and c)

branch circuits

010100020021000B The utility's responsibility will not go beyond the b)

first overcurrent device

Introduction to Instrumentation 010100020021000B When a process variable has no method of sending information to the final control element the system is known as b)

an open loop system

010100020021000D An open loop control system requires d)

constant attention

010100020021000C A process variable which is adjusted in order to maintain or achieve some desired value of another variable is termed the

40

c)

manipulated variable

010100020021000E A control loop controller e)

constantly compares input signals to the set point

010100020021000E A common air pressure range for pneumatic control systems is e)

20 to 100 kPa

010100020021000B A very important requirement for a pneumatic control system is b)

air supply must be clean and dry

010100020021000D The apparatus which converts current signals to pneumatic and pneumatic to current signals is called a d)

transducer

010100020021000D A control device which will change one form of energy into another form of energy is the d)

transducer

010100020021000A A device which will cause a visible light signal to become an instrument analog signal is the a)

photoelectric transducer

010100020021000B A "control" should be considered as a special device which b)

tries to maintain a set point

010100020021000C Automatic systems which can make decisions are termed c)

logic systems

Introduction to Process Measurement 010100020021000A An inclined manometer is commonly used a)

when very low pressures or vacuums are being measured

41

010100020021000D A Bourdon tube is often in the shape of a spiral so that d)

more power and travel of the output occurs

010100020021000C When a diaphragm device is used for boiler water level measurement, the boiler pressure is compensated for or off-set by c)

applying the pressure to both sides of the diaphragm

010100020021000E One of the most widely used process variables in a system is e)

flow

010100020021000C In a glass stem thermometer the space above the liquid is usually c)

maximum vacuum

010100020021000D A thermocouple will produce a DC millivoltage which d)

is not quite proportional to temperature differences

010100020021000E The Bourdon tube is often shaped in the form of a "C", having an arc span of about e)

270 degrees

010100020021000B The purpose of a spiral or a helix Bourdon tube is b)

to provide a greater degree of rotation

010100020021000C Glass thermometers with a mercury fill are sometimes pressurized with nitrogen so c)

that they can be used at higher temperatures

010100020021000E Temperatures are measured by e)

thermocouples

010100020021000D The variable area meter consists of d) a tapered tube in which the fluid being measured flows through the tube from the bottom to the top 010100020021000E A bimetal thermostat reacts to changes of

42

e)

temperature

010100020021000B When a float is used for measuring level, and installation within a vessel is impractical, a device often used is the b)

float cage

010100020021000D Relative to flow, velocity is kinetic energy and when velocity increases, the d)

potential energy in the form of pressure will decrease

010100020021000C Liquid must be in its vapour form c)

when a chromatograph is being used

0020021000B A chromatograph uses electronic devices which b)

have inverse resistance properties relative to temperature

010100020021000D The electrical output from a thermocouple is measured by a d)

millivoltmeter

010100020021000B A thermocouple consists of b)

two dissimilar wires connected together to form a hot and a cold junction

Basic Control Loop Components 010100020021000B A flapper-nozzle assembly is basic to all b)

transmitters

010100020021000C The nozzle receives a constant air supply pressure of approximately c)

140 kPa

010100020021000A The output pressure signal of a transmitter relay is usually a)

direct and proportional to nozzle pressure

43

010100020021000A A two-position controller compares conditions to a set point and a)

will start or stop a process

010100020021000E When controller output is proportional to the amount of deviation, the controller is e) proportional 010100020021000B A proportional only controller b)

cannot maintain set point except at 50%

010100020021000B A recorder utilizing a spiral Bourdon tube will have a pen movement b)

proportional to the change in tube pressure

010100020021000D When a recorder receives a signal from a transmitter, the recorder incorporates a d)

capsule or bellows

010100020021000A When an operator uses CRT displays, the computer control panel a)

often has a number of dedicated recorders

010100020021000B A control valve b)

is a form of variable resistance in a piping system

010100020021000D A valve actuator d) e)

position is a function of controller output causes a valve to always fail open

010100020021000D Most solenoid valves are unlike globe valves in that upstream line pressure will d)

act to close the valve

44

Basic Boiler Instrumentation and Control Systems 010100020021000B On a packaged boiler a number of electrical switches connected in series can be categorized as b)

interlocks

010100020021000D A combustion air proving switch d)

senses windbox pressure

010100020021000A A lead sulphide cell is sensitive to IR rays and a)

its resistance to current flow varies inversely with ray emissions

010100020021000C To operate the type of flame failure device which incorporates a lead sulphide cell, it must receive c)

infrared rays

010100020021000B The function of a flame failure device is to b)

shut off the fuel when the burner flame goes out

010100020021000E Which of the following is a flame sensing device? e)

scanner

010100020021000D A flame failure device d)

will shut off the fuel to the burner

010100020021000E Boiler modulating feedwater control flow rate depends on e)

set point, level, and valve position

010100020021000B With single element feedwater control the level transmitter output is b)

proportional to drum level

010100020021000E The second element of a two element feedwater control system

45

compensates for or offsets e)

shrink and swell

010100020021000A A boiler control transfer or selector station a)

can be used to manually override automatic control loops

010100020021000C An automatic feedwater regulator is used to c)

maintain a constant water level in the boiler

010100020021000A In a two element feedwater control the following items are measured: a)

boiler water level and steam flow

010100020021000C On a steam boiler with single element feedwater control, the following item is measured: c)

boiler water level

010100020021000A An automatic boiler ON-OFF or operating control switch has an adjustment for cut-in or cut-out value and another for a)

a differential between the two

010100020021000E A packaged steam boiler modulating combustion control system will routinely e)

maintain boiler steam pressure within a desired range

010100020021000A Modulating combustion control will a)

change air and fuel flow proportionally to steam pressure change

010100020021000B Modulating pressure control b)

will control the fuel and air flow to the boiler

010100020021000C Modulating combustion control on a heating boiler is accomplished by c) changing the amount of fuel and air to the burner

46

Low-water Fuel Cutoffs 010100020021000C A float operated low-water fuel cutoff has its switch separated from boiler pressure by c)

a flexible diaphragm

010100020021000B A mercury switch bulb is under high vacuum and contains inert gas b)

to prevent corrosion of the contacts

010100020021000C A float operated level control c)

is only used on small boilers

010100020021000A Overheating of boiler heating surfaces due to low water a)

is the main cause of boiler failure

010100020021000D A low water fuel cut-off is fitted to a boiler to prevent d) damage to the boiler from an overheated condition 010100020021000E The purpose of a low water fuel cut-off is to e)

shut off the fuel supply when the water level gets too low

010100020021000A A low water fuel cut-off may be activated by a)

lowering the water level in the boiler

010100020021000E The CSA code states that a boiler not under continuous attendance must be equipped with a low-water fuel cutoff which e)

serves no other purpose

010100020021000A A low-water fuel cutoff which serves no other purpose a)

cannot be equipped with isolation valves

010100020021000C A low-water fuel cutoff switch should close the automatic fuel valve(s) when the water level is

47

c)

1 to 2.5 cm above the bottom gage glass nut

010100020021000B A hot water boiler low-water fuel cutoff b)

cannot be tested during routine boiler operation

010100020021000C The drain of a hot water boiler low-water fuel cutoff should be opened to flush out any debris c)

weekly

010100020021000B To test a low water fuel cut-off b)

lower the water level until the burner shuts down

010100020021000A The float chamber of the low water cut-off is blown out often to prevent a)

the chamber collecting sediment

010100020021000C The most reliable method of checking or testing a low-water fuel cut off is to c) lower the water in the boiler to the level where the burner should cut out 010100020021000C The low water cut-off can be tested by c) shutting off the feedwater

Boiler Programming Controls 010100020021000C Automatic boiler programming controls c)

require an ON-OFF or two-position control switch

010100020021000D An interrupted pilot of an automatic boiler d) lights, completes a trial, and extinguishes after a main flame trial 010100020021000C The function of a programming control is c)

to regulate combustion controls during start-up

010100020021000D

48

Boiler furnaces are purged d) so that combustibles are fully removed prior to ignition 010100020021000A Automatic boiler liquid fuel manual valves should be opened a)

prior to pre-purging

010100020021000A The operating pressure control will control the a)

steam pressure in the boiler

010100020021000C The second from last step in an automatic boiler programmed shutdown sequence is c)

post purge

010100020021000C With automatic fuel fired boiler programmed control the normal firing period begins approximately c) 60 seconds after FD fan starts 010100020021000A On a gas fired automatic boiler a normal programmed start-up takes approximately a)

105 seconds

010100020021000C During a programmed start-up if an ignitor spark is visible but no flame appears the operator should suspect c)

the pilot manual fuel valve is closed

010100020021000A If a shutdown occurs during normal firing of a boiler and the steam pressure is below the normal cut-out value, the problem could be a)

the sensing line to the combustion air proving switch has broken

010100020021000A On a boiler with high-low fire control, if the damper positioning switch is in the wrong position a)

the damper motor may not operate

Introduction to Process Computer Applications 49

010100020021000B The main function of a mainframe computer system is to b)

rapidly process large amounts of data

010100020021000A A typical use of a mainframe computer system in a process would be a)

the operation of a modulating control valve

010100020021000E Sharing and transferring information between computers is termed e)

networking

010100020021000D A multiplexing sequence may be repeated as high as d) four times per second 010100020021000B Computer "soft keying" is b)

done to make the computer quicker and easier to use

010100020021000C A digital input computer is protected from harmful voltages by means of c)

isolating circuits

010100020021000B Transmitters which transmit digital codes directly to a computer are known as b)

smart transmitters

010100020021000E The common standard control modes for a plant control system are e)

derivative, proportional, and integral

010100020021000A Inputs for logic and supervisory computer functions are mainly a)

by switch contacts

010100020021000D Computer "Run Time Totals" are commonly used d)

for maintenance management

50

Watertube and Tubular Heating Boilers 010100020021000D The combustion chamber of a serpentine tube watertube boiler is d)

located below the tube

010100020021000D One of the reasons that industrial type watertube boilers are seldom selected for low pressure heating plants is d)

high cost

010100020021000C A membrane waterwall c)

has metal connecting the tubes

010100020021000E What limits the height of a packaged boiler is e)

transportation requirements

010100020021000C The use of bent tube boiler designs allows the furnace wall to be lined with tubes, thereby exposing more of the heating surface to c)

radiant heat

010100020021000D The bent tube boiler design allows the tubes to be attached radially on the outside of the d)

shell or drum

010100020021000C In a low pressure serpentine tube watertube boiler, the serpentine tubes are attached to upper and lower headers with __________ connections. c)

threaded

010100020021000B The furnace walls in a bent-tube watertube boiler are formed by water filled tubes and these walls are called b)

water walls

010100020021000D A reason for preferring copper tubing in a tubular boiler is d) corrosion resistance

51

010100020021000B An initial problem with the tubular boiler being used as a steam unit was b)

dissolved impurities forming scale on the tube

010100020021000E An advantage of a packaged low pressure tubular or watertube boiler is e) safety due to the low volume of water it contains 010100020021000D One of the advantages of the low pressure serpentine tube watertube boilers is d)

ease of replacement of defective tubes

010100020021000C One of the advantages of the low pressure serpentine watertube boiler is c) virtually eliminates expansion and contraction stresses 010100020021000A A reason for preferring copper tubing in a tubular boiler is a)

faster heat transfer rate

010100020021000C A packaged tubular steam boiler often has a steel sheathing in front of the waterwall tubes due to c)

the erosive action of the flame

010100020021000A In order to keep salt concentrations within safe limits the packaged tubular steam boiler utilizes a)

an automatic blowdown

010100020021000B A disadvantage of the watertube or tubular boiler is b)

water treatment monitoring

010100020021000A The copper tube tubular boiler a)

can be gas or oil fired

Cast-iron Sectional and Modular Boilers 52

010100020021000A Sectional cast-iron boiler sections are connected with a)

push nipples

010100020021000C Cast-iron boiler sections maximize heat transfer by c)

exposing as large a surface as possible to the hot gases

010100020021000A Boiler water legs a)

increase the heating surface

010100020021000D Boiler sections are held together with d)

tie rods

010100020021000C The ratio of heat released to heat transferred to boiler water is known as c)

boiler efficiency

010100020021000C Most low capacity cast-iron boilers c) will pass through standard size doorways 010100020021000E The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler are connected by e) push nipples 010100020021000D The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler are held together by d)

tie rods

010100020021000B In a vertical sectional boiler the sections are places b)

side by side

010100020021000D The sections of cast iron boilers are mainly designed to obtain maximum d)

heat transfer

010100020021000A The fins cast on the flat surface of the sections of a cast iron sectional boiler are used for the purpose of increasing the

53

a)

effectiveness of heat transfer

010100020021000E To prevent flue gases from escaping in a cast iron sectional boiler, the spaces between the sections are sealed with high temperature e)

asbestos rope

010100020021000C Heating boilers attain maximum efficiency only when they are operated c)

continuously at full load

010100020021000A Modular cast-iron boiler water flow is a)

continuous through all modules

010100020021000B In a cast iron modular heating boiler, the operation of the burner of each module is controlled by a __________ which starts or stops modules in sequence as load demand increases or decreases. b)

step controller

010100020021000E A cast-iron boiler disadvantage is e) its pressure limitations 010100020021000D A cast-iron boiler advantage is d)

the choice of assembly location

010100020021000B Cast-iron boiler capacity b)

can be increased by simply adding sections

Firetube Heating Boilers 010100020021000C One of the earliest firetube boilers was the c)

HRT boiler

010100020021000C An internally fired boiler

54

c)

has the furnace surrounded by water

010100020021000E The forerunner of the modern packaged firetube boiler was the e) Scotch Marine boiler 010100020021000A Initially the firetube boiler was not up to manufacturing expectations because a)

too many equipment suppliers were involved in its manufacture

010100020021000A Smaller firetube boilers are low cost and a)

have simple rugged construction

010100020021000A When a packaged firetube boiler is used as a power boiler rather than a heating unit a)

it will have a much stronger design

010100020021000E The steam pressure must not exceed 103 to be considered a heating boiler.

kPa for a boiler

010100020021000D The temperature of a boiler must not exceed 121 degrees Celsius or the pressure exceed 1130 kPa for it to be considered a heating boiler. 010100020021000B To maintain high gas velocities throughout all gas passes in a four-pass firetube boiler, the cross-sectional area of each succeeding pass is b)

decreased

010100020021000C A firetube boiler commonly used for hot water heating systems in residences and small apartments is the c) steel plate vertical unit 010100020021000E A steel plate vertical firetube unit is divided into two sections and the upper part is often called the e)

heat exchanger

010100020021000E When the hot combustion gases travel through boiler tubes which

55

are surrounded by the boiler water, the boiler is called a e)

firetube boiler

010100020021000C Packaged firetube boilers c)

require relatively small building volumes

010100020021000D When a packaged firetube boiler is used as a hot water unit d)

forced circulation is required

010100020021000D The advantages of a packaged boiler are: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

lower freight costs because of less handling lower initial cost because they are mass produced quality control is easier to implement the boilers can be factory tested before being sent to the customer it requires little time to put the unit into operation at the plant site

010100020021000C The chief advantage of a packaged boiler is that it can be c)

mass produced

010100020021000C One of the advantages of the firetube boiler over the watertube and tubular boiler is in the c) water treatment area 010100020021000A The advantage of a vertical firetube boiler is that it requires a)

very little floor space

Oil Burners for Heating Boilers 010100020021000D The reducing of oil into very small particles is termed d)

atomization

010100020021000B Before atomization can occur, heavy oils are heated to approximately b)

95 degrees C

010100020021000E An air atomizing burner utilizes an air pressure of

56

approximately e)

100 kPa

010100020021000D An air atomizing compressor is usually d) a positive displacement type 010100020021000A The capacity of a constant capacity mechanical atomizer is a function of a)

orifice size

010100020021000B A modulating pressure atomizer has its return oil flow regulated by b)

a modulating valve in the return line

010100020021000A To which of the following oil burners is the oil supplied under high pressure? a)

mechanical atomizing burner

010100020021000C When using mechanical fuel oil atomization c) high pump pressure is required 010100020021000A Oil burners can be divided into three classes: 1. 2. 3.

air and steam atomizing burners mechanical or pressure atomizing burners centrifugal or rotary cup burners

010100020021000B The compressed air used as atomizing air in the air atomizing oil burner is also called b)

primary air

010100020021000B The two basic varieties of mechanical atomizing oil burners are: 2. 3.

constant capacity burner modulating burner

010100020021000D A multi-burner cluster has secondary and tertiary nozzles ignited by d)

the primary burner

57

010100020021000B When a greater than normal amount of combustible mixture is ignited the result may be b)

a puff-back

010100020021000C A fuel filter consists of c)

three main parts

010100020021000D Burner light oil supply pressure range is approximately d) 550 to 700 kPa 010100020021000B A relief valve is placed on the discharge of a fuel oil pump b)

so burner design pressure is not exceeded

010100020021000B A time delay oil valve b)

opens once ignition is verified

010100020021000C In order to prevent the possibility of a furnace explosion it is important that the furnace is purged before the ignitor is energized and fuel is supplied to the burner nozzle(s).

010100020021000E Intermediate and high fire burner nozzles have higher capacities than the primary burner nozzle e) to allow better boiler warm-ups 010100020021000A Oil flow rate to a modulating burner is regulated by a)

a return line modulating valve

010100020021000C The minimum distance from furnace to oil storage tank is c) 2.1 m 010100020021000E Maximum static pressure in a fuel oil line is approximately e)

70 kPa

Gas Burners for Heating Boilers 010100020021000C

58

The main function of a gas burner is

c)

provision of O -fuel contact 2

010100020021000B An atmospheric burner has air entering around the burner which is termed b)

secondary air

010100020021000D The amount of pre-mix air to an atmospheric burner should be d)

30 to 40%

010100020021000A A refractory burner disadvantage is a)

high initial cost

010100020021000A A very popular packaged boiler gas burner is the a)

ring burner

010100020021000D An atmospheric burner head which is very popular on heating boilers is the d)

rectangular type

010100020021000A When a gas fired burner is burning fuel properly a)

it will have a blue flame with short yellow tips

010100020021000D Gas burners for heating boilers can be divided into two general classes and they are the d)

pre and after mix burners

010100020021000B The Venturi tube in the atmospheric burner mixing head has a b)

gradually increasing cross-sectional area

010100020021000E Rectangular burner heads are most common for use in heating boilers. 010100020021000B

59

One of the advantages of the refractory (gas) burner is the b)

gas and air mixture is thoroughly preheated before it enters the furnace

010100020021000D The purpose of the deflector vanes in the centre of a ring (gas) burner is to d) promote turbulence of the gas and air mixture 010100020021000A One of the advantages of using natural gas as a fuel in a boiler is a)

that no storage space is required

010100020021000C An intermittent pilot

c)

lights the main flame and remains on with it

010100020021000C The pilot burner for gas fired heating equipment can be:

3. 4. 5.

intermittent interrupted automatic

010100020021000E The

continuous

pilot is most often used on small boilers.

010100020021000D Large capacity burners

d)

should have minimum flow on ignition

010100020021000B A hydramotor valve

b)

helps to prevent puff-backs

010100020021000A A solenoid type fuel valve

a)

is held closed by fuel pressure

010100020021000B If the power is cut off to an automatic gas valve, the valve will be

b)

closed immediately

010100020021000A

60

The advantage of a motorized (hydramotor) gas valve is that the valve opens

slowly

thus preventing "furnace puff".

Basic Fittings for Low-pressure Steam Boilers I 010100020021000C A function of a Bourdon tube gage hairspring is

c)

eliminate backlash

010100020021000A An LP steam pressure gage range shall be between

a)

210 and 420 kPa

010100020021000E An inspectors' test connection

e)

is not mandatory on LP boilers

010100020021000D When installing a siphon it

d)

should be first filled with water

010100020021000B An indication of a pressure gage not performing properly is

b) the needle not returning to zero on depressurizing 010100020021000A When using a dead weight tester, the effect of friction

a)

is reduced by rotating the platform

010100020021000D The working medium in the dead weight tester is

d)

medium weight oil

010100020021000D An essential fitting between the boiler and the steam pressure gage is

d)

a siphon

010100020021000E A steam pressure gauge is graduated in

61

e)

kilopascals

010100020021000C The prime importance of boiler fittings are

c)

safety

010100020021000A All boiler fittings not properly or clearly identified should be

a)

rejected

010100020021000C The purpose of the test connection on a boiler pressure gauge is to

c)

install the boiler inspector's pressure gauge

010100020021000A As the boiler pressure increases, the bourdon tube of the pressure gauge will

a)

tend to straighten

010100020021000E The cross-section of a Bourdon tube is generally

e)

oval

010100020021000D An essential fitting between the boiler and the steam pressure gauge is a

d)

siphon

010100020021000C The purpose of the pipe siphon installed between the boiler and the pressure gauge is to prevent

c)

hot steam from entering the gauge

010100020021000A According to the ASME code, the scale on the dial of the steam gauge for a low pressure steam heating boiler shall be graduated to not less than

a)

210 kPa 62

010100020021000B According to the ASME code, the scale on the dial of the steam gauge for a low pressure steam heating boiler shall be graduated to not more than

b)

420 kPa

010100020021000B An LP steam boiler safety valve shall not be smaller than

b)

12.7 mm

010100020021000D In order to ensure a safety valve seats properly, it uses

d)

guides and bushings

010100020021000A The force of the steam pressure acting on the safety valve disc is a function of

a)

disc area

010100020021000C The minimum blowdown of an LP safety valve is

c)

14 kPa

010100020021000C Popping pressure of an LP safety valve may be adjusted

c)

up to 5%

010100020021000D The blowdown on a safety valve is adjusted by turning the

d)

adjusting ring

010100020021000C What does the boiler inspector install to prevent tampering with a safety valve setting?

c)

a seal

010100020021000E The lip on a safety valve

e)

allows it to "pop" open

010100020021000D A safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be smaller than

d)

13 mm 63

010100020021000D According to the ASME code, steam heating boilers shall have one or more safety valves, adjusted and sealed to discharge at a pressure not exceeding 103 kPa. 010100020021000A According to the ASME code, the valve seat diameter of the safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be smaller than

a)

12.7 mm (1/2 in.)

010100020021000E According to the ASME code, the valve seat diameter of the safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be larger than

e)

110 mm (4 1/2 in.)

010100020021000E For a steam heating boiler, the safety valve shall be such that, with the fuel burning equipment installed and operated at maximum capacity, the pressure cannot rise more than 34 kPa above the maximum allowable working pressure when all steam outlets are closed. 010100020021000D The safety valve shall be installed in __________ position and located in the highest practicable part of the boiler proper.

d)

a vertical

010100020021000C An LP safety valve lever test should be performed

c)

monthly

010100020021000C LP boiler safety valves can be repaired

c) by a qualified boiler operator after permission from theinspector 010100020021000B

b) increasing the boiler pressure until the valve opens and noting the pressure on the pressure gage when the valve opened 010100020021000B

64

Testing the safety valve by means of the try lever method, is considered good practice when carried out on a

b)

monthly basis

010100020021000C If a safety valve leaks after a try lever test, the operator should

c) operate the try lever several times to blow away foreign material 010100020021000D If you found the safety valve on your heating boiler stuck in the closed position while the boiler was in operation, the best thing to do is

d) shut down the boiler and repair or replace the safety valve Basic Fittings for Low-pressure Steam Boilers II 010100020021000C LP steam boilers must be equipped with a marker indicating the

c)

lowest permissible water line

010100020021000D A gage glass may be surrounded by a number of thin rods

d)

to protect the glass from damage

010100020021000E Quick-closing gage glass valves

e)

require 90 degrees for full travel

010100020021000B A disadvantage of a gage glass safety-shutoff valve is

b)

it requires more maintenance

010100020021000D Should the steam line or water line to a gage glass become plugged with sludge

d)

the gage glass will read high 65

010100020021000B Water column supply line crosses will

b)

allow for piping cleaning and inspection

010100020021000B Gage glass rupture may be caused by

b)

a cold draft

010100020021000D When gage glass nuts are leaking

d) the glass should be isolated and depressurized before tightening 010100020021000A When the water connection between boiler and gage glass becomes plugged, the water level in the glass will show a level after a while, that is

a)

higher than the level in the boiler

010100020021000A The lowest visible part of the water gauge glass shall be at least 25 mm above the lowest permissible water level recommended by the manufacturer. 010100020021000D The ASME code states that each steam boiler shall have one or more water gauge glasses attached either directly to the boiler or to a water column by means of valve fittings not less than 13 mm pipe size. 010100020021000B On a multiple steam boiler heating system, a stop valve must be placed at each boiler outlet to

b)

allow boiler isolation from the system

010100020021000A Boiler outlet valves are usually

a) gate valves because of their low resistance to flow 010100020021000B An outside screw and yoke valve

66

b)

readily shows its operating position

010100020021000B The quick closing valves on the water gauge requires only a quarter of a turn of the valve spindle to change the valve from the full open to the full closed position and vice versa. 010100020021000D The feedwater pipe, before it enters the boiler must be fitted with a check valve adjacent to the boiler. 010100020021000E A boiler feedwater stop valve e)

is used to isolate the feedwater line

010100020021000B A globe valve should be used in the feedwater line

b)

whenever it may be used for control purposes

010100020021000B A stop valve is fitted between the boiler and the feed water check valve

b) for isolation and to provide a positive shutoff 010100020021000D Boiler water foaming may be the result of

d)

high TDS

010100020021000C Boiler blowdown lines have a specific size range based on

c)

boiler capacity

010100020021000B Boiler blowdown piping

b)

must be full size to the point of discharge

010100020021000C A steam boiler is blown down in order to

c) discharge sediment and scale forming matter from the boiler 67

010100020021000D The purpose of the small vent valve or cock located on top of the shell or on top of the water column on most boilers is

d) to allow air to escape from the boiler when the boiler is being filled with water Basic Fittings for Hot Water Boilers 010100020021000C A pressure or altitude gage for a hot water boiler c) does not require a siphon 010100020021000A When a closed expansion tank is used and the system is cold

a) the auto fill valve will maintain a system minimum pressure 010100020021000D An altitude gage on hot water heating boilers is used to indicate

d) e)

height of the highest radiator in system

the height of the boiler

010100020021000D Siphon is not required between a pressure or an altitude gauge and a hot water boiler since these boilers are

d)

filled with water

010100020021000B The lever handle of the shut-off cock between a pressure or altitude gauge and a hot water boiler should be PARALLEL to the pipe in which it is located when the cock is open.

b)

parallel

010100020021000A The scale on the dial of a pressure gauge should be graduated to not less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure. 010100020021000E The dial of a pressure gauge on a hot water boiler indicating SI units can be graduated in kPa

68

010100020021000E When the pressure pointer of a closed system reads lower than the altitude pointer the

e)

system requires water

010100020021000D The temperature indicator of a hot water boiler should indicate water temperature

d)

at the boiler outlet

010100020021000B On a pressure temperature indicator, if the pressure pointer falls below the altitude pointer

b)

the system is low on water

010100020021000A Hot water heating boilers must be equipped with a

a)

thermometer

010100020021000E With the fusible plug type of temperature relief device, the fusible plug will melt at 99C degrees Celsius and allow hot water to escape. 010100020021000D The expansion and contraction rod type of temperature relief device will open the valve at 99C degrees Celsius and close it at 71C degrees Celsius. 010100020021000B A boiler pressure relief valve a)

shall be installed on the boiler

c) d) e)

must be at least 51 mm pipe size does not require annual checking or testing can be installed with an isolation valve

b) can be installed anywhere in the system but preferably close to the expansion tank

010100020021000A For hot water boilers operating up to 414 kPa, a pressure relief valve opening pressure variation may be as much as

a) b) c) d) e)

14 kPa 5% 14% 5 kPa 10%

69

010100020021000E A hot water boiler is protected from over pressure by means of a) b) c) d)

e)

a safety pop valve a high limit pressure control an expansion valve an air release valve

a safety relief valve

010100020021000A ASME Section IV, states shall have at least one valve set to relieve at working pressure of the

that each hot water heating boiler officially rated pressure relief or below the maximum allowable boiler.

010100020021000E Hot water boilers have stop valves in their inlet and outlet piping

e) so that the boiler can be drained without draining the system 010100020021000C Boiler stop valves shall be

c)

identified with durable tags

010100020021000B During warm-up of a cold hot water boiler excessive pressure build-up is prevented by

b)

an expansion tank

010100020021000D In a closed expansion tank system an air separator

d)

directs air into the expansion tank

010100020021000C In a hot water heating system, the closed type expansion tank should be

c)

partly filled with water

010100020021000B When a closed type expansion tank on a hot water boiler is completely filled with water and the water in the system is raised in temperature so that it expands, the result will be that

70

b) the pressure build-up opens the safety relief valve 010100020021000C An expansion tank is used to

c)

allow for the expansion of the water

010100020021000D The head of water in the hot water heating system employing an open type of expansion is referred to the vertical distance from the gauge of the boiler to the level in the expansion tank, which is considered the highest level of the water in the system.

d)

expansion tank

010100020021000C An automatic fill valve

c)

is not mandatory

010100020021000A A closed expansion tank is usually equipped with

a)

a gage glass

Hot Water Steam Heating Boiler Operations 010100020021000B Before starting up a new boiler or one that has been out of service the following must be ensured

b)

the boiler has a valid inspection certificate

010100020021000D It is very important that boilers should be

d)

warmed up slowly to prevent thermal shock

010100020021000A When cutting in an additional boiler into the heating system

a) the stop valves in the supply and return lines are both closed 010100020021000D

71

One of the most important points that should be observed before a new boiler is started and put into continuous operation is to

d)

make sure the inspection certificate is valid

010100020021000D When preparing a boiler for startup and the boiler is equipped with a modulating combustion control, it is best to

d) set the manual-auto switch to "manual" and set the flame control switch in the lowest position 010100020021000B If the low-water fuel cutoff and/or the high limit control are equipped with a trip-out device on a boiler, it is recommended as part of the startup preparation to

b) push the reset button to assure that the switches are closed 010100020021000D In hot water boiler operation the maximum operating temperature should never exceed

d)

121 degrees C

010100020021000C The pressure relief valve on a hot water heating boiler should be set

c)

25% above operating pressure

010100020021000C A gradual increase in stack temperature is an indication of

c)

unclean heating surfaces

010100020021000D The discharge pressure of steam heating pressure relief valves should never exceed

d)

103 kPa/15 psi

010100020021000A How often would you test the low level fuel cut-off on a low pressure steam heating boiler by blowing out the float chamber?

72

a)

daily

010100020021000B The maximum pressure of a low pressure steam heating boiler is

b)

103 kPa/ 15 psi

010100020021000D The maximum operating temperature of a hot water heating boiler is

d)

121 degrees Celsius

010100020021000E Should any abnormal condition occur during light-off or the temperature building-up period a)

continue to run the boiler but reduce the steam and fuel

e) shut down the boiler immediately and close the stop valves in the fuel lines 010100020021000C There are two conditions that may occur during the warm up period which may seem to be abnormal to the operator but will disappear after the boiler heats up. These conditions are

c)

slight smoking and condensation

010100020021000B During the warm-up period of a heating boiler the main burner goes out. The operator should

b) shut down the boiler, close the fuel valves, and determine the cause of the problem 010100020021000E Thermal shock to boilers can be reduced by

a) warming up boilers slowly b) keeping the boiler free of scale build-up c) covering the tube sheets with refractory d) not allowing full flow of cold water into a warm hot water boiler e)

all of the above

010100020021000B The most important rule in safe operation of a steam heating boiler is

73

b) keep the water level in the boiler at the proper level 010100020021000B To reduce the effects of uneven expansion and thermal shock and to protect a boiler against damage during startup, one of the precautions that should be taken is

b)

always warm up the boiler slowly

010100020021000D It is recommended that the differential between the safety relief valve set pressure and the operating pressure of a hot water boiler be kept to a minimum of 69 kPa (10 psi) or 25% of the relief valve setting.

010100020021000A Smoking conditions during the operation of a boiler can be caused by

a)

improper air/fuel ratio

Steam Heating Equipment 010100020021000C Unit heaters differ from convectors in that they use blowers to increase heat transfer.

c)

blowers

010100020021000A Convectors use metal fins to increase heat transfer.

a)

metal fins

010100020021000C Radiators can be classified as

c)

wall-hung, floor, legless, and window

010100020021000C In fin coil type heaters, individual room temperature is controlled by

c)

dampers

010100020021000D Unit ventilators use

74

d)

a mixture of inside and outside air

010100020021000D The difference between a convector and a radiator is

d) that one is made of cast iron and the other of steel or copper 010100020021000A Large areas such as warehouses, are usually heated with

a)

unit heaters

010100020021000A Air can be removed from steam heating systems by

a)

air vents

010100020021000E A radiator valve is used to control the amount of

e)

steam entering the radiator

010100020021000E A radiator trap is a device that is used to

e)

allow only water to leave the radiator

010100020021000C The vacuum pump performs the following function:

c) returns the condensate (water) back to the boiler 010100020021000A The level in the condensate receiver is automatically controlled by a

a)

float switch

010100020021000C The purpose of a radiator trap is to

c)

drain condensate from the radiator

010100020021000B Air vents are used to

75

b)

expel the air from heating systems

010100020021000E The purpose of a radiator trap is to

e) pass condensate and retain steam in the radiator Steam Heating Systems 010100020021000C The piping and heating units of a steam heating system must be so arranged that

c)

steam can flow freely to all heating units

010100020021000B In a gravity return system the boiler should be placed

b)

well below the lowest radiator

010100020021000C The Hartford Loop prevents the water in the boiler from

c)

dropping below a safe level

010100020021000A All supply and drain lines of a steam heating system must be pitched to

a)

allow for drainage of condensate

010100020021000C When starting up a steam heating boiler it should be filled to

c)

1/2 of a gage glass

010100020021000D If the water level falls too low during operation of a steam heating boiler the operator should

d)

shut the boiler down

010100020021000E In the case of radiators and convectors, the main sources of trouble are the

76

e)

valves and traps

010100020021000D Finned convectors should be kept free of

d)

dust

010100020021000B Slow or insufficient heat throughout a building heated by steam can be caused by

b)

too low a firing rate

010100020021000A Slow or insufficient heat in one or more rooms in a steam heated building can be caused by a

a)

faulty steam trap

Hot Water Heating Systems 010100020021000C The maximum temperature of water in a gravity hot water system is 87C C 010100020021000B In a forced circulation system the expansion tank allows the system to operate at

b)

a pressure well above atmospheric pressure

010100020021000E A forced hot water circulating system can be classified as the following type:

a) b) c) d) e)

loop system one pipe system two pipe direct return system two pipe reverse return system all of the above

010100020021000A In a one pipe hot water system the fitting that directs the water to each converter is called the

77

a)

diverter

010100020021000C In a radiant heating system the maximum surface temperature is

c)

30 degrees C

010100020021000A In radiant heating system changes are

a)

difficult to make

010100020021000E Automatic snow melting systems can use

a) hot water and antifreeze mixed b) electric resistance heating c) infrared lamps mounted above sidewalks and ramps d) hot water and ethylene glycol mixed e)

all of the above

010100020021000C Snow melting systems are usually filled with

c)

ethylene glycol and water

010100020021000A Advantages of the forced circulation hot water heating systems are

a) reduction in pipe size and greater heat storage capacity 010100020021000B A hot water boiler of the same output is

b)

smaller than a steam boiler

010100020021000B In a hot water system compared to a steam heating system, if there is a leak damage will

b)

be greater in the hot water system

010100020021000E Which of the following use a boiler in the system?

78

1. 3. 4.

steam heating steam to hot water system hot water heating

- Hot Water Heating System Equipment and Operation 010100020021000B Diverter fittings are used in the supply lines to heating units

when a higher heating output is required from the heating unit 010100020021000A An air separator should always be installed in

a)

a horizontal pipe

010100020021000D The air removed by the air separator is vented to the

d)

expansion tank

010100020021000E

e)

balancing valve is used

010100020021000D The temperature control on a steam to hot water converter, controls

d)

the steam control valve

Hot Water Heating System Equipment and Operation 010100020021000C Excessive pressure build-up due to a rise in temperature and the resulting expansion of the water in the system is prevented by the use of

c)

an expansion tank

010100020021000A To prevent corrosion in the expansion tank it is sometimes filled with

a)

nitrogen 79

010100020021000E Improper location of the circulating pump and expansion tank can cause

a) the circulating pump to cavitate b) some points in the system to be under negative pressure c) air to be drawn into the system d) vapour bubbles to form in the circulating pump e)

all of the above

010100020021000A The expansion tank is normally attached to the

a) boiler or the hot water supply line near the boiler 010100020021000D The minimum reading on an altitude gage of a boiler in a large plant is from the top of the boiler to the highest point in the system plus 1.2m 010100020021000B The purpose of a pressure reducing valve is to

b)

automatically reduce pressure and maintain it

010100020021000B What type of boiler would you expect to find in a hot water system, incorporating a converter?

b)

steam boiler

Warm Air Heating System Equipment 010100020021000B In a warm air heating system the cold air return registers are located

b)

in interior locations

010100020021000A The major disadvantage of an electric resistance coil furnace for warm air heating is

a)

the high cost of electricity 80

010100020021000E Lowboy furnaces are just over 1.2 m in height 010100020021000C The advantage of having duct furnaces instead of a large central furnace is

c) better control of heat in each zone of the building 10100020021000C The power supply for an electric resistance coil furnace is

c)

240 V

010100020021000A In a fin-coil heat exchanger the primary source of heat for the exchanger is

a)

steam or hot water

010100020021000D A type of directly fired space heater is

a) b) c)

a unit heater a floor furnace a wall furnace

010100020021000B High efficiency furnaces and heaters range in annual fuel utilization efficiency (AFUE) from

b)

80 - 95%

010100020021000B In high efficiency furnaces if the temperature of the flue gas drops below 65 degrees C the

b)

water vapour will condense

010100020021000A In a pulse combination furnace the stated efficiency is

a)

94 - 98%

Warm Air Furnace Components and Maintenance 010100020021000D

81

Heat exchangers in gas fired furnaces are made of

d)

steel

010100020021000E Air filters can be divided into two groups

e)

mechanical and electronic

010100020021000B Electronic filters will remove

b)

fine particles from the air

010100020021000C The perimeter loop system of furnace ducting is ideal for a building with

c)

no basement

010100020021000E Which of the following is a type of outlet in a warm air heating system?

a) b) c) d) e)

a a a a

grill register ceiling diffuser perforated panel

all of the above

010100020021000D Supply outlets should always be located

d)

to best prevent cold drafts

010100020021000C In a warm air heating system, the heated air should enter the rooms preferably via the

c)

baseboard registers on the outside wall

010100020021000C Sleeve bearings on furnace fans require

c)

a few drops of oil every six months

010100020021000A Furnace heat exchangers should be checked for corrosion because

82

a)

carbon monoxide could leak into the building

010100020021000B Insufficient heat throughout a building is likely caused by

b)

insufficient heat input

010100020021000E Rooms that are stuffy and dry are created by e) none of the above

Ventilation and Air Filters 010100020021000D Actual ventilation rates may vary per person from d)

0.14 to 1.5 cubic metres/min

010100020021000B Ventilation can be divided into two basic methods: mechanical and natural 010100020021000A Natural ventilation is improved by the use of a roof ventilator 010100020021000B Mechanical ventilation can be divided into which types? mechanical air intake, natural exhaust 010100020021000D In a mechanical air intake, natural exhaust ventilation system the pressure in the building is slightly above atmospheric pressure 010100020021000C Living organisms that must be removed from the air are bacteria and spores 010100020021000E Mechanical filters can be divided into two broad classes: throwaway and renewable 010100020021000D Viscous filters are highly efficient in the removal of dust and pollen 010100020021000B Electrostatic filters are highly efficient in the removal of fine dust, smoke, and fumes

83

010100020021000C Ultraviolet light is used to remove bacteria and spores from the air.

Infrared and Electric Heating 010100020021000D Infrared radiant energy is directed towards floors 010100020021000A Infrared heaters are usually mounted overhead 010100020021000B Gas-fired infrared heaters use the principle of heating a solid surface 010100020021000B In an internally fired, gas fired infrared heater, the surface temperature is about 400 degrees C 010100020021000D A low temperature catalytic heater contains a layer of glass wool impregnated with a catalyst 010100020021000B The quartz lamp heating element will respond in a few seconds 010100020021000D The main disadvantage of electric heating is the high operating cost 010100020021000E In an open wire type heating element the resistance wire is made of nickel-chromium 010100020021000B Electrical heating can be divided into two general groups: direct and indirect 010100020021000C In an electric snow melting unit, a thermostat should be used to automatically shut the system down when the outdoor temperature is above 2 degrees C 010100020021000D The basic types of heating systems are:

1. 2.

steam heating hot water heating 84

3. 4.

warm air heating electric heating

Heating Boiler Feedwater Controls 010100020021000B When a boiler equipped with a combination feedwater control and low-water cutoff device shuts down due to a low-water condition level must be restored to above the cutoff line before the unit can be restarted

010100020021000C An electric feeder valve will open before the low-water cutoff line is reached 010100020021000E A float operated mechanical feeder valve should not open until the level is well below the feed pump cut-in level

010100020021000A In nearly all LP steam heating systems the feedwater is usually condensate 010100020021000D A Hartford loop will prevent boiler water level from going below the LPWL 010100020021000C Because of variations in flow rate, nearly all large steam heating plants utilize a condensate receiver 010100020021000A Heating plants with multiple boilers often have independent boiler feedwater control from a header 010100020021000A Dissolved oxygen in condensate will cause pitting in a boiler 010100020021000A Neutralizing amines raise the pH of condensate 010100020021000B The result of a condensate receiver which is too small could Be loss of condensate to the sewer

85

010100020021000C A feedwater make-up system should be able to satisfy normal firing needs 010100020021000A Equalizing lines on a condensate receiver float chamber will dampen level fluctuations 010100020021000B A condensate receiver low level cutoff switch will stop the feedpump thereby preventing damage to it

Heating Boiler Operating Controls 010100020021000B An ON-OFF steam boiler operates most efficiently at continuous firing 010100020021000C A modulating control steam heating boiler has very efficient operation 010100020021000A An operating control switch for an ON-OFF boiler uses a differential spring to reduce cycling 010100020021000E A levelling indicator is found on an ON-OFF operating control switch 010100020021000B An item found upstream of an operating control switch is a siphon 010100020021000B On a multiburner boiler the high fire nozzle will operate continuously when steam demand exceeds boiler capacity

010100020021000D A manual "high-low" switch should be switched to "high" or "auto" when the boiler has been properly warmed up 010100020021000A A resistance control or "potentiometer" for modulating Control works in conjunction with a modutrol motor 010100020021000A A potentiometer control varies electrical current to a modutrol motor 010100020021000E

86

A high limit control switch must be used when a boiler is not under continuous supervision

010100020021000C Prior to a boiler safety valve popping during routine boiler Operation the high limit switch should open 010100020021000C A hot water boiler operating control can be a pressure switch utilizing a closed liquid filled system 010100020021000B A thermal element is capable of sensing temperature and converting it to a pressure signal 010100020021000B An aquastat is like a thermal element without a capillary tube 010100020021000E A low fire switch acts as an interlock to ensure minimum damper setting 010100020021000C What is the purpose of the high limit temperature control on a hot water boiler? to shut down the burner if the water temperature rises too high 010100020021000C Combustion air safety switches are commonly found on boilers utilizing a forced draft fan 010100020021000E A high gas pressure fuel cut-off switch opens when gas pressure is too high 010100020021000A A test lead or "jumper wire" is required when testing high steam pressure or water temperature limiting controls

010100020021000D Quickly closing the main burner manual cock valve during boiler operation should check the high gas pressure fuel cut-off 010100020021000E The combustion air proving switch should be checked when air flow is maximum

Heating Boiler Combustion Controls 87

010100020021000B Fuel should be shut off immediately if it fails to ignite to prevent furnace explosions 010100020021000B A thermocouple produces an electric signal 010100020021000C Thermocouples are connected in series to increase the sensitivity of the detection system 010100020021000C A flame rod forms an electric circuit with the rod, flame and burner 010100020021000D A flame scanner (1) requires a photoelectric cell (3) requires a clear line of sight to the flame 010100020021000B The function of a flame failure device is to b)

shut off the fuel when the burner flame goes out

010100020021000E Which of the following is a flame sensing device? e)

scanner

010100020021000D A flame failure device d)

will shut off the fuel to the burner

010100020021000C The maximum allowable temperature for the water in a hot water heating boiler is c)

120 degrees C

010100020021000E High limit temperature controls e)

shut off the fuel if the water temperature is too high

010100020021000C Flame rods c)

should shut off the fuel within four seconds of flame failure

010100020021000E All flame safeguard devices

88

e)

close the main fuel valve in case of pilot flame failure or main burner failure

010100020021000E Flame safeguard devices e)

should be tested following the manufacturers instructions

Pneumatic Controls for Heating Systems 010100020021000A The device used to maintain a constant pressure throughout a pneumatic control system is called a a)

reducing valve

010100020021000D Pneumatic controllers are divided into two basic classes d)

bleed and non-bleed

010100020021000A A pneumatic control system a)

uses a sensing device to change pressures in the control line

010100020021000B In a non-bleed type controller the device that senses a change in room temperature is called a b)

bellows

010100020021000C In a self-contained control system the energy for operation is provided by c)

the reaction of the sensing device

010100020021000C Parallel blade dampers are usually used for c)

turning the air flow on or off

010100020021000E An example of final control device for a heating system is a e) all of the above 010100020021000D The most common type of damper operator is a d)

piston

010100020021000B

89

An example of an auxiliary device for a pneumatic control system would be a b)

three way air valve

010100020021000D A pneumatic relay can also be called a d)

cumulator

Electric Controls for Heating Systems 010100020021000D A device used to position dampers and control valves is termed d)

an actuator

010100020021000E Thermostats may be classified according to their

a) b) c) d) e)

application type of temperature sensing element type of control action provided temperature range all of the above

010100020021000A On-off thermostats are equipped with a)

an open contact switch

010100020021000D A bimetal thermostat's operating range is between d) 10 and 32 degrees C 010100020021000E A room thermostat should be mounted on an inside wall about e) 1.5 m above the floor 010100020021000B Pressure controllers can be divided into two classes b)

high and low pressure

010100020021000A An example of a controlled device would be a)

a damper motor operating air louvers

010100020021000C Control motors are divided into two classifications

90

c)

valve operators and damper operators

010100020021000D In a basic electrical control system the device that senses a drop in air temperature is called the d)

thermostat

010100020021000E In a basic electric control system an example of a controlled device is

a) b) c) d) e)

a fuel valve a louver a diverter valve an electric switch

all of the above

010100020021000B An electronic control system is comprised of a b)

sensor, controller, and final control element

010100020021000A An advantage of an electronic control system is that a)

the controllers can accept a wide variety of inputs

010100020021000D An example of a final control element is a d)

damper

010100020021000B An electronic controller is b)

used to position an actuator

010100020021000B The electrical resistance of a thermistor will b)

decrease when heated

010100020021000B Resistance temperature devices can provide a relatively linear resistance variation from b)

-40 to 120 degrees C

010100020021000E Transmitters or transducers can measure

91

a) b) c) d) e)

temperature air flow air flow velocity water flow all of the above

010100020021000C A pressure sensor converts pressure changes into c)

variables such as voltage, current, or resistance

010100020021000D Electronic controllers can be divided into two types d) on or off and modulating 010100020021000C A transducer is a device that is used to c)

convert an electronic signal to a pneumatic output

Lighting Systems 010100020021000D A luminaire is a d)

complete lighting unit

010100020021000D When designing a lighting system which of the following should be considered?

a) b) c) d) e)

initial cost operating cost maintenance cost

all of the above none of the above

010100020021000A Ambient lighting can be improved by two types of lighting: a)

direct and indirect

010100020021000C Direct lighting systems c)

are more energy efficient than indirect lighting

010100020021000E When control for multiple locations is required

92

e)

two 3-way switches and two 4-way switches are used

010100020021000E An advantage of low voltage switching is

a) that local and remote control of lights is permitted b) the wiring does not require conduits c) changes are simple and economical d) e)

a and b are correct a, b and c are correct

010100020021000C Occupancy sensors are c)

automatic switches

010100020021000C Most dimmer switches sold today c)

save most of the power not being used by the luminaire

010100020021000D The life safety code requires that emergency lighting be provided for means of exit in d)

all educational and institutional occupancies

010100020021000A In large buildings approximately what percentage of the electrical load is lighting? a)

60%

Building Water Supply Systems 010100020021000B Which of the following statements about a constant pressure system with Pneumatic Tank is false? b)

This system is primarily used in larger buildings.

010100020021000D The system which has a storage tank above the highest fixture in the system is called d)

a downfeed system

010100020021000C When the maximum building demand for water is always less than the maximum flow available from a municipal or local distribution system which of the following systems can be used?

93

c)

Tankless constant pressure system

010100020021000E Which of the following statements about Non-Circulating hot water systems is true? e)

The systems force large amounts of water to be wasted before hot water is available in each fixture.

010100020021000A Which of the following is not an element found in a circulating hot water system? a)

A fire recoil element

010100020021000B In a circulating hot water system the municipal distribution systems and/or local storage tanks are used for which of the following reasons. b)

Water supply to heaters only

010100020021000B In a circulating hot water system automatic air vents serve which of the following functions? b)

They remove air that is released when water is heated.

010100020021000C The backflow prevention method which consists of two independently acting check valves with an automatic operating pressure differential relief valve located between the two check valves is called c)

reduced pressure principal device

010100020021000B Which of the following statements about pressure relief valves is false? b)

The valve must be directly connected to a drain or vent pipe.

010100020021000B Temperature relief devices are effective in eliminating the following problem: b)

flashing of water into steam when faucets are opened

Sanitary Drainage Systems 010100020021000D Drain traps serve which of the following purposes:

94

i) ii)

to seal the outlet fixture to prevent back flow of sewer gas

010100020021000A Which of the following has a trap as an integral part of the fixture? a)

water closet

010100020021000A Sewer smells coming from a floor drain in a washroom can be a problem if the floors of the washroom are not cleaned often. Which of the following courses of action is the simplest way to stop the smell from coming out of the drain? a)

Pour a pail of water in the drain.

010100020021000C Negative pressure in a drainage system may result in which of the following problems? c)

drawing out of sealing liquids in traps

010100020021000C Which of the following statements is true? c)

The stack vent and loop vents allow equalization of pressure in the system.

010100020021000E Corrugations in outside aluminum sheet metal conductors is required e)

to permit expansion.

010100020021000E Which of the following statements about footing drains is true?

a) Installed to prevent an accumulation of ground water around the building foundations. b) Used to reduce the hydrostatic pressure on the walls below ground level. c) Perforated or porous pipe is used to collect the water near the footings 95

d) The collected water is drained to a remote area or into a sump. e)

All of the above

010100020021000D The blow off valve in a storage heater is used to d) remove sediment carried to the heater through the water line. 010100020021000B What is the correct sequence, from start to finish, needed to replace a washer in a faucet? iv) Shut off the water at the nearest isolation valve. i) Unscrew the packing nut and remove the spindle. iii) Remove the washer from the end of the spindle. v) Place the new washer on the end of the spindle. ii) If the valve seat is smooth and serviceable, replace the spindle and tighten the packing nut. a) b) c) d) e)

i, ii, iv, i, v, iv, iv, i, v, ii,

iii, iv, v iii, v, ii iii, ii, i v, ii i, iv, iii

010100020021000C The pounding or banging of pipes and shuddering of fixtures caused by a shock wave resulting from a sudden stop of water flow in a pipe results in which of the following sounds? c)

water hammer

Thermodynamics of Refrigeration 010100020021000D In the case of a simple ice box which of the following heat transfers is correct? d)

Air loses sensible heat, ice gains latent heat.

010100020021000E Which of the following is an example of a loss of latent heat? i) ii) iii) iv) a) b) c) d) e)

water evaporating ice melting refrigerant evaporating air cooling

iv only iii only i, iii, and iv both i and iii none of the above

96

010100020021000B The function of the condenser is to b)

change high pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid

010100020021000A Which of the following statements about low-side pressure and temperature is false? a)

The evaporation temperature of the refrigerant should be 5 - 10 degrees C higher than that of the cooled medium.

010100020021000B Which of the following statements about high-side pressure and temperature is true? b)

The condensing temperature of the vapour is 15 - 20 degrees C higher than the temperature of the medium used in the condenser.

010100020021000C The rate at which a system will remove heat from the refrigerated medium is defined as c) refrigeration capacity 010100020021000B Refrigerant mediums will evaporate b)

when temperature is increased

010100020021000C One tonne of refrigeration is c)

233 kJ per minute

010100020021000E If a cooled medium had an evaporation temperature of 2 degrees C, the evaporation temperature of the liquid refrigerant should be approximately e)

-8 to -3 degrees C

010100020021000B Which column in the refrigerant table lists the absolute pressure in kPa? b)

Column 2

Refrigerants 010100020021000A Which of the following characteristics is common in all of the group B refrigerants?

97

a)

High toxicity

010100020021000C R-22 (Freon-22) is nontoxic and nonflammable. does it belong to?

c)

Which group

Group A1

010100020021000B What is the name of the refrigerant that has the following characteristics? It is nonflammable, odourless, nontoxic, it does not have a corrosive effect on metal if water is present and at atmospheric pressure it has a boiling point of -40.6 degrees C.

b)

Freon-22

010100020021000D The ideal commercial refrigerant should

d)

be environmentally friendly

010100020021000D Ammonia refrigerants

d)

are well suited for industrial refrigeration

010100020021000E The refrigerant R-11 belongs to the following group

e)

group "A1"

010100020021000E Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of heat?

a) b) c) d)

entropy enthalpy density volume

010100020021000D The property which has to be known for the calculation of the size of control valve and piping etc, is

d)

density

010100020021000A The refrigerating effect of a refrigerant is

98

a)

equal to its latent heat of vaporization

010100020021000B The standard refrigeration cycle is used to compare refrigerants and machines operating under comparable conditions. These standard conditions are:

b) 30 degrees Celsius condensing and -15 degrees Celsius evaporating 010100020021000B The latent heat of fusion of ice

b)

is 335 kJ per 1 kg

010100020021000E The ability of a refrigerant to be dissolved into oil and vice versa is called

e)

miscibility

010100020021000D Which of the following is not a physical property of refrigerants?

d)

Density

010100020021000C Ammonia is the only commonly used refrigerant which has the physical property of

c)

flammability

010100020021000B Molecular mass is a dependent factor in which of the following physical properties?

b)

leakage tendency

010100020021000E Freon 22 refrigerant

e)

is a heat transferring medium

Compression Refrigeration Systems 010100020021000D Which of the following are principal parts in a closed cycle compression refrigeration system?

ii)

Evaporator

99

iii) iv)

Compressor Condenser

010100020021000A Raising the condensing point (saturation temperature) of the refrigerant vapour above the temperature of the cooling medium is the function of the

a)

compressor

010100020021000A Which of the following is NOT a component of the low pressure side of the system?

a)

compressor discharge

010100020021000C The temperature in the evaporator

c)

depends on the pressure in the evaporator

010100020021000B A purpose of a liquid refrigerant control or regulating valve is

b) to regulate the refrigerant flow to the evaporator 010100020021000B Refrigerant condensers

b) cool the gas refrigerant discharged from the compressor 010100020021000D For a direct expansion system which of the following statements is true?

d) The evaporator can be located in air circulating ducts communicating with the material or space being refrigerated. 010100020021000E The primary difference between direct and indirect refrigeration systems is the

e)

evaporator location

100

010100020021000D Which of the following statements about a system that circulates warm brine or water back to a chiller tank is true?

d)

The evaporator cools the brine or water.

010100020021000B The type of brine used for skating and hockey rink refrigeration systems is usually

b)

calcium chloride

010100020021000C Refrigerant evaporators

c) may have brine pumped past the coils in an indirect system 010100020021000B Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a factory assembled packaged refrigerant?

b)

Parts can be ordered and installed separately.

010100020021000A Which of the following statements about the economisers is false?

a)

FALSE: It controls the flow of liquid refrigerant from the low pressure evaporator to the high pressure condenser.

b)

b) TRUE:economizer is composed of two chambers. c) TRUE:In an economizer the upper float chamber is connected to the bottom of the condenser. d) TRUE:The economiser float chamber is connected via the motor to the second stage inlet of the compressor. e) TRUE:Liquid refrigerant levels in each chamber of the economizer are controlled by a float operated valve in the evaporator. 010100020021000E Which of the following is a result of an economiser on the refrigeration system?

a) an intercooling effect on the compressor b) reduction of the power required for compression in the second stage compressor 101

c) reduction of flash vapour in the evaporator d) increase in the refrigerating capacity of a system e)

all of the above

010100020021000B In actual systems there will be a gradual pressure drop through each side of the system due to

b) friction in the evaporator, condenser, and piping Refrigeration Compressors 010100020021000C Which of the following is not a function of the compressor in a refrigeration system? a) b) c) d) e)

YES draw low pressure refrigerant out of the evaporator YES draw low temperature refrigerant out of the evaporator NO lower the temperature of the refrigerant YES maintain sufficiently low pressure in the evaporator YES raise the pressure of the refrigerant

010100020021000E Which of the following is the compressor responsible for doing?

i) YES Maintains a high pressure in the condenser ii) YES Maintains a low pressure in the evaporator iii) YES Raises the pressure of the refrigerant 010100020021000A In a refrigeration system, the purpose of the compressor is to

a)

establish two pressure levels

010100020021000A Which of the following compressor types uses impellers to draw in vapour?

a)

Centrifugal compressors

010100020021000D One negative factor of Hermetic type reciprocating compressors is

102

d)

field servicing is not possible

010100020021000A In a rotating vane design rotary compressor, a good seal is maintained between the vanes and the cylinder by

a)

centrifugal force

010100020021000B For a Helical Rotor Design rotary compressor which of the following statements is true?

b) The driving rotor has less helical lobes than the driven rotor has flute. 010100020021000C Piston displacement is defined as

c) the volume of refrigerant that can be circulated through all the cylinders per unit time 010100020021000B Refrigerant compressors

b)

could be a centrifugal type

010100020021000A Pistons and connecting rods are found in which of the following types of compressors?

a)

Reciprocating

0503000200210001.037 %.05; Consider a single stage, single acting reciprocating compressor. Calculate the piston displacement in cubic metres per minute, if given the following: piston stroke piston diameter piston speed

12 cm 10 cm 1100 working strokes per minute

Answer = ____________________

cubic metres per minute

010100020021000C A typical stationary crankshaft seal consisting of a metallic bellows soldered at one end to a ring (seal nose) which bears either against a shoulder on the shaft or against a seal ring on the shaft is called a

c)

bellows seal 103

010100020021000E In rotating mechanical seals the sealing ring is held in position by

e)

a spring

Heat Exchangers for Refrigeration Systems 010100020021000B The two types of evaporators, dry evaporators and flooded evaporators differ principally in what respect?

b)

method of refrigerant circulation

010100020021000A An evaporator that contains only a small amount of liquid refrigerant at any time is what type of evaporator?

a)

Dry evaporator

010100020021000E Refrigerant evaporators

e)

are used to transfer heat

010100020021000D The evaporator which increases heat exchange by crimping thin metal plates to its form is which type of evaporator?

d)

Finned tube

010100020021000C An evaporator which can easily be cleaned and defrosted manually without interrupting the cooling process is which type of evaporator?

c)

Plate surface

010100020021000E Which of the following statements about the shell and tube evaporator type is false?

e) The liquid to be cooled circulates through the tubes in the direct-expansion operation. 010100020021000A Air-cooled condensers of large capacity are found mainly in which of the following locations?

104

a)

roof tops

010100020021000C Which of the following statements about double tube condensers is true?

c) Water flow in the inner tube is in the opposite direction of the flow of refrigerant. 010100020021000B The condenser which is very expensive to clean and requires the tubes to be cleaned with acid and neutralized is the

b)

shell and coil condenser

010100020021000C The amount of water used in an evaporative condenser is only a small percentage of that used in a water condenser of the same capacity. This is due primarily to what?

c) Water evaporating requires a large amount of latent heat. 010100020021000A The common types of water-cooled condensers used in refrigeration systems are:

1. 2. 3.

the shell and tube the shell and coil the double tube

010100020021000E Defective condenser operation is a result of the presence of all of the following except

e)

compressor lubricating oil

010100020021000B The purpose of a condenser in a refrigeration system is

b)

to remove the latent heat from the refrigerant

Refrigeration Metering Devices & Capacity Controls 010100020021000A The most widely used refrigerant control which consists of a bellows or a diaphragm chamber connected to a temperature sensing bulb by means of a small capillary tube is a/an

105

a)

thermostatic expansion valve

010100020021000E Which of the statements about automatic expansion valves is false? e) The control may be used with multiple cooling coils connected to the same compressor. 010100020021000C Which control is used to maintain a constant level of liquid refrigerant in a flooded evaporator in the liquid reserve tank? c)

low pressure float valve

010100020021000D The simple control which restricts the flow of liquid from the condenser to the evaporator and maintains a pressure difference between the two units by using a considerable pressure drop resulting from resistance between the devices length and small bore is called d)

a capillary tube

010100020021000D In a system controlled by a high pressure float valve insufficient liquid will cause which of the following results? d)

starving the evaporator and reducing the capacity of the system

010100020021000D One method of controlling the capacity of reciprocating compressors is to bypass the discharge from one or more cylinders back to the suction side of the compressor. The control is called d)

cylinder bypass

010100020021000C Sectional evaporators control the capacity of the evaporator by which of the following means? c)

Divided multipart evaporators which have refrigerant control valves which can be shut off independently as the load decreases.

010100020021000E Which of the following statements about evaporator dampers is true? a) b)

These dampers decrease the resistance to the passage of air. When the damper is closed the quantity of air passing over the evaporator coils is at a maximum.

106

c) d) e)

Depending on the damper position the quantity of air passing through the duct varies widely. Multispeed blowers cannot be used in combination with evaporator dampers. None of the above.

010100020021000A The type of operation which stops the compressor when the desired low temperature of the substance to be cooled is reached and starts the compressor up again when the temperature rises to a set level is called a)

intermittent operation

010100020021000C The control which is replacing suction throttling and operates by swirling the refrigerant in the same direction as the compressor impeller, resulting in a reduction of power required by the compressor is which of the following controls? c)

Variable Inlet Guide Vanes

Refrigeration Cycle Controls 010100020021000B Starting, stopping or unloading of the compressor is usually done by all of the following operating controls except b)

viscosity activated control

010100020021000D The operating control which uses a bimetal element is a d) temperature actuated control 010100020021000C Which of the following statements about pressure stats is false? c)

A pressure-stat can be used in conjunction with an automatic expansion valve.

010100020021000A The operating control which consists of a hygroscopic element made of material similar to multiple strands of human hair is called a a)

humidistat

010100020021000E Which of the following actuating control valves is electromagnetically operated? e)

Solenoid valve

107

010100020021000A In many cases evaporator pressure must not be allowed to drop below a certain level to prevent which of the following results? a)

frosting of coils

010100020021000E Safety controls serve what function? a) b) c) d) e)

They stop operation They stop operation They stop operation They stop operation All of the above

if the temperature gets too high. when the pressure gets too high. when the pressure is too low. when the temperature is too low.

010100020021000D Which of the following statements about flow switches is false? d)

They can only be used to regulate liquid flow (i.e. not air flow).

010100020021000C The safety control which uses a current transformer with a resistor in the motor circuit is known as c)

motor overload protection

010100020021000D Oil pressure failure switches are used to perform which of the following functions? d)

Shut down the compressor when the oil pressure drops below the minimum.

Refrigeration Accessories 010100020021000D A simple trap located in the suction line before the compressor that collects liquid, where it evaporates and returns to the compressor as a gas, is called d)

an accumulator

010100020021000B Which of the following statements about strainers is false? b)

Piping must be disconnected to clean the strainer.

010100020021000C A chemical dot placed under the glass lens of a sight glass which is exposed to the liquid serves what function? c)

To monitor the presence of moisture

108

010100020021000A The function of vibration absorbers is to a)

lower noise levels

010100020021000B Which of the following pipe joints should be used for high pressure 1 1/4 inch or smaller piping? b)

screwed

010100020021000E Moisture in a system can result in which of the following? a) b) c) d) e)

formation of ice acid formation corrosion deterioration of motor insulation all of the above

010100020021000E The accessory which maintains efficient heat transfer by collecting oil that coats the tubes of the condenser is called e)

an oil separator

010100020021000A Which of the following statements about pressure gages is true? a)

They indicate pressures and corresponding temperatures in a system.

010100020021000C A direct expansion type evaporator that has more than 1 refrigerant circuit in it requires what to have even refrigerant flow in each circuit? c)

A distributor

010100020021000D Emergency discharge is used to counter which of the following problems? d)

Dangerously high system pressures

010100020021000B The emergency discharge line in a refrigeration system b)

should have a shut-off valve outside the building

Compression Refrigeration System Prestart-up Procedures 010100020021000B

109

Higher than normal head pressure is undesirable for all of the following reasons except b)

it decreases condenser capacity

010100020021000D Which of the following statements about Manual Purging Systems is false? d)

Refrigerant vapour in the purger is always expelled with the noncondensable gases.

010100020021000E The chilling coil in an automatic purger has a primary function to e)

separate refrigerant vapour from the noncondensable gases to be purged.

010100020021000C When using lighted sulphur candles to test for ammonia leaks in a refrigeration system, the presence of ammonia will be indicated by c)

heavy white smoke

010100020021000D Leak testing for tightness under pressure of a refrigeration system d)

is done with an inert gas

010100020021000C Leak testing on a refrigeration system c) is done with a sulphur candle for ammonia 010100020021000D Which of the following is not a recommended step for the procedure in which dry nitrogen is used for a system leak test? d) e)

Open the liquid line shut-off valve. Set the pressure reducing valve for the minimum design pressure of the high side.

010100020021000B A sulphur candle is a test for b)

ammonia leaks

010100020021000E Before charging a system which of the following needs to be done? a) b) c) d) e)

Interlocks need to be tested Controls need to be set Controls need to be set Required valves need to be opened All of the above

110

010100020021000A The initial refrigerant charge is given where on the system? a)

The high side of the system

010100020021000C Frost formation on the suction line indicates what? c)

Overcharging the system

010100020021000D The liquid line shutoff valve is d) required to be closed when charging the system 010100020021000B Charging a refrigeration system b)

is done by adding refrigerant between the liquid shutoff valve and the expansion valve

010100020021000E When charging a refrigeration system it e)

should be done with the liquid line shutoff valve closed

010100020021000B When initially charging a refrigeration system b)

it is done with a liquid refrigerant

010100020021000E What can cause a high discharge pressure with refrigeration systems? e)

unit over-charged with refrigerant

010100020021000A Which of the following statements about adding oil to a system is true? a)

Oil is added by charging it into the crankcase.

010100020021000C It is very important to open oil drain valves and plugs in the crankcase for which of the following reasons? c)

Residual pressure in the crankcase may blow refrigerant vapour and oil out.

010100020021000B Oil added to refrigeration compressors b)

is done with a vacuum on the crankcase

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Compression Refrigeration System Operations 010100020021000D Which of the following steps is not a step in the startup of a reciprocating or rotary compressor refrigerating system? d)

Valves in lines connecting suction gages should be closed.

010100020021000A To avoid liquid slugging in a direct expansion evaporator after shutting down a reciprocating or rotary compressor refrigerating system which of the following measures needs to be taken? a)

Pump down the evaporator

010100020021000C Which of the following steps is NOT part of the startup procedure of centrifugal compressor refrigerating systems. c)

Open the main circuit breakers.

010100020021000B A centrifugal compressor refrigerating system can be stopped simply by pressing the stop button unless which of the following circumstances is true? b)

The system's auxiliary equipment is not electrically interlocked.

010100020021000E The safety control in a centrifugal compressor which ensures the compressor to only be started under a no-load condition is called e) vane closed switch 010100020021000C If a compressor fails to start but the motor is running, which of the following could be a cause? c)

The coupling is sheared or broken

010100020021000A A system of regularly scheduled inspections and lubrications along with the adjustments, minor parts replacement and minor repairs necessary to keep the refrigerating plant and equipment in good operating condition is defined as a)

preventative maintenance

010100020021000E Checking the condition of electrical starters and contactors is categorised under which of the following maintenance schedules?

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e)

Annual maintenance

Absorption Refrigeration Systems 010100020021000D In an Ammonia Absorption System what is used as the absorbent? d)

Water

010100020021000B Which of the following is not found on the low side of an ammonia system? b)

Generator

010100020021000C Ammonia systems are seldom used for air conditioning purposes in large buildings mainly because c)

ammonia is too toxic

010100020021000C In comparing absorption and compression systems which of the following comparisons is true? c)

Cooling water requirements are larger for an absorption system than for a compression system.

010100020021000D In a Lithium Bromide System which of the following is the refrigerant? d) Water 010100020021000A In order to lower the boiling point of the refrigerant it is important that the system maintain a)

an extremely high vacuum

010100020021000D Which of the following statements about Lithium bromide systems is false? d)

As water vapour is absorbed by the Lithium Bromide the vacuum decreases.

010100020021000D The absorber is equipped with a pump for which of the following reasons? d)

To speed the absorption of water vapour

010100020021000B What is the function of the concentrator (generator)?

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b)

To increase the absorbency potential of used Lithium Bromide

010100020021000E Most absorbency systems are put in place where there is cheap excess or waste heat available. What is this heat primarily used for? e)

To evaporate the water out of the weak Lithium Bromide

Absorption Refrigeration System Operation & Maintenance 010100020021000C This occurs when the temperature of a strong but still unsaturated solution is lowered so far that its salt concentration exceeds the maximum concentration possible at the lower temperature. c)

Crystallization

010100020021000A When the temperature of a solution increases, which of the following statements is true? a)

The vapour pressure is high

010100020021000D The concentration of Lithium Bromide in an absorption refrigerating system will change during which of the following steps? a) b) c) d) e)

Going through the expansion valve Going through the suction valve Cooling through the heat exchanger Absorbing water vapour in the absorber None of the above

010100020021000E Concentration of the Lithium Bromide can be most easily controlled by which of the following means? e) Controlling the temperature in the generator. 010100020021000C Which of the following is NOT a result of having noncondensable gases in the absorption systems? c)

Lower than normal temperatures of the chilled water leaving the evaporator

010100020021000E Which of the following are elements of a mechanical purging system? i) purge pickup tube

114

ii) iii) iv) v) vi)

purge chamber manual shutoff valve safety solenoid valve oil trap vacuum pump

010100020021000C Which of the following is not a step in the seasonal prestart service? c)

turn on energy sources

010100020021000D During seasonal startup, when should the purge pump be started? d)

About one half hour after the absorption unit is started

010100020021000B When shutting down the refrigeration system for a weekend or less which of the following is a correct shutdown procedure? b)

Close the manual steam or hot water supply valve

010100020021000D If there is a crystallization upon shutdown a possible corrective action is to d) check pump operation

Psychrometric Properties of Air 010100020021000C Air is approximately what composition by volume? c)

79% N

2

and 21% O

2

010100020021000B Dalton's Law of partial pressure states that b) in a mixture of two or more gases each will exert a partial pressure which is equal to the pressure that it would exert if it filled that space alone 010100020021000A Relative humidity is a)

the ratio of water vapour in the air compared to the total amount water vapour the air could contain at a given temperature

010100020021000E The dewpoint is the

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e)

temperature below which water vapour will start to condense out of the air

010100020021000D The volume of standard air is d)

0.833 kg/cubic metres of dry air

010100020021000C The heat content of air is called the c)

enthalpy of the air

010100020021000D Psychrometry is d)

the study of the behaviour of mixtures of air and water vapour

010100020021000C The composition of pure dry air is generally taken to be c) 23.2% oxygen and 76.8% nitrogen by weight 010100020021000B Air conditioning involves b)

the control of the air temperature, the control of humidity, air circulation, and the removal of contaminants

010100020021000A The term "relative humidity" applies to a)

the percentage of moisture in the air as compared to the amount of moisture the air can hold at a specific temperature

010100020021000D A device for measuring relative humidity is called d) a psychrometer 010100020021000A The difference between the wet and dry bulb readings is called the a)

wet bulb depression

010100020021000C Which law describes the existence of moisture in the air in vapour or evaporated state? c) Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures 010100020021000A Absolute or specific humidity is a)

the actual mass of moisture present in a specific amount of air

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010100020021000B Relative humidity is b)

the ratio of the mass of moisture contained in a specific amount of air to the maximum amount of moisture this specific amount of air can contain

010100020021000E Dewpoint can be best defined as e)

the temperature at which air, upon cooling, becomes saturated and will begin to condense out water vapour below this temperature

010100020021000D Dry-bulb temperature is d)

the temperature of the air measured with an ordinary thermometer

010100020021000A Wet-bulb temperature is a)

the temperature indicated by a thermometer having its bulb covered by a water-wetted wick or cloth and the wet bulb is exposed to a rapidly moving stream of air

010100020021000D What is wet-bulb depression? d) difference between the dry-bulb temperature and the wet-bulb temperature 010100020021000E Psychrometers are e)

instruments used to determine the relative humidity of air

010100020021000B Which of the following instruments use a battery-operated fan to draw air over the thermometer bulbs? b)

aspirating psychrometer

010100020021000C The specific volume of air is c) the volume of 1 kg of air at atmospheric pressure expressed in cubic metres 010100020021000D Standard air is a) d)

the volume of 1 kg of air at 15 degrees Celsius and 100 the volume occupied by 1 kg of dry air at 21 degrees Celsius and atmospheric pressure at sea level or 101.325 kpa

117

010100020021000A Enthalpy of air depends on a)

the pressure, temperature, and relative humidity of the air

010100020021000A To find various properties of air a)

a psychrometric chart is used

010100020021000D In the SI (metric) system the enthalpy of air is measured in d)

kJ/kg of dry air

010100020021000E The dry-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychrometric chart e)

along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart

010100020021000C The wet-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychrometric chart c)

along the saturation line and slope downward to the right

010100020021000B The dewpoint temperature scale is read on a psychrometric chart b)

along the saturation line, same scale as wet-bulb temperature, but is plotted along horizontal lines

010100020021000A Relative humidity is plotted on a psychrometric chart a)

on lines curved upwards from the lower left to the right side of the chart

010100020021000C Specific humidity is c)

the actual moisture content of air expressed as kg of moisture per kg of dry air

010100020021000B Specific humidity scale on a psychrometric chart is b)

along the vertical axis of the chart and right side of chart

010100020021000D Specific volume on a psychrometric chart d)

has its lines originate on the volume scale along the

118

horizontal axis and they slope steeply upwards to the left of the chart 010100020021000A Enthalpy values are found on a psychrometric chart by a)

plotting a line through the required point on the chart parallel to the lines of the two enthalpy scales, one on the left side and the other on the right side of chart

Application of the Psychrometric Chart and Comfort Condition 010100020021000B Which of the following properties cannot be found on the psychrometric chart? b)

partial pressure

010100020021000C The intersection between the line running vertically from the point on the dry-bulb scale and the downward diagonally running line from the wet-bulb scale is defined as c)

the reference point

010100020021000E During sensible heating which of the following results is true? a) b) c) d) e)

dry-bulb temperature lowers wet-bulb temperature remains constant relative humidity increases enthalpy remains constant none of the above

010100020021000D Which of the following statements about cooling and dehumidification is false? d) Dry bulb temperatures are increased. 010100020021000B Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees Celsius and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees Celsius. b)

58%

010100020021000C Using the psychrometric chart, find the dewpoint temperature if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C. c) 11.5 degrees C

119

010100020021000D Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C. d)

0.0085 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air

010100020021000E Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C. e)

42 kJ/kg

010100020021000B Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees C. b)

0.842 cubic metres / kg

010100020021000C Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C. c)

100%

010100020021000A Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C. c)

52%

010100020021000A Using the psychrometric chart, find the dewpoint temperature if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C. a)

17.5 degrees C

010100020021000C Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C. c)

0.0125 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air

010100020021000B Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C. b)

57 kJ/kg

120

010100020021000E Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume, if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C. e)

0.862 cubic metres / kg

010100020021000A During sensible heating the dry-bulb temperature and the wet-bulb temperature are raised, and a)

the dewpoint remains unchanged

010100020021000E During sensible heating, only e)

the relative humidity decreases

010100020021000D During sensible cooling d)

relative humidity increases

010100020021000A If 5.0 cubic metres/second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the mass of air flowing? a)

5.94 kg/sec

010100020021000C If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the volume of air leaving the coil? c)

5.17 cubic metres per second

010100020021000E If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the change in enthalpy? e) 10 kJ/kg 010100020021000B If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the heating capacity of the coil? b)

59.4 kW

010100020021000C Evaporative cooling is

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c)

cooling and humidification of the air

010100020021000C The comfort of human beings is affected by the atmospheric conditions surrounding them. Which of the following is not an atmospheric condition which affects comfort? c)

Saturation temperature

010100020021000A The body needs considerable time to adjust when moving from one space to another when temperature and humidity conditions vary widely. This may be described as a)

shock effect

010100020021000E The comfort of human beings is affected by a) b) c) d) e)

temperature relative humidity air cleanliness air movement all of the above

010100020021000C Shock Effect is c)

the discomfort felt when a person moves from a much hotter space to a much cooler space or vice versa

010100020021000B Air used for ventilating purposes in an office building should be kept within certain range of relative humidity as indicated below. b)

30 to 70

010100020021000E An increased air flow increases heat loss of the body by which of the following methods: i) convection ii) conduction iii) evaporation 010100020021000C An average effective temperature chart can be applicable under the following conditions except when c)

activity is high or heavy muscular work is being done

010100020021000B A measure of comfort which involves the combined effects of the dry-bulb temperature, relative humidity and air movement is defined as b) effective temperature 010100020021000C

122

Which of the following statements about effective temperature is true? c)

For each combination air velocity remains constant.

010100020021000E The relative humidity should be maintained between e)

30% and 70% during the summer and the winter

010100020021000E Effective temperature is defined as a measure of comfort which involves a) b) c) d) e)

the the the the all

effects of relative humidity effects of air movement effects of dry-bulb temperature effects of wet-bulb temperature of the above

010100020021000D During the winter, the majority of people feel comfortable d) 17.2 and 21.7 degrees C 010100020021000E During the summer, the majority of people feel comfortable when the effective temperature is between e)

19 and 24 degrees C

Fans for Air Distribution Systems 010100020021000B The group of fans which consist of a rotor or wheel having several radial blades, which is mounted on a shaft within the fan housings is b)

Centrifugal

010100020021000C Which of the following is not a centrifugal fan? c)

the propeller fan

010100020021000D Two fan wheels are rotating at the same speed. One wheel has forward curved blades and the other has backward inclined blades. The velocity of the air leaving the forward curved blades is considerably higher for which of the following reasons? d) The inclination of the blades in the forward curved fan increases the resultant force vector while the backward curved blade inclination decreases the resultant vector. 010100020021000E

123

When comparing the tube axial fan with the vane axial fan the main difference between the two is the e)

motion of the discharge air

010100020021000A Which of the following statements about fan performance curves is false? a)

They are plotted from theoretical calculations.

010100020021000C When a fan outlet is considered fully open which of the following statements is true? c)

There is free air volume delivery.

010100020021000A Which of the following devices has a de-clutching feature? a)

A fluid drive

010100020021000E The two general groups of fans are e)

centrifugal and axial flow

010100020021000E Centrifugal fans are classified as a) b) c) d) e)

backward inclined straight backward inclined with airfoil blades forward curved all of the above

010100020021000D Axial flow fans are classified as d) vane axial, tube axial, and propeller 010100020021000A Forward curved centrifugal fans a)

operate at a lower speed than backward inclined fans for the same air volume

010100020021000B Backward inclined centrifugal fans b)

are quieter than forward curved fans

010100020021000D The vane axial flow fan d)

has a less spiral air flow, less friction, and better efficiency than the tube axial fan

124

010100020021000A The fan which discharges maximum air delivery at the lowest power requirement and is used mainly to produce large air movements at low pressures is a)

the propeller fan

010100020021000B The devices which are used to minimize vibration problems and premature wearing of the belts are called b)

V-belt drives

010100020021000D Control of the static pressure and horsepower requirements at a given speed is obtained by using d) variable inlet vane control 010100020021000C Backward inclined airfoil fans c)

are mostly used for high capacity, high pressure applications

010100020021000B Forward curved fans b)

are desirable when air handling units have two or more fans mounted on a common shaft

010100020021000D The propeller axial flow fan is used d)

for high capacity, low pressure applications

010100020021000E The propeller axial flow fan e)

finds application in unit heaters, air-cooled condensers, and as an exhaust fan for ventilation purposes

010100020021000A The tube axial flow fan a)

has higher friction losses in ducts than the straight air flow of a centrifugal fan

010100020021000B Axial flow fans b) have minimum horsepower at maximum or free air delivery 010100020021000C What are the three different kinds of pressure developed by a fan? c) static pressure, velocity pressure, total pressure 010100020021000A

125

Static pressure exerted by air is measured by connecting a)

a manometer at right angles to the air duct

010100020021000B Velocity pressure exerted by the air is measured by connecting a b)

manometer with the opening facing the air flow in the air duct

010100020021000D Total pressure exerted by the air is the sum of d) static pressure and velocity pressure

Air Conditioning Duct Systems 010100020021000C A ventilation V system leading from a fume hood in a chemistry lab would have which duct material used for its ductwork? c)

Cement asbestos

010100020021000A Ducts of large dimensions must be diagonally creased to a)

provide stiffness

010100020021000B Short radius elbows should be provided with b)

turning vanes

010100020021000D The main function of an air conditioning duct system is d)

to transmit supply and return air between the air handling apparatus and the space to be conditioned

010100020021000B Classifications of air conditioning ducts include b)

low pressure, medium pressure, and high pressure

010100020021000E Medium and high pressure duct systems require less space than low pressure duct systems, but this feature is partly offset by a) b) c)

higher operating cost and higher initial cost of air handling apparatus costly special control devices and costly noise suppressing devices higher first cost for special equipment required to

126

d) e)

reduce the air velocity before distribution to the air space more costly fabrication and installation of ductwork all of the above

010100020021000E Fibreglass ducts are used e)

in some low pressure systems

010100020021000D Materials used in sheet metal ducts are d)

galvanized or black steel, aluminum, copper, and stainless steel

010100020021000E Ducts are fabricated of a) b) c) d) e)

sheet metal cement asbestos plastic fibreglass all of the above

010100020021000E Which of the following statements about duct leakage losses is true? e)

Losses due to air leakage from furred supply air ducts within the conditioned space can only be evaluated on the basis of judgement.

010100020021000C Seepage in return air ducts turned within the conditioned space may have what kind of effect? c)

It will increase the load on the air system in terms of volumes of air.

010100020021000A When all supply air duct is outside the conditioned space there is a certain leakage. This leakage must be calculated how? a)

It must be added to the calculated room sensible heat load.

010100020021000D Semi-rigid fibrous glass blankets attached to the insides of the ducts are in place to mainly d)

attenuate airborne noises

010100020021000C Supply air duct leakage loss calculations include c)

10% leakage loss when all the supply air duct is outside

127

the conditioned space 010100020021000A Return air duct leakage calculations include a)

3% seepage if the return air duct is outside the conditioned space

010100020021000B Duct liners b)

reduce the noise level of air flowing in the duct system

010100020021000B A mixing box is an example of which kind of damper? b)

A modulating damper

010100020021000D The function of a check valve is similar to the function of which type of damper? d)

A relief damper

010100020021000A The purpose of dampers in an air handling system is a)

to control the flow of air

010100020021000C Dampers in air handling systems c)

may be modulating, manual, or two position

010100020021000E Modulating dampers in air handling systems are used a) b) c) d) e)

as mixing boxes to proportion the amounts of two different air flows such as outdoor air and recirculated air to modulate the volume of conditioned air needed to meet load requirements as face dampers to modulate the volume of air that goes through a cooling or heating coil as bypass dampers to throttle the balance of the constant total air flow around a heating or cooling coil all of the above

010100020021000B Relief dampers b)

allow air flow in one direction only

010100020021000C Damper designs include c)

opposed blade, parallel blade, and single blade types

128

010100020021000D Parallel blade dampers d)

are often used on mixing boxes where two sets of dampers are mounted with blades direct

010100020021000D Air louvers d) are used in fresh air intake openings to minimize the amount of water and snow entering the air handling system 010100020021000E Which of the following is NOT a function of terminal air distribution devices? d)

Provide adequate air motion

010100020021000C Which of the following is not a function of terminal air distribution devices? c)

maintain comfortable conditions mainly along the ceiling and outside walls within the occupied zone

010100020021000C Functions of terminal air distribution devices are accomplished c)

by aspiration, entrainment, induction, and diffusion

Coil Types 010100020021000C Which type of coil circuiting is designed to produce a high heat capacity with a limited water quantity? c)

Half serpentine

010100020021000A Air venting is required for which of the following reasons? a)

To assure adequate water distribution in supply and return lines

010100020021000E Steam Coils must be designed to: v) constantly eliminate air venting In order to provide uniform steam distribution to the individual tubes, which of the above design parameters is/are true? i) ii)

constantly eliminate air constantly eliminate condensate

129

iii) iv) v) a) b) c) d) e)

constantly eliminate noncondensable gases constantly maintain face velocity constantly eliminate air venting

ii, iii, and v iii only ii and iv i, iii, iv, and v i, ii, and iii

010100020021000B Which of the following statements about steam distributing coils is true? b)

The coils distribute steam evenly over the entire coil

010100020021000A To obtain full rated capacity of water coils what should be done? a)

Connect the water supply for counterflow

010100020021000B Fin spacing of 6.35 to 1.814 mm is most normally used in which of the following cases? b)

Steam and hot water heating coils

010100020021000D Which of the following statements about water coils is false? d)

Circuiting should minimize the performance of the water flow versus the pressure drop through the coil.

010100020021000D A factor limiting the number of fins that can be used on coils is d)

the resistance to airflow

010100020021000E Proper performance of heating and cooling water coils depends on a) b) c) d) e)

adequate air velocity over the finned surface counterflow arrangement of air and water air venting from the system and the coil tube circuiting and finning all of the above

010100020021000C With counterflow arrangement of air and water c)

the water supply connection is on the same side as the leaving air

010100020021000A

130

The most commonly used types of water coil circuiting are a)

single serpentine, double serpentine, and half serpentine

010100020021000D Single serpentine water coil circuiting is used d) where the water velocity in the tubes is between 0.3 and 2.4 m/s 010100020021000B Double serpentine water coil circuiting is used b)

where the water velocity in the tubes is more than 2.4 m/s

010100020021000E Half serpentine water coil circuiting is used e)

where the water velocity in the tubes is less than 0.3 m/s

010100020021000B To assure proper air venting, the b)

supply water connection should be at the bottom of the coil

010100020021000E Which one of the following methods is not a method of ensuring uniform steam distribution in steam coils? e)

controlling the face velocity of the air flowing over coils

010100020021000D Which of the following statements about coil surfaces is false? d)

All fins must be crimped

010100020021000C To ensure effective heat transfer which of the following is the most vital element? c)

A good bond must exist between the tube and fin

010100020021000D Which of the following is a limiting factor for the number of fins that can be used? d)

Resistance to airflow

010100020021000C Finned tube coils in air handling systems are often called c)

extended surface coils

131

010100020021000B Fin surface area is called b)

secondary surface area

010100020021000A Two types of modern coils used for heating and cooling services in air handling systems are a)

the continuous-plate finned surface and the spiral-finned surface

010100020021000D Flat-finned surface type coils are normally used for d)

low temperature application where ice may form

010100020021000C Rippled-finned surface type coils c)

increase the heat transfer efficiency by creating more turbulence at fin surfaces

010100020021000D Face velocity is the d)

average velocity of the air flowing over the face area of the fin surface

Coil Operation 010100020021000C To prevent freezing of downstream equipment in a coil handling a large amount of outdoor air, which of the following is required? c)

A preheat coil

010100020021000A It is good practice to select steam coils which require at least 40% of coil capacity when air temperature is 1 degree C for which of the following reasons? a)

Steam flow is high enough at high temperature and prevents build-up and freezing of condensate

010100020021000D Steam coils with a short tube length of 1.1 m or less d)

are less likely to freeze if the steam trap is properly chosen and the coil is properly piped

010100020021000B Steam coils with long tube lengths

132

b)

have the greatest freezing problems at temperatures of about -2 to -1 degrees C

010100020021000A Freezing problems in steam coils with long tube lengths, handling a large amount of low temperature outside air a)

are minimized by using preheat coils controlled by an outdoor temperature controller

010100020021000E To prevent freezing of the steam coil when steam pressure at the coil inlet is too low or is lost e)

provisions are made to stop the fan and close the outdoor air dampers

010100020021000B It is good design practice to select a steam coil size b) so that at least 40% of the coil capacity is needed when the air temperature entering the coil is -1 degree C 010100020021000D The purpose of a vacuum breaker used with steam coils is to d)

prevent possible freezing caused by a vacuum or negative pressure in the steam coil

010100020021000B In a hot water coil which of the following is not included for providing a good guideline for the correct application of the system with minimal possibility of freeze-up? b)

The air velocity should exceed 10 m/s

010100020021000C Which of the following is not a cause of freezing in hot water coils? c)

very high circulating water velocity

010100020021000A The purpose of the "freeze-stat" temperature controller used with hot water coils is to a)

close the outside air dampers and stop the fan if the heat source fails or the low limit temperature controller malfunctions

010100020021000D The purpose of the flow switch or sail switch used with hot water coils is to d)

close the outside air dampers and stop the fan if the flow of water is interrupted due to pump failure or closing of the hand valves

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010100020021000B The flow arrangement best suited for hot water coils is b)

the parallel flow arrangement because it gives better protection against freezing

010100020021000E The use of ethylene glycol solution will result in which of the following: i) Lower heat transfer rate ii) Better protection against freezing iii) Increased friction losses in the coil and piping iv) The requirement of a larger pump with more horsepower 010100020021000D For a glycol system using hot water as its heat source which of the following statements is false? d)

Flow Switch FS automatically starts the glycol pump automatically after V-3 is opened.

010100020021000E Ethylene glycol used in glycol coils d)

has much lower pressure drops through the coil and piping

010100020021000B Glycol coils using ethylene glycol b)

are not recommended for use in heating and air conditioning systems in the food industry

010100020021000D A thermostat which is sometimes installed in the return air duct serves which main function? d) To minimize temperature fluctuations in discharge air 010100020021000B Which of the following statements about vacuum breakers is false? b)

The vacuum breaker must be installed before the control valve and as near as possible to the outlet connection of the coil.

010100020021000E The greatest fears in hot water coil installations handling subfreezing air are: iii) failure of the circulating pipe v) failure of the heat source 010100020021000B Which of the following is not an installation recommendation for steam traps? b) Locate the steam trap so that its outlet is at least 30 cm (12 in) above the coil return connection.

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010100020021000C Steam coil piping and trapping c)

differs from the hot water and glycol coil because it carries more fluids: steam, air, water, and non-condensable gases

010100020021000A Steam coils a)

should be installed with tubes in a vertical position to ensure positive condensate drainage

010100020021000C Which of the following steam traps are preferred for use with steam coils operating at low and medium steam pressure? c)

F & T trap (float and thermostatic)

010100020021000A The inverted bucket steam trap is a)

used when the coil steam pressure is higher than 172 kpa or 25 psig

010100020021000D A modulating control valve d)

can be used to control steam coils when the entering air temperature is above 1.5 degrees C

010100020021000C Air vents are c)

not required at the steam coil if a float and thermostatic (F & T) trap is used at the steam coil with an atmospheric return and the steam main is adequately vented

Humidification 010100020021000C Which of the following is not a result of very low humidity? c)

Evaporation of moisture on the skin decreases

010100020021000D If air at 13 degrees C can hold a maximum of 0.0032 kg of moisture per kilogram of air, what is the relative humidity if the air contains 0.0015 kg of moisture per 1 kg of air? d)

47%

010100020021000A The outside temperature 18 - 25 degrees C is saturated (Air

135

at -25 degrees C holds a maximum of 0.0005 kg of moisture/kg of water). This air is drawn into the building and heated to 21 degrees C (air at 21 degrees C holds a maximum of 0.015 kg of moisture/kg of water). What is the relative humidity of the air inside? a)

3.3%

010100020021000D Humidity in the air d) decreases when the air temperature decreases 010100020021000A Relative humidity is the amount of a)

moisture contained in the air compared to the maximum amount of moisture the air is capable of holding at the stated temperature

010100020021000B The purpose of humidification is to b)

add humidity to the air during the heating season

010100020021000C Relative humidity c)

decreases when the air temperature is raised without the addition of moisture to the air

010100020021000E Humidification in residences equipped with ducted warm air heating systems e)

is provided for by placing a single humidifier in the furnace plenum or in the warm air duct

010100020021000D The residential humidifier which is commonly used in the supply plenum of smaller warm air furnaces and consists of a shallow tray partially filled with water is called a e)

power type humidifier

010100020021000C Which type of humidifier breaks water up into a mist or fog? c)

An atomizing humidifier

010100020021000B Which of the following statements about Air washers is false? b)

Air washers can remove tobacco smoke.

010100020021000D To keep humidifiers in top condition the plates of plate type units should be cleaned by soaking them in a slightly acidic

136

solution and then washing them in soapy water to d) remove mineral salts 010100020021000C Dehumidification occurs in an Air washer when which of the following occurs? c)

If spray water is cooled to a temperature below the dew point

010100020021000E It is not recommended to use an on-off switch for steam grid humidifiers because a) b) c) d) e)

fogging would occur overheating would occur misting would occur wide fluctuations in relative humidity would occur all of the above

010100020021000D Humidifying units which use a small fan to draw warmer air from the furnace plenum or from the room, force the air through the wetted pad, and return the air to the room, are called d)

power type wetted element humidifiers

010100020021000D The types of humidifiers used for residential purposes are d)

atomizing, wetted element, and pan

010100020021000C Pan type humidifiers with plates c)

consist of a shallow pan, partially filled with water in which absorbent plates are placed and the pan is installed in the supply plenum of smaller warm air furnaces

010100020021000B Wetted element humidifiers b) e)

can be either the power type or the bypass type are the same as the atomizing humidifiers

010100020021000A Atomizing humidifiers a)

break up the water for humidification into small particles by either a spinning disc or spray nozzle and are placed either in the warm air supply duct or in the area to be humidified

010100020021000E A disadvantage of the atomizing humidifier is

137

e)

the salts that were in the water before atomization and evaporation settle as white dust in rooms and ducts

010100020021000D Air washers used in air conditioning systems d)

humidify, heat, cool, dehumidify, and clean the air

010100020021000C Air washers used in air conditioning systems achieve heating and humidification by c)

heating the spray water to a temperature above the dry bulb temperature of the entering air

010100020021000B Air washers used in air conditioning systems achieve cooling and dehumidification by b) cooling the spray water to a temperature below the dew point temperature of the entering air 010100020021000A Which is not a method employed to maintain the desired temperature of the spray water in air washers used in air conditioning systems? a)

an electric heater and fan

010100020021000C Steam grid humidifiers used in air conditioning systems achieve humidification by c)

injecting steam in the supply air stream

Air Conditioning Systems I 010100020021000C The category of air conditioning which is responsible for getting outside air into the building to replenish the oxygen supply for the occupants is c)

ventilation

010100020021000D To offset the heat gain through the building's exterior shell from solar radiation, the atmosphere surrounding the building, and from internal sources of heat, what is required? d)

a cooling source

010100020021000E A small residence located in a tropical climate may require which of the following elements of an air conditioning system: ii) cooling

138

iv) v)

dehumidification ventilation

010100020021000A Which of the following statements about air handling units is true? a)

In any system the air is mainly conditioned in the units

010100020021000B The intake section arrangement which draws in room air, conditions it, and then returns it into the room is called b)

full recirculation

010100020021000C The unitary air conditioning system which uses a direct expansion refrigeration system to provide cooling and dehumidification in a local area without ductwork is called c)

a window air conditioner

010100020021000C Which of the following statements about the unit ventilators is false? c)

The units provide cooling only

010100020021000E Which of the following statements about central air conditioning systems is false? e) Unitary systems are able to control noise and vibration better than central systems. 010100020021000A The most common system installed in most residences where the furnace is located in the basement and provides conditioned air via ducts to each room is called a)

a forced air system

010100020021000C Which of the following statements about multizone systems is true? c)

When the hot deck is fully opened the cold deck is fully closed

Air Conditioning Systems II 010100020021000D Supplementary units located in each zone provide

139

d)

heating

010100020021000C In a constant air volume system with perimeter heating which of the following elements are fluids in the air handling unit? ii) Cooling coils iii) An air mixing section iv) Filters v) A humidifier 010100020021000D A system used extensively in hotels and motels due to its minimal space requirement, relatively low initial cost, and high degree of individual zone control is called d)

a fan coil unit with make up air system

010100020021000E Which of the following statements about fan coil units makeup air systems is false? e)

Humidity is controlled by the fan coil units.

010100020021000A An induction system gets its name from which property of the system? a)

The way air in the room is circulated

010100020021000E Which of the following statements about two-pipe arrangements is false? e)

The system can heat and cool at the same time.

010100020021000B A system which provides cooling and heating all year round is highly energy efficient but has a high initial cost. The system consists of two separate supply and return piping systems which are connected to separate coils. Which of the following systems fits this description? a)

A single pipe system

010100020021000B The funds available for the air conditioning portion of the building refers to which factor of system selection? b)

Capital cost

010100020021000A If operating personnel from an old building are going to be transferred to the new building the system installed in the new building will be the same as in the older building because all the personnel are familiar with that system.

140

This type of system selection is based mainly on which of the following factors? a)

Building owner's considerations

010100020021000B When looking at building function to select a system which of the following factors are considered? iii) Amount of zoning required v) Occupancy periods vi) Need to operate certain areas off-hours

Air Conditioning Heat Recovery Systems 010100020021000B The recovery system which employs a single exchange unit consisting of a casing split into two sections and a segmented rotating wheel 300 mm (12 in) thick and 1 to 3.7 m (3 to 12 ft) in diameter is called a b)

thermal wheel

010100020021000E The recovery system which has a capillary wick structure consisting of fine circumferential striations machined on its external surface is called a e)

heat pipe

010100020021000C A system consists of two finned tube heat exchangers. is the preconditioning coil of this system located? c)

Where

In the duct work handling the ventilation into the process

010100020021000A What is the name of the system that consists of two finned tube heat exchangers? a)

runaround system

010100020021000D The system which runs as a refrigeration system used for air conditioning purposes in the summer and can be modified to run in reverse in cooler weather is called a d)

heat pipe

010100020021000D The system which makes use of a coil installed underground below frost levels is called a d) heat pump 010100020021000D Cross contamination is a disadvantage for which of the

141

following systems? d) A thermal wheel 010100020021000C Which of the following is not an advantage for a runaround system? c)

Piping is not required in the system.

010100020021000B The fact that the system can be treated against corrosion is an advantage for which system? b)

A heat pipe

010100020021000E When is the capacity of a heat pipe at a maximum? e)

When the evaporator is lowered below the horizontal

Air Conditioning System Controls 010100020021000D When the outdoor air damper increases the flow of fresh air, which of the following is true? d)

The return air damper throttles down to reduce the volume of returned air.

010100020021000A To provide a two position damper, equipped with a fan that provides 100% outdoor air, with a ratio of damper opening what is required? a)

A gradual switch

010100020021000C In severely cold weather what adjustment must be made to properly preheat the outside air? c)

Two separate preheater coils should be installed

010100020021000E Which of the following is not a correct method of heat regulation? e)

Modulating the valve and the face and the bypass damper 30 degrees out of phase.

010100020021000E Air conditioning with respect to heating coils is achieved in which of the following ways? a) b)

A combination of tempering control functions The selected mixing of warm return air and cooler outside

142

c) d) e)

air Selective heating by passing air through the heating coils Proportioning the amount of air flow through the face damper for heat addition, or through the bypass dampers for no heat addition. All of the above

010100020021000B A main advantage of steam type humidifiers over pan type humidifiers is that b)

there is minimal time lag with steam type humidifiers

010100020021000C Dehumidification is achieved by c)

cooling the air to a corresponding dew point temperature

010100020021000E To prevent too frequent starting and stopping of the compressor in a cooling system what should be done? e)

Run the compressor continuously and modulate refrigerant flow

010100020021000C To control static pressure in the air ducts a differential pressure controller is installed. How does the controller control static pressure? c)

By modulating the damper on the suction side of the fan

010100020021000A When complete control systems become very complex, which control signal medium is preferred? a)

Pneumatic

Heat Gains and Losses 010100020021000B Conduction heat gains are calculated on the assumption that b)

solar heat gains are not included

010100020021000D Two methods of calculating air infiltration into a building are d)

the air change and crack method

010100020021000A In calculating air infiltration the quickest method is

143

a)

the air change method

010100020021000D Air ventilation is based on the larger of these two requirements: d)

infiltration rate and CFM rate per person

010100020021000D Heat load from people in a room is mostly affected by d) the activity of the people 010100020021000D To calculate the heat gain from fluorescent lighting, add the wattage ratings and multiply by d)

1.2

010100020021000A Electric motors give off sensible heat while running. 010100020021000C If exhaust fans are used over cooking only c)

50% of the heat gain is used in calculations

010100020021000D Heat is lost from a building in the following ways: d)

conduction, radiation, and convection

010100020021000C Heat lost from a building is c)

affected by wind speed

Powerhouse Maintenance I 010100020021000C Relative to plant maintenance, a power engineer should have easy access to c)

the Workers' Compensation Board Accident Prevention Regulations

010100020021000A Damaged tools a)

are best disposed of or properly repaired

010100020021000A Who is responsible for providing safe working conditions in the plant? a)

Management

144

010100020021000B A file which is always single cut is the b)

mill file

010100020021000E Taper, plug, and bottoming are types of b)

dies

010100020021000E A collet is e)

a holder for a thread die

010100020021000A The thread pitch of a metric micrometer is a)

0.5 mm

010100020021000D To measure valve tappet clearances one would most aptly use d) feeler gauges 010100020021000E Copper sulphate may be used e)

as a marking material

010100020021000C In order to check the trueness of a flat surface, one would use a c)

surface plate

010100020021000A A dressing tool is used to a)

square the edges of a grinding wheel

010100020021000B Flutes are found on b)

the body of a twist drill bit

010100020021000C A screwdriver having a square tip is known as a robertson type. 010100020021000E A 300 mm tungsten hacksaw blade with a .78 mm teeth pitch is used to cut e)

thin wall tubing

145

010100020021000E Whatever the size of a micrometer, the working parts can only move a distance of e)

25 mm

010100020021000C Micrometers are available in a variety of types and are used mainly for the measurement of c)

outside, inside and depth dimensions of relatively small openings of objects

010100020021000B The accuracy of the completed job depends largely on the care taken during laying out. 010100020021000D Chalk or blue vitrol may be used to rub on the surface of rough castings as a marking material. 010100020021000D A taper tap is tapered from the end for approximately d) 6 threads 010100020021000E The tap drill is always smaller than the tap, to leave sufficient material for the tap to produce 75 per cent of thread. 010100020021000D Hand taps are usually made in sets of three called d)

plug, taper, and bottoming

010100020021000D The point angle of a properly ground drill should be d) 118 degrees 010100020021000C When storing a hacksaw c)

strain should be removed by loosening the blade

Powerhouse Maintenance II 010100020021000B A government agency which covers several aspects of work platforms is the b)

Workers' Compensation Board Accident Prevention Regulations

010100020021000D

146

When working on a platform it is important to d)

warn people on the ground of hazards

010100020021000A When using a step ladder it is best to a)

not work higher than the top three rungs

010100020021000E A rung ladder should e)

be inclined with a 4:1 slope

010100020021000D A scaffold should always be erected d)

plumb and level

010100020021000C A single pole scaffold c)

is partially supported by a building

010100020021000C The top of a ladder should extend approximately __________ above the level of the upper landing to which it provides access. c) 0.9 metres 010100020021000E Ladders constructed on the job must comply with the e)

WCB regulations

010100020021000D Platforms should have a raised edge going around them to prevent objects from rolling off. 010100020021000C A single pole scaffold c) is partially supported by the building 010100020021000E WCB Regulations state: Tubular and similar type section scaffolding shall be erected plumb and level 010100020021000B Prior to hoisting an object it is best to e) measure the width 010100020021000E The maximum % error we should use when calculating the mass of a light object is 20%

147

010100020021000B Chain blocks are designed e)

for lifting very long objects

010100020021000C Whenever two or more sling eyes are used in lifting an object they should be c) held in a shackle 010100020021000D The most common method of getting a reasonable idea of an object's mass is by estimating it. 010100020021000C To determine the mass of an object you may c)

use specification sheets

010100020021000C Safe practice in rigging, when calculating weight of objects, should be accurate within plus or minus 20% for light objects. 010100020021000D The approximate mass of a 15 cm "I" beam is d)

26 kg per running metre

Powerhouse Maintenance III 010100020021000C Wire rope classified as 8 x 12 means it has c)

8 strands with 12 wires per strand

010100020021000A An eye made by using a Crosby clip will have a strength factor of 80% 010100020021000D A strand of fibre rope is d)

composed of yarns twisted left-handed

010100020021000C In order to keep rope from untwisting under load c) it is made with left- and right-handed counteracting twists 010100020021000E A knot used to pull at right angles to a pipe or pole is the

148

e)

clove hitch

010100020021000B When joining two ropes of different diameters we use a b)

sheet bend

010100020021000D Eye bolts should be d)

hot forged

010100020021000C Natural ropes are made of c)

manila

010100020021000B What factor of safety should be used, to determine safe load for a new fibre rope? b)

5

010100020021000A The clove hitch is used for attaching a rope to pull a)

at right angles

010100020021000B Stove bolt nuts are usually b)

square

010100020021000C An M24 course thread bolt has c)

3 mm per thread

010100020021000D To prevent damage to a work surface while fastening d)

use flat washers

010100020021000E Castle nuts are used e) with a split pin 010100020021000B Mechanical steel fasteners that are commonly used in the automotive industry and on various plant machinery are classed as b)

machine bolts

010100020021000D Machine bolts are most commonly supplied with

149

d)

hexagon heads

Boiler Maintenance 010100020021000A A boiler circulating pump gland should have some leakage a)

to prevent the packing from drying out

010100020021000D Manway gaskets should be coated with an anti-seize compound d)

to prevent the gasket from sticking to the mating surfaces

010100020021000E When plugging off a tube in a boiler, the plug taper should Be 20 to 1 010100020021000B When the fireside of a boiler is first opened up, small leak seepage spots can be detected by b)

white salt deposits resulting from water evaporation

010100020021000D A black light crack detection utilizes ultraviolet light and d)

fluorescent penetrant

010100020021000D A substance which will absorb humidity inside a boiler during dry lay up is d) activated alumina 010100020021000B A water tank should be installed above the boiler and attached to the vent connection during a wet lay up in order to b)

prevent air from entering the boiler during water contraction

010100020021000E When working inside a steel heating boiler, which of the following safety precautions should you take? 1. 2. 4.

boiler must be cooled and vented valves must be closed and locked, and all lines to and from the boiler must be blanked always have one man standing outside, whenever anyone is inside the boiler

150

010100020021000E Before a welder is allowed to weld on a boiler he must have a e)

certificate of qualification and a performance qualification card

010100020021000D When replacing a firetube in a tubesheet, the tube should extend beyond the tubesheet d)

two tube wall thickness'

010100020021000C The final step in replacing a firetube is c)

applying a hydrostatic test

010100020021000E The purpose of annealing tube ends is e)

to soften the tube ends

010100020021000B A tube beading tool b)

is used on firetube boilers

Boiler Cleaning 010100020021000A One of the main purposes of an external inspection is to a)

observe operation and maintenance practices

010100020021000D When the boiler is removed from service, it can be drained once the temperature reaches approximately d)

90 degrees C

010100020021000D Just before entering the waterside of the boiler it is important to d)

test the atmosphere with an oxygen "sniffer"

010100020021000A When cooling down a steam boiler that has been taken out of service, a vent valve on the steam drum should be opened to a)

prevent a vacuum from forming in the boiler

010100020021000A Before cleaning the waterside and as far as is possible

151

a)

a visual inspection of pressure parts should be completed

010100020021000B One of the legal responsibilities of the engineer during an inspection is to b)

point out any known or suspected defects to the inspector

010100020021000A The external inspection of a boiler a)

may include making sure the valves are in good operating condition

010100020021000B A boiler inspection b)

must be done when the boiler inspector requests it

010100020021000A A hydrostatic test on a high pressure steam boiler a)

must be done on a new boiler

010100020021000E Chemical cleaning of smaller boilers is not usually done because e)

the cost to do so is not warranted or justified

010100020021000D For an alkaline boil out, the boiler is maintained at a desired steam pressure for about e)

24 hours

010100020021000A A relatively new and safer chemical used in boiler cleaning and treatment is a)

chelates

010100020021000A An inhibitor, when added to acid, will a)

minimize the effect the acid has on the metal

010100020021000B The most popular acid for boiler cleaning is b)

hydrochloric

Hot Oil Systems 010100020021000B

152

In hot oil heaters, hot gases moving through the furnace transfers the heat to b)

a convection heater

010100020021000C Extended type tubes used with oil heaters are tubes c) with fins on their outer surfaces 010100020021000B The extended type tubes have fins on their outer surfaces. 010100020021000C The most commonly applied oil heater, is the combination convection and radiant type heater because of its efficiency. a) b) c) d) e)

superheater conduction radiant stationary portable

010100020021000C The most typical fired heater model is the c)

up-draft

010100020021000D The convection tubes of a typical up-draft model fired heater are located in the d)

breeching

010100020021000A The gas burners of a horizontal rectangular direct-fired oil heaters, are located a)

on the floor of the furnace

010100020021000D The inner walls and floor of a furnace in a fired heater, are usually lined with d)

refractory brick

010100020021000A The most important piece of equipment of a hot oil system is a)

the heater

010100020021000A The most common oil heater is the combination of the radiant and convection type.

153

010100020021000D The approximate efficiency of a hot oil radiant heater is d)

40 - 50%

010100020021000E Hot oil convection heaters have an approximate efficiency of e)

75 - 85 percent

010100020021000B A non-metallic part of a mechanical seal might be made from b)

teflon

010100020021000E The maximum temperature of oil which can be pumped by a hot oil pump if teflon is used as a non-metallic part of the mechanical seal is e)

200 degrees Celsius

010100020021000A The flow through an oil heater is controlled a)

automatically

010100020021000D A hot oil pump suction is located d)

below the surge tank level

010100020021000D An oil used as thermal transfer fluid must not only be readily available, it must also be at d)

reasonable cost

010100020021000A To avoid start-up difficulties in cold weather a thermal fluid must have a)

a low pour point

010100020021000A Petroleum oils are widely used as heat transfer media for systems operating up to a)

290 degrees Celsius

010100020021000A Small diameter pipe used in building hot oil systems is a)

25.4 mm or smaller

010100020021000D The vapour space of the surge tank is

154

d)

the space in the tank above the level of the oil

010100020021000C When filling a hot oil system with oil and replacing nitrogen gas used to purge air from the system, __________ should be followed. c)

a pattern

010100020021000B How long should the circulating pump be run to ensure the system is full when filling a hot oil system? b)

3 or 4 hours

010100020021000D A hot oil pump suction strainer should be inspected and cleaned after how long, following initial circulation of oil through the system? d)

3 - 4 hours

010100020021000A Temperature rise in a hot oil system during the period that the refractory is drying out is allowed at a rate of a)

not more than 55 degrees Celsius per hour

010100020021000A While refractory is drying in a heater, circulated oil in the tubes is a)

allowed to rise in temperature at not more than 55 degrees Celsius per hour

010100020021000C What piece of equipment in a hot oil system requires the most operator attention? c)

the heater

010100020021000D With regard to oil leaving each heater pass, of particular importance is the d)

temperature

010100020021000A Compatibility of oils is determined by a)

analysis

010100020021000E How far from a furnace heater dike is the drain pit located? e)

about 50 meters

155

010100020021000B The safety valve discharge on a hot oil system returns to b)

the surge tank

010100020021000A The automatic shutdown devices on a hot oil system are called a)

interlocks

010100020021000B A low hot oil flow shutdown (FSDL) is always installed in the outlet line of an oil heater. 010100020021000B Low oil flow shutdowns (FSDL) are usually installed b)

on the outlet line of the oil heater

010100020021000C Hot oil high temperature (TSDH1) shutdown switches are installed on c)

the suction line of the pump

010100020021000B Most heater fuel controls are interlocked to prevent pilot burner fuel supply if hot oil flow is below a preset limit. 010100020021000B In order to keep some hot oil flowing backwards through a standby pump and around the discharge check valve, it is important that the suction valve be left open. 010100020021000E Vapour bubbles in a pump can cause the pump to e)

cavitate

010100020021000B Dikes are required to prevent oil from spreading beyond the confines of a heater in the event of a ruptured tube. 010100020021000C In order not to be harmful to the metals used in hot oil systems the thermal fluid must c)

be noncorrosive

010100020021000E A high flash point in oil reduces the risk of

156

e)

fire

010100020021000A When petroleum oils break down or crack due to high temperature the products formed are insoluble and a)

more viscous

010100020021000B Coke deposits on the inner walls of a heater tube produce a dull sound when the tube is tapped lightly with a hammer? 010100020021000D The presence of coke deposits in a heater tube can be confirmed by d)

radiographic inspection

010100020021000A It is important to drain an hot oil heater prior to attempting a radiographic inspection, because a)

oil and coke appear similar on the x-ray picture

010100020021000B Cracks in the refractory of a hot oil heater may indicate that b)

there may have been hot spots at this point

010100020021000D During shutdown, oil heater pilots and main burners are checked for d)

cleanliness

010100020021000B Indicate which extinguishing agents are most suitable for hot oil fires. b)

foam and dry chemical

Introduction to Gas Plants and Pulp Mills 010100020021000D The authority charged with responsibility for drafting regulations to cover the use of natural gas is the d)

Gas Conservation Board

010100020021000B Hydrocarbons in a natural gas may include b)

ethane

157

010100020021000A The contaminants in a natural gas may include a)

hydrogen sulphide

010100020021000B The purpose of an inlet separator in a natural gas plant is b)

the removal of liquids from the gas

010100020021000D The purpose of the absorber in a natural gas plant is to d)

remove hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide from the gas

010100020021000E The removal of hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide from the natural gas e)

can be done with amine

010100020021000B The purpose of stabilization in natural gas treatment plants is b)

to flash off the gases at low pressure from the liquid hydrocarbons

010100020021000A The purpose of dehydration in natural gas treatment plants is a)

to remove water vapour and remaining hydrocarbon condensates from the main gas stream

010100020021000E The two types of wood pulping processes are the mechanical and the e) chemical 010100020021000B The two chief methods of chemical pulping are: 1. 3.

the sulphite process the sulphate process

010100020021000E In the kraft process, the chipped wood is further processed in one of the following: e) digester 010100020021000D The raw material used in pulp and paper mills is d)

wood chips

010100020021000B Wood pulp production by chemical means, requires the removal of lignin in order to obtain the cellulosic fibre.

158

Steam Related Oil, Food, and Sawmill Processes 010100020021000A The main disadvantage of a sawmill gangsaw is a)

the logs cannot be turned, nor the thickness varied

010100020021000C Kiln-dried lumber refers to drying lumber c)

by automatically maintaining temperature, humidity, and ventilation by using forced ventilation and steam coils

010100020021000B Hog fuel is a term used to describe a b)

mixture of waste wood and bark used as boiler fuel in a sawmill

010100020021000E Which of the following is not a steam user in a meat processing plant? e)

blast freezer

010100020021000D The overall purposes of an oil refinery are to d) remove crude oil contaminants and process the crude oil into specific end products 010100020021000A The purpose of the vacuum unit in an oil refinery is a)

to receive the "reduced crude" and recover more gas oils by further distilling under high temperature and low pressure

010100020021000C The purpose of the fluid catalytic cracking unit (F.C.C.U.) in an oil refinery is c)

to cause the heavy hydrocarbons to be transformed into lighter hydrocarbons

010100020021000B The purpose of the naphtha hydrotreater in an oil refinery is b)

to remove the sulphur and nitrogen compounds before the naphtha goes to the platformer

010100020021000D A diesel hydrotreater in an oil refinery d)

removes the sulphur and nitrogen compounds from the diesel before the diesel goes to storage

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010100020021000A The purpose of a reformer in an oil refinery is a)

to cause the molecular structure of the naphtha to change so that the octane rating is increased and also to produce the hydrogen for the hydrotreaters

010100020021000B A gas sweetening unit in an oil refinery b)

uses an amine contactor to absorb the hydrogen sulphide from the sour gas

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